• No products in the cart.

CBT

Click each SET to complete your CBT.

CBT SET 1

0%
8

Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically.

Thanks for attempting the quiz


CBT SIMULATION SET 5

CBT SIMULATION SET 5

The number of attempts remaining is 1

User Information

1 / 79

The elderly client is admitted to the emergency room. Which symptom is the client with a fractured hip most likely to exhibit?

2 / 79

The teenager with a fiberglass cast asks the nurse if it will be okay to allow his friends to autograph his cast. Which response would be best?

3 / 79

A client with a fractured tibia has a plaster-of￾Paris cast applied to immobilize the fracture. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of a plaster-of-Paris cast? The nurse:

4 / 79

A client with a total hip replacement requires special equipment. Which equipment
would assist the client with a total hip replacement with activities of daily living?

5 / 79

Which roommate would be most suitable for the six-year-old
male with a fractured femur in Russell’s traction?

6 / 79

A client with osteoarthritis has a prescription for Celebrex (celecoxib). Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching?

7 / 79

Ms. jane is to have a pelvic exam, which of the following should the nurse do first

8 / 79

The physician has ordered a histoplasmosis test for the elderly client. The nurse is
aware that histoplasmosis is transmitted to humans by:

9 / 79

A client with Addison’s disease has been admitted with a history of nausea and vomiting for the past three days. The client is receiving IV glucocorticoids (SoluMedrol). Which of the following interventions would the nurse implement?

10 / 79

A client has had a unilateral adrenalectomy to remove a tumor. The most important
measurement in the immediate post-operative period for the nurse to take is:

11 / 79

client with hemophilia has a nosebleed. Which nursing action is most appropriate to control the bleeding?

12 / 79

The client has surgery for removal of a Prolactinoma. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate for this client?

13 / 79

The home health nurse is visiting a client with autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura(ATP). The client’s platelet count currently is 80,000. It will be most important to teach the client and family about:

14 / 79

A client has autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura. To determine the client’s
response to treatment, the nurse would monitor:

15 / 79

A 21-year-old male with Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a senior at the local university. He is engaged to be married and is to begin a new job upon graduation. Which of the following diagnoses would be a priority for this client?

16 / 79

Where is the best site for examining for the presence of petechiae in an
African American client?

17 / 79

The nurse is teaching the client with polycythemia vera about prevention of complications of the disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

18 / 79

Your patient has Diverticulitis for about a decade now. You have assessed
her to be having soft stools of Type 4/5. Which of the following will need
urgent intervention?

19 / 79

A client is diagnosed with hepatitis A. which of the following
statements made by client indicates understanding of the disease

20 / 79

Which of the following statements made by client diagnosed with hepatitis A needs
further understanding of the disease.

21 / 79

The following fruits can be eaten by a person with Crohn’s Disease except:

22 / 79

A patient was diagnosed to have Chron’s disease. What would the patient be manifesting?

23 / 79

A 27- year old adult male is admitted for treatment of Crohn’s disease. Which information is most significant when the nurse assesses his nutritional health?

24 / 79

Patient who has had Parkinson’s disease for 7 years has been experiencing aphasia.
Which health professional should make a referral to with regards to his aphasia?

25 / 79

A patient was brought to the A&E and manifested several symptoms: loss of intellect and memory; change in personality; loss of balance and co-ordination; slurred speech; vision problems and blindness; and abnormal jerking movements. Upon laboratory tests, the patient got tested positive for prions. Which disease is the patient possibly having?

26 / 79

The body part that would most likely display jaundice in the dark-skinned individual is the:

27 / 79

The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of a client with vitamin B12 deficiency. Which finding reinforces the diagnosis of B12 deficiency?

28 / 79

The nurse is conducting a physical assessment on a client with anemia. Which of the following clinical manifestations would be most indicative of the anemia?

29 / 79

Clients with sickle cell anemia are taught to avoid activities that cause hypoxia and hypoxemia. Which of the following activities would the nurse recommend?

30 / 79

The nurse is instructing a client with iron￾deficiency anemia. Which of the following meal plans would the nurse expect the client to select?

31 / 79

A newly admitted client has sickle cell crisis. He is complaining of pain in
his feet and hands. The nurse’s assessment findings include a pulse oximetry of 92.
Assuming that all the following interventions are ordered, which should be done first?

32 / 79

Which of the following foods would the nurse encourage the client in sickle cell crisis to eat?

33 / 79

The client is being evaluated for possible acute leukemia. Which inquiry by the nurse is most important?

34 / 79

A 25 year old male is admitted in sickle cell crisis. Which of the following
interventions would be of highest priority for this client?

35 / 79

a 30 year old male from Haiti is brought to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis. What is the best position for this client?

36 / 79

A 43 year old African American male is admitted with sickle cell anemia. The nurse plans to assess the circulation in the lower extremities every two hours. Which of the following outcome criteria would the nurse use?

37 / 79

Which of the following would be the priority nursing diagnosis for the
adult client with acute leukemia?

38 / 79

A 33-year-old male is being evaluated for possible acute leukemia. Which of
the following findings is most likely related to the diagnosis of leukemia?

39 / 79

Which one of these notifiable diseases needs to be reported on a national level?

40 / 79

In reporting contagious diseases, which of the following will need attention at national level:

41 / 79

  1. Which statement is not true about acute illness?

42 / 79

  1. Taking a nursing history prior to the physical examination allows
    a nurse to establish a rapport with the patient and family. Elements of the history include all of the following except:

43 / 79

  1. Which statement is not true about acute illness?A disease with a rapid onset and/or a short course one.

44 / 79

  1. A young adult is being treated for second and third degree burns over
    25% of his body and is now ready for discharge. The nurse evaluates
    his understanding of discharge instructions relating to wound care and is
    satisfied that he is prepared for home care when he makes which statement?

45 / 79

  1. Which among the following is a cause of Hemorrhoids?

46 / 79

  1. A 45-year old patient was diagnosed to have Piles (Haemorrhoids). During your
    health education with the patient, you informed him of the risk factors of Piles. You
    would tell him that it is caused by all of the following except:

47 / 79

  1. If a patient feels a cramping sensation in their abdomen after a colonoscopy, it
    is advisable that they should do/have which of the following?

48 / 79

  1. A patient is admitted to the ward with symptoms of acute diarrhoea. What should your initial management be?

49 / 79

  1. Which condition is not a cause of diarrhea?

50 / 79

  1. When explaining about travellers’ diarrhoea which of the following is correct?

51 / 79

  1. A nurse assists the physician is performing liver biopsy. After the
    biopsy the nurse places the patient in which position?

