No products in the cart.
0% 69 Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically. Thanks for attempting the quiz Nclex Content Review Class One – Week One Week One Assessment The number of attempts remaining is 1 User Information 1 / 100 A client arrives in the emergency department for treatment of a surface injury sustained when sand blew into the eye. Which action does the nurse take first? A. Assessing the client’s vision B. Placing ice on the eye C. Removing the sand particles D. Irrigating the eye with sterile saline solution When a client has sustained a surface injury of the eye as a result of the introduction of a foreign body, the nurse must first assess visual acuity. The eye is then assessed for corneal abrasions; this is followed by irrigation with sterile normal saline solution to gently remove the particles. Ice would be placed on the eye if the client had sustained an eye contusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. The correct option is the only one that involves assessment. Eliminate the options that reflect implementation. Review content related to the initial treatment of various eye injuries if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 1072). St. Louis: Saunders.Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying When a client has sustained a surface injury of the eye as a result of the introduction of a foreign body, the nurse must first assess visual acuity. The eye is then assessed for corneal abrasions; this is followed by irrigation with sterile normal saline solution to gently remove the particles. Ice would be placed on the eye if the client had sustained an eye contusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. The correct option is the only one that involves assessment. Eliminate the options that reflect implementation. Review content related to the initial treatment of various eye injuries if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 1072). St. Louis: Saunders.Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying 2 / 100 A nurse receives a telephone call from a neighbor, who says that her child was just hit in the eye with a swing. The nurse rushes to the neighbor’s house and notes that the child has sustained a contusion of the eye. The nurse advises the child’s mother to immediately: A. Call an ambulance B. Call an optometrist C. Apply ice to the affected eye D. Irrigate the eye with cool water Treatment for a contusion ideally begins at the time of injury and includes the application of ice to the site. Although the child should also undergo a thorough eye examination to rule out other injuries, calling an optometrist is not the first action to be taken. Irrigating the eye with cool water may be implemented for injuries that involve a splash of an irritant into the eye. It is not necessary to call an ambulance.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “immediately.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., calling an ambulance or an optometrist). To select from the remaining options, focus on the type of injury that has been sustained, which will direct you to the correct option. Review initial treatment after an eye contusion if you had difficulty with this question. References: Hockenberry, M., & Wilson, D. (2013). Wong’s Essentials of pediatric nursing (9th ed., p. 586). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., Perry, A. G., Stockert, P. A., & Hall, A. M. (2013). Fundamentals of nursing. (8th ed., p. 1212). St. Louis: Mosby. Treatment for a contusion ideally begins at the time of injury and includes the application of ice to the site. Although the child should also undergo a thorough eye examination to rule out other injuries, calling an optometrist is not the first action to be taken. Irrigating the eye with cool water may be implemented for injuries that involve a splash of an irritant into the eye. It is not necessary to call an ambulance.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “immediately.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., calling an ambulance or an optometrist). To select from the remaining options, focus on the type of injury that has been sustained, which will direct you to the correct option. Review initial treatment after an eye contusion if you had difficulty with this question. References: Hockenberry, M., & Wilson, D. (2013). Wong’s Essentials of pediatric nursing (9th ed., p. 586). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., Perry, A. G., Stockert, P. A., & Hall, A. M. (2013). Fundamentals of nursing. (8th ed., p. 1212). St. Louis: Mosby. 3 / 100 A nurse provides home care instructions to a client after a scleral buckling procedure. The nurse should tell the client: A. To maintain strict bedrest for 48 hours B. To expect bloody drainage on the eye dressing C. That vision will be perfectly clear immediately after surgery D. That redness and swelling of the eyelids and conjunctiva are expected The scleral buckling procedure is performed to treat retinal detachment. In the preoperative period the nurse places an eye patch over the client’s affected eye to reduce eye movement. Some clients may require bilateral patching. Redness and swelling of the eyelids and conjunctiva, the result of surgical manipulation, are expected. Blood loss in retinal detachment surgery is minimal, and only serous drainage is expected on the postoperative dressing. The client should not expect immediate return of vision. Postoperative inflammation and eye drops interfere with vision. Because healing takes place over weeks to months, vision will improve gradually. Strict bedrest for 48 hours is not required; however, depending on the location and size of the retinal break, activity restrictions may be needed to prevent further tearing or detachment and to promote drainage of any subretinal fluid.