52 / 79

  1. Which of the following is a severe complication during 24 hrs post liver biopsy?

53 / 79

  1. Patient is post op liver biopsy which is a sign of serious complication?
    (Select x 2 correct answers)

54 / 79

  1. A patient in your care is about to go for a liver biopsy. What are
    the most likely potential complications related to this procedure?

55 / 79

  1. diabetic patient with suspected liver tumor has been prescribed
    with Trphasic CT scan. Which medication needs to be on hold after the scan?

56 / 79

  1. What position should you prepare the patient in pre-op for abdominal Paracentesis?

57 / 79

  1. Correct position for abdominal paracentesis.

58 / 79

  1. What is the preferred position for abdominal Paracenthesis?

59 / 79

  1. Patient had undergone post lumbar tap and is exhibiting increase HR,
    decrease BP, and alteration in consciousness and dilated pupils. What is the patient likely experiencing?

60 / 79

  1. Which is not an expected side effect of lumbar tap?

61 / 79

  1. Which is not an indication for lumbar tap?

62 / 79

  1. How to position patient for abdominal tap

63 / 79

  1. It is unsafe for a spinal tap to be undertaken if the patient:Has bacterial meningitis

64 / 79

  1. Which is not an expected side effect of lumbar tap?

65 / 79

  1. patient was recommended to undergo lumbar puncture. As the
    nurse caring for this patient, what should you not expect as its complications:

66 / 79

  1. A client immediately following LP developed deterioration of consciousness,
    bradycardia, increased systolic BP. What is this:

67 / 79

  1. The night after an exploratory laparotomy, a patient who has a nasogastric tube attached to low suction reports nausea. A nurse should take which of the following actions first?

68 / 79

  1. An assessment of the abdomen of a patient with peritonitis you would expect to find

69 / 79

  1. Patients with gastric ulcers typically exhibit the following symptoms

70 / 79

  1. Patients with gastrointestinal bleeding may experience acute or chronic blood loss.
    Your patient is experiencing hematochezia. You recognise this by:

71 / 79

  1. What would be your main objectives in providing stoma education when
    preparing a patient with a stoma for discharge home?

72 / 79

  1. What type of diet would you recommend to your patient who has
    a newly formed stoma?

73 / 79

  1. When selecting a stoma appliance for a patient who has undergone
    a formation of a loop colostomy, what factors would you consider?

74 / 79

  1. Reason for dyspnoea in patients who diagnosed with Glomerulonephritis patients?

75 / 79

  1. A client immediately following LP developed deterioration of consciousness,
    bradycardia, increased systolic BP. What is this normal reaction

76 / 79

  1. patient just had just undergone lumbar laminectomy, what is the
    best nursing intervention?

77 / 79

  1. A client immediately following LP developed deterioration of consciousness,
    bradycardia, increased systolic BP. What is this normal reaction

78 / 79

  1. Patient manifests phlebitis in his IV site, what must a nurse do?

79 / 79

  1. Early signs of phlebitis would include:

Your score is

The average score is 43%

Please rate this Quiz

CBT SET 2

0%
2

Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically.

Thanks for attempting the quiz


CBT SET 2

CBT SET 2

The number of attempts remaining is 1

User Information

1 / 40

You were asked by the nursing assistant to see Claudia whom you have recently given trimetophrim 200 mgs PO because of urine infection. When you arrived at her bedside, she was short of breath, wheezy and some red patches evident over her face. Which of the following actions will you do if you are suspecting anaphylaxis?

2 / 40

Which of the following are signs of anaphylaxis?

3 / 40

All but one are signs of anaphylaxis:

4 / 40

What are the signs and symptoms of shock during early stage (stage 1-3)?

5 / 40

Signs of hypovolemic shock would include all except:

6 / 40

While giving an IV infusion your patient develops speed shock. What is not a sign and symptom of this?

7 / 40

Which is not a sign or symptom of speed shock?

8 / 40

Which of the following are not signs of a speed shock?

9 / 40

Mrs X had developed Steven-Johnson syndrome whilst on Carbamazepine. She is now being transferred for the ITU to a bay in the Medical ward. Which patient can Mrs X share a baby with?

10 / 40

Jenny, a nursing assistant working with you in an Elderly Care Ward is showing signs of norovirus infection. Which of the following will you ask her to do next?

11 / 40

For which type of waste should orange bags be used?

12 / 40

Under the Yellow Card Scheme you must report the following: (Select x 2 correct answers)

13 / 40

Which bag do you place infected linen?

14 / 40

The nurse needs to validate which of the following statements pertaining to an assigned client?

15 / 40

When do you wear clean gloves?

16 / 40

Infected linen should be placed in:

17 / 40

One of your patients in bay 1 having episodes of vomiting in the last 2 days now. The Norovirus alert has been enforced. The other patients look concerned that he may spread infection. What is your next action in the
situation?

18 / 40

There has been an outbreak of the Norovirus in your clinical area. Majority of your staff have rang in sick. Which of the following is incorrect?

19 / 40

How to take an infected sheet for washing according to UK standard

20 / 40

What percentage of patients in hospital in England, at the time of the 2011 National Prevalence survey, had an infection?

21 / 40

As an infection prevention and control protocol, linens soiled with infectious bodily fluids should be disposed of in what means?

22 / 40

Mrs. Smith is receiving blood transfusion after a total hip replacement operation. After 15 minutes, you went back to check her vital signs and she complained of high temperature and loin pain. This may indicate:

23 / 40

A client was diagnosed to have infection. What is not a sign or symptom of infection?

24 / 40

Which of the following would indicate an infection?

25 / 40

What would make you suspect that a patient in your care had a urinary tract infection?

26 / 40

Where will you put infectious linen?

27 / 40

Under the Yellow Card Scheme you must report the following: ( Select x 2 correct answers)

28 / 40

If you were told by a nurse at handover to take “standard precautions” what would you expect to be doing?

29 / 40

You are told a patient is in “source isolation”. What would you do & why?

30 / 40

The use of an alcohol-based hand rub for decontamination of hands before and after direct patient contact and clinical care is recommended when:

31 / 40

Examples of offensive/hygiene waste which may be sent for energy recovery at energy from waste facilities can include:

32 / 40

If a patient requires protective isolation, which of the following should you advise them to drink?

33 / 40

For which of the following modes of transmission is good hand hygiene a key preventative measure?

34 / 40

What infection is thought to be caused by prions?

35 / 40

Before giving direct care to the patient, u should

36 / 40

When disposing of waste, what colour bag should be used to dispose of offensive/ hygiene waste?

37 / 40

In infection control, what is a pathogen?

38 / 40

Which client has the highest risk for a bacteraemia?

39 / 40

Except which procedure must all individuals providing nursing care must be competent at?

40 / 40

Define standard precaution:

Your score is

The average score is 59%

Please rate this Quiz

CBT SET 3

0%
1

Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically.

Thanks for attempting the quiz


CBT SET 3

CBT SET 3

The number of attempts remaining is 1

User Information

1 / 40

What is comprehensive nursing assessment?It provides the foundation for care that enables individuals to gain greater control over their lives and enhance their health status

2 / 40

Hospital discharge planning for a patient should start:

3 / 40

The nurse has made an error in documenting client care. Which appropriate action should the nurse take?

4 / 40

A nurse documents vital signs without actually performing the task. Which action should the charge nurse take after discussing the situation with the nurse?

5 / 40

What does intermediate care not consist of?

6 / 40

Where is revision on the nursing process done? During:

7 / 40

What is clinical benchmarking?

8 / 40

What are the steps of the nursing Process?

9 / 40

During blood transfusion, a patient develops pyrexia, and loin pain. Rn interprets the situation as

10 / 40

Mrs. Smith is receiving blood transfusion after a total hip replacement operation. After 15 minutes, you went back to check her vital signs and she complained of high temperature and loin pain. This may indicate:

11 / 40

Patient developed elevated temperature and pain in the loin during blood transfusion. This is indicative of:

12 / 40

Fred is going to receive a blood transfusion. How frequently should we do his observations?

13 / 40

A mentally capable client in a critical condition is supposed to receive blood transfusion. But client strongly refuses the blood product to be transfused. What would be the best response of the nurse?

14 / 40

Monica is going to receive blood transfusion. How frequently should we do her observation?

15 / 40

A nurse finds it very difficult to understand the needs of a child with learning disability. She goes to other nurses and professionals to seek help. How u interpret this action

16 / 40

U just joined in a new hospital. U see a senior nurse beating a child with learning disability. Ur role

17 / 40

You saw a relative of a client has come with her son, who looks very thin, shy & frightened. You serve them food, but the mother of that child says “don’t give him, he eats too much”. You should:

18 / 40

Management of moderate malnutrition in children?

19 / 40

You are about to administer Morphine Sulfate to a paediatric patient. The information written on the controlled drug book was not clearly written – 15 mg or 0.15 mg. What will you do first?

20 / 40

There is a child you are taking care of at home who has a history of anaphylactic shock from certain foods, the nurse is feeding him lunch, he looks suddenly confused, breathless and acting
different, the nurse has access to emergency drugs access and the mobile phone, what will she do?

21 / 40

As you visit your patient during rounds, you notice a thin child who is shy and not mingling with the group who seemed to be visitors of the patient. You offered him food but his mother told you not to mind him as he is not eating much while all of them are eating during that time. As a nurse, what will you do?

22 / 40

Recognition of the unwell child is crucial. The following are all signs and symptoms of respiratory distress in children EXCEPT:

23 / 40

You are assisting a doctor who is trying to assess and collect information from a child who does not seem to understand all that the doctor is telling and is restless. What will be your best response?

24 / 40

Which of the following is an average heart rate of a 1-2 year old child?

25 / 40

Normal heart rate for 1 to 2 years old?

26 / 40

When communicating with children, what most important factor should the nurse take into consideration?

27 / 40

What is meant by ‘Gillick competent’?

28 / 40

An Eight year old girl with learning disabilities is admitted for a minor surgery, she is very restless and agitated and wants her mother to stay with her, what will you do?

29 / 40

Mrs Smith has been assessed to have a cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction to a medication. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) was started immediately. According to the Resuscitation Council UK, which of the following statements is true?

30 / 40

The following are ways to remove factors that trigger anaphylactic reaction except for one.

31 / 40

Mark, 48 years old, has been exhibiting signs and symptoms of anaphylactic reaction. You want to make sure that he is in a comfortable position. Which of the following should you consider?

32 / 40

Mrs X was taken to the Accident and Emergency Unit due to anaphylactic shock. The treatment for Mrs X will depend on the following except:

33 / 40

Which of the following is not a criteria for anaphylactic reaction:

34 / 40

Signs and symptoms of septic shock?

35 / 40

The following are signs & symptoms of hypovolemic shock, except:

36 / 40

Leonor, 72 years old patient is being treated with antibiotics for her UTI. After three days of taking them, she developed diarrhoea with blood stains. What is the most possible reason for this?

37 / 40

A patient has collapsed with an anaphylactic reaction. What symptoms would you expect to see?

38 / 40

After lumbar puncture, the patient experienced shock. What is the etiology behind it?

39 / 40

What are the signs and symptoms of shock during early stage (stage 1-3)? (CHOOSE 3 ANSWERS)

40 / 40

A patient has collapsed with an anaphylactic reaction. What symptoms would you expect to see?

Your score is

The average score is 93%

Please rate this Quiz

CBT SET 4

0%
1

Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically.

Thanks for attempting the quiz


CBT SET 4

CBT SET 4

The number of attempts remaining is 1

User Information

1 / 40

You are transcribing medications from prescription chart to a discharge letter. Before sending this letter what action must be taken?

2 / 40

After having done your medication rounds, you have realised that your patient has experienced the adverse effect of the drug. What will be your initial intervention?

3 / 40

In a nursing and residential home setting, how will you manage your time and prioritise patients’ needs whilst doing your medication rounds in the morning?

4 / 40

You were running a shift and a pack of controlled drugs were delivered by the chemist/pharmacist whilst you were giving the morning medications. What would you do first?

5 / 40

On checking the stock balance in the controlled drug record book as a newly qualified nurse, you and a colleague notice a discrepancy. What would you do?

6 / 40

General guidance for the storage of controlled drugs should include the following except:

7 / 40

You were on a night shift in a ward and has been allocated to dispose controlled medications. Which of the following is correct?

8 / 40

A patient approached you to give his medications now but you are unable to give the medicine. What is your initial action?

9 / 40

One of the following is not true about a delegation responsibility of a medication registrant:

10 / 40

Which of the following is not a part of the 6 rights of medication administration?

11 / 40

The nurses on the day shift report that the controlled drug count is incorrect. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

12 / 40

You noticed that a colleague committed a medication administration error. Which should be done in this situation?

13 / 40

As a RN when you are administering medication, you made an error. Taking health and safety of the patient into consideration, what is your action?

14 / 40

Which of the following people is not exempted from paying a prescribed medication?

15 / 40

Independent and supplementary nurse and midwife are those who are?

16 / 40

Registrants must only supply and administer medicinal products in accordance with one or more of the following processes, except:

17 / 40

What are the most common types of medication error?

18 / 40

You were on your medication rounds and the emergency alarm goes off. What will you do first?

19 / 40

What are the key reasons for administering medications to patients?