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options containing the words “strict” and “perfectly clear.” To select from the remaining options, recall that redness and swelling of the eye occur as a result of surgical manipulation. Review client instructions after scleral buckling if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 397). St. Louis: Mosby. The scleral buckling procedure is performed to treat retinal detachment. In the preoperative period the nurse places an eye patch over the client’s affected eye to reduce eye movement. Some clients may require bilateral patching. Redness and swelling of the eyelids and conjunctiva, the result of surgical manipulation, are expected. Blood loss in retinal detachment surgery is minimal, and only serous drainage is expected on the postoperative dressing. The client should not expect immediate return of vision. Postoperative inflammation and eye drops interfere with vision. Because healing takes place over weeks to months, vision will improve gradually. Strict bedrest for 48 hours is not required; however, depending on the location and size of the retinal break, activity restrictions may be needed to prevent further tearing or detachment and to promote drainage of any subretinal fluid.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options containing the words “strict” and “perfectly clear.” To select from the remaining options, recall that redness and swelling of the eye occur as a result of surgical manipulation. Review client instructions after scleral buckling if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 397). St. Louis: Mosby. 4 / 100 During a client’s yearly eye examination, the nurse checks the intraocular pressure. The nurse notes that the pressure in the right eye is 12 mm Hg and 19 mm Hg in the left. The nurse tells the client: A. That he has glaucoma in the left eye B. That he has glaucoma in the right eye C. That the intraocular pressure in both eyes is normal D. That he needs to increase his fluid intake, because the pressure in the right eye is low Normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mm Hg. Therefore this client’s intraocular pressure is normal. Increased intake of fluids is unrelated to increasing intraocular pressure.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge that normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mm Hg will help you identify the correct option. Review this normal finding and the findings in glaucoma if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 399). St. Louis: Mosby. Normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mm Hg. Therefore this client’s intraocular pressure is normal. Increased intake of fluids is unrelated to increasing intraocular pressure.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge that normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mm Hg will help you identify the correct option. Review this normal finding and the findings in glaucoma if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 399). St. Louis: Mosby. 5 / 100 A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client after outpatient surgery for cataract removal. The nurse determines that the client needs additional instructions if the client indicates that he will: A. Limit activity for 24 hours B. Take acetaminophen for discomfort C. Leave the eye patch in place until he has been seen by the health care provider D. Expect to experience pain, nausea, and vomiting after the procedure If the client experiences any pain that is unrelieved, redness around the eye, or nausea or vomiting, the health care provider must be notified, because such findings could be an indication of increased intraocular pressure. Usually the client is given a follow-up appointment on the day after the surgery, and the health care provider removes the eye patch at this time. The client is instructed to limit activity to sitting in a chair, resting, and walking to the bathroom for 24 hours. Aspirin or medications containing aspirin should not be taken by the client; rather, acetaminophen should be used to alleviate discomfort.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling the signs of increased intraocular pressure will direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review the discharge instructions for the client after cataract extraction.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 395). St. Louis: Mosby. If the client experiences any pain that is unrelieved, redness around the eye, or nausea or vomiting, the health care provider must be notified, because such findings could be an indication of increased intraocular pressure. Usually the client is given a follow-up appointment on the day after the surgery, and the health care provider removes the eye patch at this time. The client is instructed to limit activity to sitting in a chair, resting, and walking to the bathroom for 24 hours. Aspirin or medications containing aspirin should not be taken by the client; rather, acetaminophen should be used to alleviate discomfort.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling the signs of increased intraocular pressure will direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review the discharge instructions for the client after cataract extraction.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 395). St. Louis: Mosby. 6 / 100 A client is transported to the recovery area of the ambulatory care unit after cataract surgery. In which position does the nurse place the client? A. Supine B. Semi-Fowler C. On the side that has undergone surgery D. Prone on the side that has undergone surgery After cataract extraction surgery, the client should be placed in the semi-Fowler position or on the unaffected side to prevent edema at the surgical site. Supine, on the affected side, and prone are all incorrect because they will result in increased edema at the site.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they are flat positions. To select from the remaining options, remember that local edema may occur after the trauma of surgery. Use the principles of gravity and measures to prevent accumulation of fluid around the surgical site to direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review care of the client immediately after cataract surgery. References: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 390, 393-394). St. Louis: Mosby.Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., p. 426). St. Louis: Mosby. After cataract extraction surgery, the client should be placed in the semi-Fowler position or on the unaffected side to prevent edema at the surgical site. Supine, on the affected side, and prone are all incorrect because they will result in increased edema at the site.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they are flat positions. To select from the remaining options, remember that local edema may occur after the trauma of surgery. Use the principles of gravity and measures to prevent accumulation of fluid around the surgical site to direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review care of the client immediately after cataract surgery. References: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 390, 393-394). St. Louis: Mosby.Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., p. 426). St. Louis: Mosby. 7 / 100 A nurse provides home care instructions to a client with Ménière disease about measures to control and treat vertigo. The nurse should tell the client to: A. Limit sodium in the diet B. Increase fluid intake to at least 3000 mL/day C. Lie down when vertigo occurs and keep a light on in the room D. Move the head from the right to the left when vertigo occurs to determine the extent of its effects Limiting and fluids in the diet will help reduce the amount of endolymphatic fluid, which is excessive in Ménière disease. The client’s room should be darkened to reduce the acute symptoms of vertigo. The client should limit head movement to prevent worsening of the symptoms of vertigo.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling the pathophysiology of Ménière disease and remembering that the disease is caused by excess endolymph will direct you to the correct option. Review the measures that will reduce vertigo in the client with Ménière disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1096-1097). St. Louis: Saunders. Limiting and fluids in the diet will help reduce the amount of endolymphatic fluid, which is excessive in Ménière disease. The client’s room should be darkened to reduce the acute symptoms of vertigo. The client should limit head movement to prevent worsening of the symptoms of vertigo.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling the pathophysiology of Ménière disease and remembering that the disease is caused by excess endolymph will direct you to the correct option. Review the measures that will reduce vertigo in the client with Ménière disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1096-1097). St. Louis: Saunders. 8 / 100 A stapedectomy is performed on a client with otosclerosis. During the preparations for discharge, which home care instruction does the nurse give the client? A. Expect excessive ear drainage for about 2 weeks. B. Avoid rapidly moving the head and bending over for at least 3 weeks. C. Rinse the ear canal at least twice a day to clear out any excess drainage. D. It is all right to shower as long as the ear dressing is changed immediately after the shower. The client must avoid rapidly moving the head, bouncing, and bending over for at least 3 weeks to prevent disruption of the surgical site. The client should keep the affected ear dry at all times and should avoid getting the head wet, washing the hair, or showering for 1 week. The client should not rinse out the ear. The client also needs to avoid drinking through a straw for 2 to 3 weeks because the sucking action necessary to use the straw could cause disruption of the surgical site. The client should notify the health care provider if excessive ear drainage is noted.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the option containing the word “excessive.” Recalling that the ear needs to remain dry will assist you in eliminating the option that involves showering. To select from the remaining options, think about each action and its effect on the ear. This will direct you to the correct option. Review care after stapedectomy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1102-1103). St. Louis: Saunders. The client must avoid rapidly moving the head, bouncing, and bending over for at least 3 weeks to prevent disruption of the surgical site. The client should keep the affected ear dry at all times and should avoid getting the head wet, washing the hair, or showering for 1 week. The client should not rinse out the ear. The client also needs to avoid drinking through a straw for 2 to 3 weeks because the sucking action necessary to use the straw could cause disruption of the surgical site. The client should notify the health care provider if excessive ear drainage is noted.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the option containing the word “excessive.” Recalling that the ear needs to remain dry will assist you in eliminating the option that involves showering. To select from the remaining options, think about each action and its effect on the ear. This will direct you to the correct option. Review care after stapedectomy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1102-1103). St. Louis: Saunders. 9 / 100 A nurse is providing instructions to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) about effective measures for communicating with a hearing-impaired client. The nurse instructs the UAP to: A. Raise his voice when talking to the client B. Talk directly into the client’s impaired ear C. Be cordial and smile when talking to the client D. Face the client when talking, keeping the hands away from the mouth To facilitate communication with a client who is hearing impaired, the nurse should speak in a normal tone, not shout or raise the voice. The nurse should speak clearly and directly while facing the client and keep the hands away from the mouth so that the client can read the nurse’s lips. It may be helpful for the nurse to move closer to the client and toward the better ear to facilitate communication, but it is not helpful to talk directly into the client’s impaired ear. Smiling while talking will make it difficult for the client to lipread.