20 / 40

Who has the overall responsibility for the safe and appropriate management of controlled drugs within the clinical area?

21 / 40

What are the professional responsibilities of the qualified nurse in medicines management?

22 / 40

How the nurse assesses the quality of care given

23 / 40

Which of the following items of subjective client data would be documented in the medical record by the nurse?

24 / 40

How do you value dignity & respect in nursing care? Select which does not apply:

25 / 40

A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The nurse takes the client’s vital sign hereafter. What phrase of nursing process is being implemented here by the nurse?

26 / 40

When do you see problems or potential problems?

27 / 40

Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the “problem” part of nursing diagnosis?

28 / 40

Hospital discharge planning for a patient should start:

29 / 40

The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following would be the priority nursing action?

30 / 40

Nursing care should be

31 / 40

All individuals providing nursing care must be competent at which of the following procedures?

32 / 40

In caring for a patient, the nurse should?

33 / 40

Nursing process is best illustrated as:

34 / 40

The rehabilitation nurse wishes to make the following entry into a client’s plan of care: “Client will re-establish a pattern of daily bowel movements without straining within two months.” The nurse would write this statement under which section of the plan of care?

35 / 40

A nurse explains to a student that the nursing process is a dynamic process. Which of the following actions by the nurse best demonstrates this concept during the work shift?

36 / 40

Which of the following sets of needs should be included in your service user’s person centred care plan?

37 / 40

Which statement is not correct about the nursing process?

38 / 40

Nursing process is best illustrated as:

39 / 40

All but one describes holistic care:

40 / 40

When do you plan a discharge?

Your score is

The average score is 83%

Please rate this Quiz

CBT SET 5

0%
1

Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically.

Thanks for attempting the quiz


CBT SET 5

CBT SET 5

The number of attempts remaining is 1

User Information

1 / 40

John is also prescribed some medications for his Gout. Which of the following health teaching will you advise him to do?

2 / 40

Mild pain after surgery and pain is reduced by taking which medicine

3 / 40

You are the named nurse of Mr Corbyn who has just undergone an abdominal surgery 4 hours ago. You have administered his regular analgesia 2 hours ago and he is still complaining of pain. Your most immediate, most appropriate nursing action?

4 / 40

Precise indicator of anticoagulation status when on oral anticoagulants

5 / 40

Prothrombin time is essential during anticoagulation therapy. In oral anticoagulation therapy which test is essential?

6 / 40

A full-term male has hypospadias. Which statement describes hypospadias?

7 / 40

Manu is in persistent pain and has Oromorph PRN. All your carers are on their rounds, and you are about to administer this drug. What would you do?

8 / 40

A patient was on morphine at hospital. On discharge doctor prescribes fentanyl patches. At home patient should be observed for which sign of opiate toxicity?

9 / 40

Which of the following drugs will require 2 nurses to check during preparation and administration?

10 / 40

A patient in your care is on regular oral morphine sulphate. As a qualified nurse, what legal checks do you need to carry out every time you administer it, which are in addition to those you would check for every other drug you administer?

11 / 40

Johan, 25 year old, was admitted at Medical Assessment Unit because of urine infection. During your assessment, he admitted using cannabis under prescription for his migraine and still have some in his bag. What is your best reply to him about the cannibis?

12 / 40

After two weeks of receiving lithium therapy, a patient in the psychiatric unit becomes depressed. Which of the following evaluations of the patient’s behavior by the nurse would be MOST accurate?

13 / 40

When the doc will prescribe a broad-spectrum antibiotic?

14 / 40

What instructions should you give a client receiving oral Antibiotics?

15 / 40

What advice do you need to give to a patient taking Allopurinol? (Select x 3 correct answers)

16 / 40

What are the key nursing observations needed for a patient receiving opioids frequently?

17 / 40

Describe the breathing pattern when a patient is suffering from Opioid toxicity:

18 / 40

Your hospital supports the government’s drive on breastfeeding. One of your patient being treated for urinary tract infection was visited by her husband and their 4 month old baby. She would like to breastfeed her baby. What advise will you give her?

19 / 40

You are the named nurse of Colin admitted at Respiratory ward because of chest infection. His also suffers from Parkinson’s syndrome. What medications will you ensure Colin has taken on regular time to control his ‘shaking’?

20 / 40

When should prescribed antibiotics to be administered to a septicemic patient

21 / 40

John, 18 years old is for discharge and will require further dose of oral antibiotics. As his nurse, which of the following will you advise him to do?

22 / 40

You are caring for a Hindu client and it’s time for drug administration; the client refuses to take the capsule referring to the animal product that might have been used in its making, what is the appropriate action for the nurse to perform?

23 / 40

You have been asked to give Mrs Patel her mid-day oral metronidazole. You have never met her before. What do you need to check on the drug chart before you administered?

24 / 40

Your patient has been prescribed Tramadol 50 mgs tablet for pain relief.

25 / 40

The nurse monitors the serum electrolyte level of a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following electrolytes imbalances is common cause of digoxin toxicity?

26 / 40

Which of the following should be considered before giving digoxin?

  1. Allergies
  2. Drug interactions
  3. Other interactions with food or substances like alcohol and tobacco
  4. Medical problems (Thyroid problem, Kidney disease, etc.)

27 / 40

Which of these medications is not administer with digoxin?

28 / 40

Which of the following should be considered before giving digoxin?

29 / 40

Which drug to be avoided by a patient on digoxin?

30 / 40

Patient has next dose of Digoxin but has a CR=58

31 / 40

Tony is prescribed Lanoxin 500 mcg PO. What vital sign will you asses prior to giving the drug?

32 / 40

What medications would most likely increase the risk for fall?

33 / 40

A newly admitted client refusing to handover his own medications and this includes controlled drugs. What is your action?

34 / 40

As a newly qualified nurse, what would you do if a patient vomits when taking or immediately after taking tablets?

35 / 40

A client experiences an episode of pulmonary oedema because the nurse forgot to administer the morning dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which legal element can the nurse be charged with?

36 / 40

patient bring own medication to hospital and wants to self-administer what is your role ? allow him

37 / 40

A patient is rapidly deteriorating due to drug over dose what to do?

38 / 40

The MARS says that Benedict is on TID Macrogol. You have notice that the nurses have been writing “A” for refused. What do you do?

39 / 40

What are the potential benefits of selfadministration of medicines by patients?

40 / 40

A patient recently admitted to hospital, requesting to self-administer the medication, has been assessed for suitability at Level 2. This means that:

Your score is

The average score is 70%

Please rate this Quiz

CBT SET 6

0%
1

Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically.

Thanks for attempting the quiz


CBT SET 6

CBT SET 6

The number of attempts remaining is 1

User Information

1 / 40

What are the key nursing observations needed for a patient receiving opioids frequently?

2 / 40

What is the best nursing action for this insertion site. You have observed an IV catheter insertion site w/ erythema, swelling, pain and warm.

3 / 40

Why would the intravenous route be used for the administration of medications?

4 / 40

Which is the first drug to be used in cardiac arrest of any aetiology

5 / 40

The degree of injection when giving subcutaneous insulin injection on a site where you can grasp 1 inch of tissue?

6 / 40

What is not a good route for IM injection?

7 / 40

When administering injection in the buttocks, it should be given:

8 / 40

Which is the best site for giving IM injection on buttocks

9 / 40

Which is the most dangerous site for intramuscular injection?

10 / 40

It is important to read the label on every IV bag because:

11 / 40

You have discovered that the last dose of intravenous antibiotic administered to service user was the wrong dose. Which of the following should you do?

12 / 40

IV injection need to be reconsidered when?

13 / 40

One of your patient has challenged your recent practice of administering a subcutaneous lowmolecular weight heparin (LMWH) without disinfecting the injection site. The guidelines for nursing procedures do not recommend this method. Which of the following response will support your action?

14 / 40

UK policy for needle prick injury includes all but one:

15 / 40

You were administering a pre-operative medication to a patient via IM route. Suddenly, you developed a needle-stick injury. Which of the following interventions will not be appropriate for you to do?

16 / 40

What steps would you take if you had sustained a needlestick injury?

17 / 40

Who is responsible in disposing sharps?

18 / 40

What is not a good route for IM injection?

19 / 40

Jim is to receive his eyedrops after his cataract operation. What is the best position for Jim to assume when instilling the eyedrops?

20 / 40

All but one are signs of opioid toxicity:

21 / 40

Select which is not a proper way of Administering Eye Drops?

22 / 40

What fluid should ideally be used when irrigating eyes?

23 / 40

How should eye drops be administered?

24 / 40

What is the best position in applying eye medications?

25 / 40

Cherry has been prescribed with Estradiol tablet to be inserted twice a week at night. You entered her bedroom and noticed she is fast asleep. What would you do?

26 / 40

Maria has ran out of Cavilon Cream. You have noted that her groins are very red and sore. You can see that David has spare Cavilon tubes after checking the stocks. What will you do?

27 / 40

Annie is on Cefalexin QID. You were working on a night shift and have noticed that the previous nurse has not signed for the last two doses. What should you do?

28 / 40

Mrs Z has been very chesty the last few days. She has been having difficulty with breathing. You have referred her to the GP, and requested for a home visit. What would probably be prescribed by the GP?

29 / 40

You are the night nurse in a nursing home. Maxine, 81 years old, has been prescribed with Lorazepam PRN. You have assessed her to be wandering and talking to staff. When do you administer the Lorazepam?

30 / 40

Mr Jones has been having Type 6 and 7 stools today. As you are doing his medications, which of the following would you not omit?

31 / 40

Dennis was admitted because of acute asthma attack. Later on in your shift, he complained of abdominal pain and vomited. He asked for pain relief. Which of the following prescribed analgesia will you give him?

32 / 40

An antihypertensive medication has been prescribed for a client with HTN. The client tells the clinic nurse that they would like to take an herbal substance to help lower their BP. The nurse should take which action?

33 / 40

A patient develops shortness breath after administering 3rd dose of penicillin. The patient is unwell. Ur response

34 / 40

A Ibuprofen 200mg tablet has been prescribed. You only have a 400mg coated ibuprofen tablet. What should you do?

35 / 40

A patient is prescribed metformin 1000mg twice a day for his diabetes. While talking with the patient he states “I never eat breakfast so I take a ½ tablet at lunch and a whole tablet at supper because I don’t want my blood sugar to drop.” As his primary care nurse you:

36 / 40

A sexually active female , who has been taking oral contraceptives develops diarrohea. Best advice

37 / 40

What could be the reason why you instruct your patient to retain on its original container and discard nitroglycerine meds after 8 weeks?

38 / 40

On which step of the WHO analgesic ladder would you place tramadol and codeine?

39 / 40

Oral corticosteriods side effect

40 / 40

A patient doesn’t take a tablet which is prescribed by a doc. Nurse should

Your score is

The average score is 80%

Please rate this Quiz

CBT SIMULATION SET 2

0%
1

Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically.

Thanks for attempting the quiz


CBT SIMULATION SET 2

CBT SIMULATION SET 2

The number of attempts remaining is 1

User Information

1 / 40

When would an orthostatic blood pressure measurement be indicated?

2 / 40

Check baseline observations and refer to the cardiology team.

3 / 40

A patient on your ward complains that her heart is ‘racing’
and you find that the pulse is too fast to manually palpate.
What would your actions be?

4 / 40

Why is it important to manually assess pulse rate?

5 / 40

If Tony’s heart rate slows down, this is referred to as:

6 / 40

Which sign or symptom is a key indication of progressive arterial insufficiency

7 / 40

When is the time to take the vital signs of the patients? Select which does not apply:

8 / 40

When should adult patients in acute hospital settings
have observations taken?

9 / 40

Which of the following is at a greater risk for developing
coronary artery disease?

10 / 40

All are risk factors of Coronary Artery Disease except:

11 / 40

Which of the following population group is at risk of
developing cardiovascular disease

12 / 40

The client is admitted with left-sided congestive heart failure. In
assessing the client for edema, the nurse should check the:

13 / 40

The nurse notes the following on the ECG monitor. The nurse would
evaluate the cardiac arrhythmia as:

14 / 40

While changing tubing and cap change on a patient with central line
on right subclavian .what should the nurse do to prevent complication

15 / 40

The physician has ordered a thyroid scan to confirm the diagnosis
of a goiter. Before the procedure, the nurse should:

16 / 40

25. A 32-year-old mother of three is brought to the clinic. Her pulse
is 52, there is a weight gain of 30 pounds in four months, and
the client is wearing two sweaters. The client is diagnosed with hypothyroidism
. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is of highest priority?

17 / 40

A client had a total thyroidectomy yesterday. The client is
complaining of tingling around the mouth and in the fingers
and toes. What would the nurses’ next action be?

18 / 40

The nurse is changing the ties of the client with a tracheotomy.
The safest method of changing the tracheotomy ties is to: Proximal
third section of the small intestines

19 / 40

The client has recently returned from having a thyroidectomy. The nurse should keep which of the following at the bedside?

20 / 40

Which of the following is a potential complication of putting an oropharyngeal airway adjunct:

21 / 40

Common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient

22 / 40

Your patient has a bulky oesophageal tumour and is waiting for surgery. When he tries to eat, food gets stuck and gives him heartburn. What is the most likely route that will be chosen to provide him with the nutritional support he needs?