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, communicating with a hearing-impaired client. Visualizing each of the options will direct you to the correct one. Review these communication techniques if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 410). St. Louis: Mosby. To facilitate communication with a client who is hearing impaired, the nurse should speak in a normal tone, not shout or raise the voice. The nurse should speak clearly and directly while facing the client and keep the hands away from the mouth so that the client can read the nurse’s lips. It may be helpful for the nurse to move closer to the client and toward the better ear to facilitate communication, but it is not helpful to talk directly into the client’s impaired ear. Smiling while talking will make it difficult for the client to lipread.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, communicating with a hearing-impaired client. Visualizing each of the options will direct you to the correct one. Review these communication techniques if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 410). St. Louis: Mosby. 10 / 100 A nurse provides instructions to a client about measures to prevent an acute attack of gout. The nurse determines that the client needs additional instructions if the client states: A. “It’s important for me to drink a lot of fluids.” B. “A fad diet or starvation diet can cause an acute attack.” C. “I don’t need medication unless I’m having a severe attack.” D. “Physical and emotional stress can cause an attack.” Treatment of gout includes both nutrition and medication therapy. The client should be encouraged to limit the use of alcohol and reduce the consumption of foods high in purines. Such foods include sardines, herring, mussels, liver, kidney, goose, venison, and sweetbreads. Medication therapy is a primary component of management for clients with gout, and the health care provider normally prescribes a medication that will promote uric acid excretion or reduce its production. Fluid intake is important in preventing the development of uric acid stones. Fad or starvation diets can precipitate an acute attack because of the rapid breakdown of cells they induce. Excessive physical and emotional stress can exacerbate the disease.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and your knowledge of the treatment for gout. Also note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recall that in this disorder the client experiences an increased uric acid level and that medications are needed to promote the acid’s excretion. Review the management of gout if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1577). St. Louis: Mosby. Treatment of gout includes both nutrition and medication therapy. The client should be encouraged to limit the use of alcohol and reduce the consumption of foods high in purines. Such foods include sardines, herring, mussels, liver, kidney, goose, venison, and sweetbreads. Medication therapy is a primary component of management for clients with gout, and the health care provider normally prescribes a medication that will promote uric acid excretion or reduce its production. Fluid intake is important in preventing the development of uric acid stones. Fad or starvation diets can precipitate an acute attack because of the rapid breakdown of cells they induce. Excessive physical and emotional stress can exacerbate the disease.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and your knowledge of the treatment for gout. Also note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recall that in this disorder the client experiences an increased uric acid level and that medications are needed to promote the acid’s excretion. Review the management of gout if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1577). St. Louis: Mosby. 11 / 100 A nurse provides instructions to a client with rheumatoid arthritis about joint exercises that are important to prevent deformity and reduce pain. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instruction? A. “I should always maintain good posture.” B. “I should stop my exercises if I get tired.” C. “I should avoid all exercise when my joints are inflamed.” D. “Doing range-of-motion exercises every day will ease the pain.” The client should avoid activities (other than gentle range of motion) when the joints are inflamed. Isometric exercises are also helpful when the joints are inflamed. Daily range-of-motion exercises are an important component of the program and will help relieve pain, but the client should exercise only to the point of fatigue or discomfort. All clients are taught to maintain good posture.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Noting the closed-ended word “all” will direct you to the correct option. Review exercise instructions for the client with rheumatoid arthritis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1574-1576). St. Louis: Mosby. The client should avoid activities (other than gentle range of motion) when the joints are inflamed. Isometric exercises are also helpful when the joints are inflamed. Daily range-of-motion exercises are an important component of the program and will help relieve pain, but the client should exercise only to the point of fatigue or discomfort. All clients are taught to maintain good posture.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Noting the closed-ended word “all” will direct you to the correct option. Review exercise instructions for the client with rheumatoid arthritis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1574-1576). St. Louis: Mosby. 12 / 100 A nurse provides home care instructions to a client with a below-the-knee amputation (BKA) about residual limb and prosthesis care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? A. “I should wear a sock over my stump.” B. “I can wash my leg with a mild soap.” C. “I need to check my leg for irritation every day.” D. “I’ll put lotion on my leg a few times a day.” The client should be instructed to don the prosthesis immediately on arising and to keep it on all day (once the incision has healed completely) to reduce residual limb swelling. “I can wash my leg with a mild soap,” “I need to check my leg for irritation every day,” and “I should wear a sock over my stump” are correct statements regarding residual limb and prosthesis care. The client should not use any lotions, alcohol-containing powders, or oils on the residual limb unless told to do so by the healthcare provider. The client should also perform range-of-motion exercises of the joints, as well as strengthening exercises, including the upper extremities, every day.