23 / 40

You are caring for a patient with a tracheostomy in situ who requires frequent suctioning. How long should you suction for?

24 / 40

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of impacted earwax?

25 / 40

When a patient is being monitored in the PACU, how frequently should blood pressure, pulse and respiratory rate be recorded?

26 / 40

In the News observation system, what is AVUP?

27 / 40

In doing neurological assessment, AVPU means:

28 / 40

What does AVPU mean?

29 / 40

Who should do the assessment in a patient with dysphagia

30 / 40

A patient suffered from stroke and is unable to read and write. This is called

31 / 40

An adult has experienced a CVA that has resulted in
right side weakness. The nurse is preparing to move the
patients right side of the bed so that he may then be turned to
his left side. The nurse knows that an important principle when moving the patient is?

32 / 40

The nurse is preparing the move an adult who has right sided paralysis from the bed into a wheel chair. Which statement best describe action for the nurse to take?

33 / 40

A patient suffered from CVA and is now affected with dysphagia. What should not be an intervention to this type of patient?

34 / 40

Patient had CVA, who will assess swallowing capability?

35 / 40

You are monitoring a patient in the ICU when suddenly his consciousness drops and the size of one his pupil becomes smaller what should you do?

36 / 40

Glasgow Coma score (GCS) is made up of 3 component parts and these are:

37 / 40

A patient in your care knocks their head on the bedside locker when reaching down to pick up something they have dropped. What do you do?

38 / 40

You are caring for a patient who has had a recent head injury and you have been asked to carry out neurological observations every 15 minutes. You assess and find that his pupils are unequal and one is not reactive to light. You are no longer able to rouse him. What are your actions?

39 / 40

A patient got admitted to hospital with a head injury. Within 15 minutes, GCS was assessed and it was found to be 15. After initial assessment, a nurse should monitor neurological status

40 / 40

Risk for health issues in a person with mental health issues

Your score is

The average score is 70%

Please rate this Quiz

CBT SIMULATION SET 3

0%
1

Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically.

Thanks for attempting the quiz


CBT SIMULATION SET 3

CBT SIMULATION SET 3

The number of attempts remaining is 1

User Information

1 / 40

After lumbar laminectomy, which the appropriate method to turn the patient?

2 / 40

Several clients are admitted to an adult medical unit. The nurse
would ensure airborne precautions for a client with which of the following medial conditions?

3 / 40

A client is diagnosed with methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus pneumonia.
What type of isolation is MOST appropriate for the client?

4 / 40

All but one is an indication for pleural tubing:

5 / 40

Which of the following is an indication for intrapleural chest drain insertion?

6 / 40

In what instances shouldn’t you position a patient in a side-lying position?

7 / 40

Mrs Smith has been assessed to have a cardiac arrest after
anaphylactic reaction to a medication. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) was started immediately. According to the Resuscitation Council UK,
which of the following statements is true?

8 / 40

CVP line measures?

9 / 40

Which of the following is the most common aneurysm site?

10 / 40

Which finding should the nurse report to the provider to a magnetic resonance imaging MRI?

11 / 40

A patient puts out his arm so that you can take his blood pressure. What type
of consent is this?

12 / 40

What is the name given to a decreased pulse rate or heart rate?

13 / 40

How many phases of korotkoff sounds are there?

14 / 40

Which finding should the nurse report to the provider prior to a magnetic
resonance imaging MRI?

15 / 40

People with blood group A are able to receive blood from the following:

16 / 40

A patient is being discharged form the hospital after having
coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). Which level of the health care system will best serve the needs of this patient at this point?

17 / 40

You are looking after a 75 year old woman who had an abdominal
hysterectomy 2 days ago. What would you do reduce the risk of her developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

18 / 40

In DVT TEDS stockings affect circulation by:

19 / 40

Anti-embolic stockings an effective means of reducing
the potential of developing a deep vein thrombosis because:

20 / 40

Why are support stockings used?

21 / 40

A nurse is advised one hour vital charting of a patient, how frequently should it be recorded?

22 / 40

Mrs Red’s doctor is suspecting an aortic aneurysm after her chest x-ray. Which of the most common type of aneurysm?

23 / 40

What Is not a cause of postural hypotension?

24 / 40

You are looking after a postoperative patient and when carrying out their observations, you discover that they are tachycardic and anxious, with an increased respiratory rate. What could be happening? What would you do?

25 / 40

Which of the following can a patient not have if they have a pacemaker in situ?

26 / 40

Most commonly aneurysms can develop on? Select x 2 answers

27 / 40

In Spinal cord injury patients, what is the most common cause of autonomic
dysreflexia ( a sudden rise in blood pressure)?

28 / 40

You are currently on placement in the emergency department (ED).
A 55-year-old city worker is blue lighted into the ED having had a cardiorespiratory arrest at work. The paramedics have been
resuscitating him for 3 minutes. On arrival, he is in ventricular fibrillation.
Your mentor asks you the following question prior to your shift starting:
What will be the most important part of the patient’s immediate advanced life support?

29 / 40

In a fully saturated haemoglobin molecule, responsible for carrying oxygen
to the body’s tissues, how many of its haem sites are bound with oxygen?

30 / 40

During cardiopulmonary resuscitation:

31 / 40

Which is the first drug to be used in cardia arrest of any aetiology?

32 / 40

While having lunch at the cafeteria, your co-worker suddenly collapsed. As a nurse, what would you do?

33 / 40

How to act in an emergency in a health care set up?

34 / 40

The correct management of an adult patient in ventricular fibrillation (VF) cardiac arrest includes:

35 / 40

What is atrial fibrillation?

36 / 40

A client is having diagnosed atrial activity. identify the ECG

37 / 40

In interpreting ECG results if there is clear evidence of atrial disruption this is interpreted as?

38 / 40

Mrs Red is complaining of shortness of breath. On assessment,
her legs are swollen indicative of tissue oedema. What do you think
is the possible cause of this?

39 / 40

What do the adverse effects of hypotension include?

40 / 40

Which is not a cause of postural hypotension?

Your score is

The average score is 78%

Please rate this Quiz

CBT SIMULATION SET 4

0%
1

Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically.

Thanks for attempting the quiz


CBT SIMULATION SET 4

CBT SIMULATION SET 4

The number of attempts remaining is 1

User Information

1 / 40

Taking a nursing history prior to the physical examination allows
a nurse to establish a rapport with the patient and family. Elements of the history include all of the following except:

2 / 40

Which statement is not true about acute illness?

3 / 40

Which statement is not true about acute illness?A disease with a rapid onset and/or a short course one.