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling that the prosthesis is used to reduce residual limb edema will direct you to the correct option. Review client instructions regarding prosthesis and residual limb care if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1533). St. Louis: Mosby. The client should be instructed to don the prosthesis immediately on arising and to keep it on all day (once the incision has healed completely) to reduce residual limb swelling. “I can wash my leg with a mild soap,” “I need to check my leg for irritation every day,” and “I should wear a sock over my stump” are correct statements regarding residual limb and prosthesis care. The client should not use any lotions, alcohol-containing powders, or oils on the residual limb unless told to do so by the healthcare provider. The client should also perform range-of-motion exercises of the joints, as well as strengthening exercises, including the upper extremities, every day.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling that the prosthesis is used to reduce residual limb edema will direct you to the correct option. Review client instructions regarding prosthesis and residual limb care if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1533). St. Louis: Mosby. 13 / 100 Buck extension traction is applied to the right leg of a client who sustained a right hip fracture. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Assessing the pin sites at least every 8 hours B. Removing the traction weights to provide skin care C. Applying lanolin to the skin of the right leg once per shift D. Checking the skin integrity of the right leg at least every 8 hours Buck extension traction is a type of skin traction. It is important with skin traction to inspect the skin underneath at least once every 8 hours for irritation or inflammation. The nurse never releases the weights of traction unless specifically asked to do so by the health care provider. Applying lanolin to the skin could leave the skin slippery, making it difficult to maintain the belt or boot used for the skin traction. There are no pins to care for with skin traction.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that Buck extension traction is a type of skin traction will assist you in eliminating the option of assessing the pin sites. Next eliminate the option that indicates that the nurse may remove traction weights without a specific prescription to do so. To select from the remaining options, use the steps of the nursing process. The correct option addresses assessment. Review care of the client in Buck traction if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 258, 266). St. Louis: Mosby. Buck extension traction is a type of skin traction. It is important with skin traction to inspect the skin underneath at least once every 8 hours for irritation or inflammation. The nurse never releases the weights of traction unless specifically asked to do so by the health care provider. Applying lanolin to the skin could leave the skin slippery, making it difficult to maintain the belt or boot used for the skin traction. There are no pins to care for with skin traction.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that Buck extension traction is a type of skin traction will assist you in eliminating the option of assessing the pin sites. Next eliminate the option that indicates that the nurse may remove traction weights without a specific prescription to do so. To select from the remaining options, use the steps of the nursing process. The correct option addresses assessment. Review care of the client in Buck traction if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 258, 266). St. Louis: Mosby. 14 / 100 A client with a leg fracture who has been placed in skeletal traction is transported to the orthopedic unit after surgery. Which finding would indicate the need to contact the orthopedic specialist? A. The traction knots are intact. B. The traction weights are hanging freely. C. The clamps on the traction frame are tight D. The traction ropes are unable to move over the pulleys. After skeletal traction pins are inserted and traction is applied, all ropes, knots, and pulleys are inspected to ensure that they are positioned properly. Traction knots and ropes must be intact and secure. Ropes should move easily over pulleys and weights, and the weights should hang freely at all times. The clamps on the traction frame should be tight.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need to contact the orthopedic specialist,” which indicate the need to select the option that constitutes an unsafe or incorrect observation. Noting the words “unable to move over the pulleys” will help you identify to the correct option. Review care of the client in skeletal traction if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 263, 265-266). St. Louis: Mosby. After skeletal traction pins are inserted and traction is applied, all ropes, knots, and pulleys are inspected to ensure that they are positioned properly. Traction knots and ropes must be intact and secure. Ropes should move easily over pulleys and weights, and the weights should hang freely at all times. The clamps on the traction frame should be tight.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need to contact the orthopedic specialist,” which indicate the need to select the option that constitutes an unsafe or incorrect observation. Noting the words “unable to move over the pulleys” will help you identify to the correct option. Review care of the client in skeletal traction if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 263, 265-266). St. Louis: Mosby. 15 / 100 A client has just had a plaster leg cast applied, and the nurse has given the client instructions on cast care. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instruction? A. “I may feel cool while the cast is drying.” B. “I shouldn’t use anything to scratch underneath the cast.” C. “If I smell any odor from the cast, I should call the doctor.” D. “I can dry the cast faster if I use a hairdryer on the hot setting.” Using a blow dryer on the hot setting to dry the cast is not advised because it may burn the client’s skin under the cast and crack the cast. While the cast is still damp, the client may feel cold and may experience a decrease in body temperature. The client should never insert any item under the cast because of the risk skin compromise. An odor coming from the cast could indicate the presence of infection, warranting health care provider notification.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling that the use of a hot blow dryer can cause burns will direct you to this option. Review client teaching points in regard to cast care if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 253-254). St. Louis: Mosby. Using a blow dryer on the hot setting to dry the cast is not advised because it may burn the client’s skin under the cast and crack the cast. While the cast is still damp, the client may feel cold and may experience a decrease in body temperature. The client should never insert any item under the cast because of the risk skin compromise. An odor coming from the cast could indicate the presence of infection, warranting health care provider notification.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling that the use of a hot blow dryer can cause burns will direct you to this option. Review client teaching points in regard to cast care if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 253-254). St. Louis: Mosby. 16 / 100 A client who sustained a fracture of the left arm requires the application of a plaster cast. The nurse tells the client that the procedure for applying the cast involves: A. Administering a local anesthetic to the fractured arm B. Soaking the left arm in a warm-water bath for 2 hours before cast application C. Debriding any open wounds and applying antibiotic ointment before the cast material is applied D. Applying soft padding and stockinette over the fractured arm, followed by the application of the cast material To apply a cast, the skin is washed and dried well, but it is not soaked in a warm-water bath. Padding is applied and a stockinette is placed smoothly and evenly over the area to be casted. The plaster is then rolled onto the padding and the edges are trimmed or smoothed as needed. Local anesthesia of the fractured extremity is not necessary, although an analgesic may be administered to alleviate pain. A local anesthetic will block nerve sensation, and it is important for the client to be able to report any changes in sensations after the cast is applied. If the client has open wounds on the fractured extremity, a window will be cut in the cast to allow visualization and treatment of the wound. A wound would not be covered with cast material.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option containing the words “2 hours.” Next eliminate the option that involves administration of a local anesthetic, recalling that a local anesthetic will block nerve sensation. Recognizing that covering an open wound with a cast material would not permit assessment of the wound will allow you to eliminate this option. Review client instructions regarding the application of a plaster cast if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 251-253). St. Louis: Mosby. To apply a cast, the skin is washed and dried well, but it is not soaked in a warm-water bath. Padding is applied and a stockinette is placed smoothly and evenly over the area to be casted. The plaster is then rolled onto the padding and the edges are trimmed or smoothed as needed. Local anesthesia of the fractured extremity is not necessary, although an analgesic may be administered to alleviate pain. A local anesthetic will block nerve sensation, and it is important for the client to be able to report any changes in sensations after the cast is applied. If the client has open wounds on the fractured extremity, a window will be cut in the cast to allow visualization and treatment of the wound. A wound would not be covered with cast material.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option containing the words “2 hours.” Next eliminate the option that involves administration of a local anesthetic, recalling that a local anesthetic will block nerve sensation. Recognizing that covering an open wound with a cast material would not permit assessment of the wound will allow you to eliminate this option. Review client instructions regarding the application of a plaster cast if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 251-253). St. Louis: Mosby. 17 / 100 A client is found to have AIDS. What is the nurse’s highest priority in providing care to this client? A. Providing emotional support to the client B. Discussing the cause of AIDS with the client C. Instituting measures to prevent infection in the client D. Identifying risk factors related to contracting AIDS with the client The client with AIDS has inadequate immune bodies and is at risk for infection. The priority nursing intervention is protecting the client from infection. The nurse would also provide emotional support to the client. Discussing the cause of AIDS and the ways in which AIDS is contracted are not priority interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “highest priority.” Use Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory to answer the question. Remember that physiological needs are the priority. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the priority needs of a client with AIDS if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 239-240, 242). St. Louis: Mosby The client with AIDS has inadequate immune bodies and is at risk for infection. The priority nursing intervention is protecting the client from infection. The nurse would also provide emotional support to the client. Discussing the cause of AIDS and the ways in which AIDS is contracted are not priority interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “highest priority.” Use Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory to answer the question. Remember that physiological needs are the priority. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the priority needs of a client with AIDS if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 239-240, 242). St. Louis: Mosby 18 / 100 A client arrives at the emergency department with reports of a headache, hives, itching, and difficulty swallowing. The client states that he took ibuprofen (Motrin) 1 hour earlier and believes that he is experiencing an allergic reaction to this medication. After ensuring that the client has a patent airway, which intervention does the nurse prepare the client for first? A. Administration of normal saline solution B. Administration of an intravenous (IV) glucocorticoid C. Administration of pain medication to relieve the client’s headache D. Administration of a subcutaneous injection of epinephrine (Adrenalin) Once airway has been established, the client would be given subcutaneous epinephrine. IV corticosteroids and IV fluids may also be prescribed. Pain medication may or may not be prescribed.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. All of the interventions in the options may be prescribed for the client experiencing a hypersensitivity reaction. Remember that once airway is established, the client will receive epinephrine. Review care of the client who experiences an allergic reaction if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 214). St. Louis: Mosby. Once airway has been established, the client would be given subcutaneous epinephrine. IV corticosteroids and IV fluids may also be prescribed. Pain medication may or may not be prescribed.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. All of the interventions in the options may be prescribed for the client experiencing a hypersensitivity reaction. Remember that once airway is established, the client will receive epinephrine. Review care of the client who experiences an allergic reaction if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 214). St. Louis: Mosby. 19 / 100 A nurse is assessing a client with AIDS for signs of Pneumocystis jiroveci infection. Which sign of the infection is the earliest manifestation? A. Fever B. Dyspnea at rest C. Dyspnea on exertion D. Nonproductive cough The client with P. jiroveci infection usually has a cough as the first symptom, which begins as nonproductive then progresses to productive. Later signs include fever, dyspnea on exertion, and finally dyspnea at rest.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “earliest.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve dyspnea. To select from the remaining options, focus on the anatomical location of the infection, which will direct you to the correct option. Review the early manifestations of P. jiroveci infection if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 236). St. Louis: Mosby. The client with P. jiroveci infection usually has a cough as the first symptom, which begins as nonproductive then progresses to productive. Later signs include fever, dyspnea on exertion, and finally dyspnea at rest.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “earliest.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve dyspnea. To select from the remaining options, focus on the anatomical location of the infection, which will direct you to the correct option. Review the early manifestations of P. jiroveci infection if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 236). St. Louis: Mosby. 20 / 100 An emergency department (ED) nurse receives a telephone call from emergency medical services and is told that a client who has sustained severe burns of the face and upper arms is being transported to the ED. Which action does the nurse, preparing for the arrival of the client, plan to implement first? A. Inserting a Foley catheter B. Initiating an intravenous (IV) line C. Cleansing the burn wound D. Administering 100% humidified oxygen When a victim who sustains a burn injury arrives at the ED, breathing is assessed, a patent airway is established, and the client is given 100% humidified oxygen. Inserting a Foley catheter, initiating an IV line, and cleansing the burn wound are also components of the plan of care for a burned client, but these are not the immediate actions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to answer the question. The correct option is the only one related to the airway. Review care of the burned client if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 456). St. Louis: Mosby. When a victim who sustains a burn injury arrives at the ED, breathing is assessed, a patent airway is established, and the client is given 100% humidified oxygen. Inserting a Foley catheter, initiating an IV line, and cleansing the burn wound are also components of the plan of care for a burned client, but these are not the immediate actions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to answer the question. The correct option is the only one related to the airway. Review care of the burned client if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 456). St. Louis: Mosby. 21 / 100 A nurse is monitoring a client who has just undergone radical neck dissection. The nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure has dropped from 132/84 to 90/50 mm Hg and that the pulse has increased from 78 to 96 beats/min. On the basis of these findings, the nurse immediately: A. Suctions the client B. Obtains a pulse oximeter C. Contacts the health care provider D. Increases the rate of the client’s intravenous (IV) solution In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse assesses the client for stridor (a coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration when auscultating over the trachea), a sign of airway edema, and for signs of bleeding. A drop in blood pressure and an increase in pulse are indicators of bleeding. The health care provider is notified immediately if either of these events occurs. Suctioning is performed to remove secretions that cannot be expectorated by the client. Increasing the rate of the client’s IV solution is not done without a health care provider’s prescription. A pulse oximeter may be needed, but this is not the action to be taken immediately.