4 / 40

A young adult is being treated for second and third degree burns over
25% of his body and is now ready for discharge. The nurse evaluates
his understanding of discharge instructions relating to wound care and is
satisfied that he is prepared for home care when he makes which statement?

5 / 40

Which among the following is a cause of Hemorrhoids?

6 / 40

A 45-year old patient was diagnosed to have Piles (Haemorrhoids). During your
health education with the patient, you informed him of the risk factors of Piles. You
would tell him that it is caused by all of the following except:

7 / 40

When explaining about travellers’ diarrhoea which of the following is correct?

8 / 40

Which condition is not a cause of diarrhea?

9 / 40

A patient is admitted to the ward with symptoms of acute diarrhoea. What should your initial management be?

10 / 40

If a patient feels a cramping sensation in their abdomen after a colonoscopy, it
is advisable that they should do/have which of the following?

11 / 40

Reason for dyspnoea in patients who diagnosed with Glomerulonephritis patients?

12 / 40

When selecting a stoma appliance for a patient who has undergone
a formation of a loop colostomy, what factors would you consider?

13 / 40

What type of diet would you recommend to your patient who has
a newly formed stoma?

14 / 40

What would be your main objectives in providing stoma education when
preparing a patient with a stoma for discharge home?

15 / 40

The term gavage indicates

16 / 40

Patients with gastrointestinal bleeding may experience acute or chronic blood loss.
Your patient is experiencing hematochezia. You recognise this by:

17 / 40

Patients with gastric ulcers typically exhibit the following symptoms

18 / 40

An assessment of the abdomen of a patient with peritonitis you would expect to find

19 / 40

The night after an exploratory laparotomy, a patient who has a nasogastric tube attached to low suction reports nausea. A nurse should take which of the following actions first?

20 / 40

A client immediately following LP developed deterioration of consciousness,
bradycardia, increased systolic BP. What is this:

21 / 40

patient was recommended to undergo lumbar puncture. As the
nurse caring for this patient, what should you not expect as its complications:

22 / 40

Which is not an expected side effect of lumbar tap?

23 / 40

After lumbar puncture, the patient experiences shock.
What is the etiology behind it?

24 / 40

How to position patient for abdominal tap

25 / 40

It is unsafe for a spinal tap to be undertaken if the patient:Has bacterial meningitis

26 / 40

Which is not an indication for lumbar tap?

27 / 40

Which is not an expected side effect of lumbar tap?

28 / 40

Patient had undergone post lumbar tap and is exhibiting increase HR,
decrease BP, and alteration in consciousness and dilated pupils. What is the patient likely experiencing?

29 / 40

What is the preferred position for abdominal Paracenthesis?

30 / 40

Correct position for abdominal paracentesis.

31 / 40

What position should you prepare the patient in pre-op for abdominal Paracentesis?

32 / 40

diabetic patient with suspected liver tumor has been prescribed
with Trphasic CT scan. Which medication needs to be on hold after the scan?

33 / 40

A patient in your care is about to go for a liver biopsy. What are
the most likely potential complications related to this procedure?

34 / 40

Patient is post op liver biopsy which is a sign of serious complication?
(Select x 2 correct answers)

35 / 40

Which of the following is a severe complication during 24 hrs post liver biopsy?

36 / 40

A nurse assists the physician is performing liver biopsy. After the
biopsy the nurse places the patient in which position?

37 / 40

Early signs of phlebitis would include:

38 / 40

Patient manifests phlebitis in his IV site, what must a nurse do?

39 / 40

A client immediately following LP developed deterioration of consciousness,
bradycardia, increased systolic BP. What is this normal reaction

40 / 40

patient just had just undergone lumbar laminectomy, what is the
best nursing intervention?

Your score is

The average score is 80%

Please rate this Quiz

CBT SIMULATION SET 5

0%
8

Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically.

Thanks for attempting the quiz


CBT SIMULATION SET 5

CBT SIMULATION SET 5

The number of attempts remaining is 1

User Information

1 / 79

The elderly client is admitted to the emergency room. Which symptom is the client with a fractured hip most likely to exhibit?

2 / 79

The teenager with a fiberglass cast asks the nurse if it will be okay to allow his friends to autograph his cast. Which response would be best?

3 / 79

A client with a fractured tibia has a plaster-of￾Paris cast applied to immobilize the fracture. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of a plaster-of-Paris cast? The nurse:

4 / 79

A client with a total hip replacement requires special equipment. Which equipment
would assist the client with a total hip replacement with activities of daily living?

5 / 79

Which roommate would be most suitable for the six-year-old
male with a fractured femur in Russell’s traction?

6 / 79

A client with osteoarthritis has a prescription for Celebrex (celecoxib). Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching?

7 / 79

Ms. jane is to have a pelvic exam, which of the following should the nurse do first

8 / 79

The physician has ordered a histoplasmosis test for the elderly client. The nurse is
aware that histoplasmosis is transmitted to humans by:

9 / 79

A client with Addison’s disease has been admitted with a history of nausea and vomiting for the past three days. The client is receiving IV glucocorticoids (SoluMedrol). Which of the following interventions would the nurse implement?

10 / 79

A client has had a unilateral adrenalectomy to remove a tumor. The most important
measurement in the immediate post-operative period for the nurse to take is:

11 / 79

client with hemophilia has a nosebleed. Which nursing action is most appropriate to control the bleeding?

12 / 79

The client has surgery for removal of a Prolactinoma. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate for this client?

13 / 79

The home health nurse is visiting a client with autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura(ATP). The client’s platelet count currently is 80,000. It will be most important to teach the client and family about:

14 / 79

A client has autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura. To determine the client’s
response to treatment, the nurse would monitor:

15 / 79

A 21-year-old male with Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a senior at the local university. He is engaged to be married and is to begin a new job upon graduation. Which of the following diagnoses would be a priority for this client?

16 / 79

Where is the best site for examining for the presence of petechiae in an
African American client?

17 / 79

The nurse is teaching the client with polycythemia vera about prevention of complications of the disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

18 / 79

Your patient has Diverticulitis for about a decade now. You have assessed
her to be having soft stools of Type 4/5. Which of the following will need
urgent intervention?

19 / 79

A client is diagnosed with hepatitis A. which of the following
statements made by client indicates understanding of the disease

20 / 79

Which of the following statements made by client diagnosed with hepatitis A needs
further understanding of the disease.

21 / 79

The following fruits can be eaten by a person with Crohn’s Disease except:

22 / 79

A patient was diagnosed to have Chron’s disease. What would the patient be manifesting?

23 / 79

A 27- year old adult male is admitted for treatment of Crohn’s disease. Which information is most significant when the nurse assesses his nutritional health?

24 / 79

Patient who has had Parkinson’s disease for 7 years has been experiencing aphasia.
Which health professional should make a referral to with regards to his aphasia?

25 / 79

A patient was brought to the A&E and manifested several symptoms: loss of intellect and memory; change in personality; loss of balance and co-ordination; slurred speech; vision problems and blindness; and abnormal jerking movements. Upon laboratory tests, the patient got tested positive for prions. Which disease is the patient possibly having?

26 / 79

The body part that would most likely display jaundice in the dark-skinned individual is the:

27 / 79

The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of a client with vitamin B12 deficiency. Which finding reinforces the diagnosis of B12 deficiency?

28 / 79

The nurse is conducting a physical assessment on a client with anemia. Which of the following clinical manifestations would be most indicative of the anemia?

29 / 79

Clients with sickle cell anemia are taught to avoid activities that cause hypoxia and hypoxemia. Which of the following activities would the nurse recommend?

30 / 79

The nurse is instructing a client with iron￾deficiency anemia. Which of the following meal plans would the nurse expect the client to select?

31 / 79

A newly admitted client has sickle cell crisis. He is complaining of pain in
his feet and hands. The nurse’s assessment findings include a pulse oximetry of 92.
Assuming that all the following interventions are ordered, which should be done first?

32 / 79

Which of the following foods would the nurse encourage the client in sickle cell crisis to eat?

33 / 79

The client is being evaluated for possible acute leukemia. Which inquiry by the nurse is most important?

34 / 79

A 25 year old male is admitted in sickle cell crisis. Which of the following
interventions would be of highest priority for this client?

35 / 79

a 30 year old male from Haiti is brought to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis. What is the best position for this client?

36 / 79

A 43 year old African American male is admitted with sickle cell anemia. The nurse plans to assess the circulation in the lower extremities every two hours. Which of the following outcome criteria would the nurse use?

37 / 79

Which of the following would be the priority nursing diagnosis for the
adult client with acute leukemia?

38 / 79

A 33-year-old male is being evaluated for possible acute leukemia. Which of
the following findings is most likely related to the diagnosis of leukemia?

39 / 79

Which one of these notifiable diseases needs to be reported on a national level?

40 / 79

In reporting contagious diseases, which of the following will need attention at national level:

41 / 79

  1. Which statement is not true about acute illness?

42 / 79

  1. Taking a nursing history prior to the physical examination allows
    a nurse to establish a rapport with the patient and family. Elements of the history include all of the following except:

43 / 79

  1. Which statement is not true about acute illness?A disease with a rapid onset and/or a short course one.

44 / 79

  1. A young adult is being treated for second and third degree burns over
    25% of his body and is now ready for discharge. The nurse evaluates
    his understanding of discharge instructions relating to wound care and is
    satisfied that he is prepared for home care when he makes which statement?

45 / 79

  1. Which among the following is a cause of Hemorrhoids?

46 / 79

  1. A 45-year old patient was diagnosed to have Piles (Haemorrhoids). During your
    health education with the patient, you informed him of the risk factors of Piles. You
    would tell him that it is caused by all of the following except:

47 / 79

  1. If a patient feels a cramping sensation in their abdomen after a colonoscopy, it
    is advisable that they should do/have which of the following?

48 / 79

  1. A patient is admitted to the ward with symptoms of acute diarrhoea. What should your initial management be?

49 / 79

  1. Which condition is not a cause of diarrhea?

50 / 79

  1. When explaining about travellers’ diarrhoea which of the following is correct?

51 / 79

  1. A nurse assists the physician is performing liver biopsy. After the
    biopsy the nurse places the patient in which position?

52 / 79

  1. Which of the following is a severe complication during 24 hrs post liver biopsy?

53 / 79

  1. Patient is post op liver biopsy which is a sign of serious complication?
    (Select x 2 correct answers)

54 / 79

  1. A patient in your care is about to go for a liver biopsy. What are
    the most likely potential complications related to this procedure?

55 / 79

  1. diabetic patient with suspected liver tumor has been prescribed
    with Trphasic CT scan. Which medication needs to be on hold after the scan?

56 / 79

  1. What position should you prepare the patient in pre-op for abdominal Paracentesis?

57 / 79

  1. Correct position for abdominal paracentesis.

58 / 79

  1. What is the preferred position for abdominal Paracenthesis?

59 / 79

  1. Patient had undergone post lumbar tap and is exhibiting increase HR,
    decrease BP, and alteration in consciousness and dilated pupils. What is the patient likely experiencing?

60 / 79

  1. Which is not an expected side effect of lumbar tap?

61 / 79

  1. Which is not an indication for lumbar tap?

62 / 79

  1. How to position patient for abdominal tap

63 / 79

  1. It is unsafe for a spinal tap to be undertaken if the patient:Has bacterial meningitis

64 / 79

  1. Which is not an expected side effect of lumbar tap?

65 / 79

  1. patient was recommended to undergo lumbar puncture. As the
    nurse caring for this patient, what should you not expect as its complications:

66 / 79

  1. A client immediately following LP developed deterioration of consciousness,
    bradycardia, increased systolic BP. What is this:

67 / 79

  1. The night after an exploratory laparotomy, a patient who has a nasogastric tube attached to low suction reports nausea. A nurse should take which of the following actions first?

68 / 79

  1. An assessment of the abdomen of a patient with peritonitis you would expect to find

69 / 79

  1. Patients with gastric ulcers typically exhibit the following symptoms

70 / 79

  1. Patients with gastrointestinal bleeding may experience acute or chronic blood loss.
    Your patient is experiencing hematochezia. You recognise this by:

71 / 79

  1. What would be your main objectives in providing stoma education when
    preparing a patient with a stoma for discharge home?

72 / 79

  1. What type of diet would you recommend to your patient who has
    a newly formed stoma?

73 / 79

  1. When selecting a stoma appliance for a patient who has undergone
    a formation of a loop colostomy, what factors would you consider?

74 / 79

  1. Reason for dyspnoea in patients who diagnosed with Glomerulonephritis patients?

75 / 79

  1. A client immediately following LP developed deterioration of consciousness,
    bradycardia, increased systolic BP. What is this normal reaction

76 / 79

  1. patient just had just undergone lumbar laminectomy, what is the
    best nursing intervention?

77 / 79

  1. A client immediately following LP developed deterioration of consciousness,
    bradycardia, increased systolic BP. What is this normal reaction

78 / 79

  1. Patient manifests phlebitis in his IV site, what must a nurse do?

79 / 79

  1. Early signs of phlebitis would include:

Your score is

The average score is 43%

Please rate this Quiz

© Decency NCLEX Academy. All rights reserved.
Select your currency
USD United States (US) dollar