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Focus on the data in the question and note that the nurse’s findings indicate bleeding. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately if bleeding occurs if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 513, 1200-1201). St. Louis: Mosby. In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse assesses the client for stridor (a coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration when auscultating over the trachea), a sign of airway edema, and for signs of bleeding. A drop in blood pressure and an increase in pulse are indicators of bleeding. The health care provider is notified immediately if either of these events occurs. Suctioning is performed to remove secretions that cannot be expectorated by the client. Increasing the rate of the client’s IV solution is not done without a health care provider’s prescription. A pulse oximeter may be needed, but this is not the action to be taken immediately.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Focus on the data in the question and note that the nurse’s findings indicate bleeding. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately if bleeding occurs if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 513, 1200-1201). St. Louis: Mosby. 22 / 100 A client with a spinal cord injury suddenly complains of a pounding headache. The nurse quickly assesses the client and notes that the client is diaphoretic, that his blood pressure has increased, and that his heart rate has slowed. Suspecting that the client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, the nurse elevates the head of the client’s bed and immediately: A. Documents the event B. Notifies the healthcare provider C. Checks the client’s bladder for distention D. Checks to see whether the client has a prescription for an antihypertensive Autonomic dysreflexia is an emergency that occurs as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli that are innocuous in normal individuals. It occurs only after spinal shock has resolved. A variety of stimuli may trigger this response, including a distended bladder (the most common cause); distention or contraction of the visceral organs, especially the bowel (as a result of constipation or impaction); or stimulation of the skin. When autonomic dysreflexia occurs, the client is immediately placed in a sitting position to lower the blood pressure. The nurse then performs a rapid assessment to identify and alleviate the cause. The client’s bladder is emptied immediately by way of a urinary catheter, the rectum is checked for the presence of a fecal mass, and the skin is examined for areas of pressure, irritation, or compromise. The health care provider is notified, and then the nurse documents the occurrence and the actions taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and note that the nurse has already elevated the head of the client’s bed. Next, recall that autonomic dysreflexia occurs as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli, which will direct you to the correct option. Review immediate interventions for autonomic dysreflexia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1479-1480). St. Louis: Mosby. Autonomic dysreflexia is an emergency that occurs as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli that are innocuous in normal individuals. It occurs only after spinal shock has resolved. A variety of stimuli may trigger this response, including a distended bladder (the most common cause); distention or contraction of the visceral organs, especially the bowel (as a result of constipation or impaction); or stimulation of the skin. When autonomic dysreflexia occurs, the client is immediately placed in a sitting position to lower the blood pressure. The nurse then performs a rapid assessment to identify and alleviate the cause. The client’s bladder is emptied immediately by way of a urinary catheter, the rectum is checked for the presence of a fecal mass, and the skin is examined for areas of pressure, irritation, or compromise. The health care provider is notified, and then the nurse documents the occurrence and the actions taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and note that the nurse has already elevated the head of the client’s bed. Next, recall that autonomic dysreflexia occurs as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli, which will direct you to the correct option. Review immediate interventions for autonomic dysreflexia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1479-1480). St. Louis: Mosby. 23 / 100 A nurse is providing home care instructions to a client with Parkinson disease about measures to avoid rigidity and to overcome tremor and bradykinesia. The nurse tells the client to: A. Sit in soft, deep chairs B. Rock back and forth to start movement C. Exercise in the evening to combat fatigue D. Perform tasks with only the hand that has the tremor The client with Parkinson disease should rock back and forth to initiate movement with bradykinesia (slowed movement). The client should avoid sitting in soft, deep chairs to prevent rigidity and because they are difficult to get up from. The client should exercise in the morning, when the energy level at its highest. The client with a tremor is instructed to use both hands to accomplish a task.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option that uses the closed-ended word “only” first. To select correctly from the remaining options, recall that bradykinesia means slowed movement to identify the correct option. Review client teaching points for Parkinson’s disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1434). St. Louis: Mosby. The client with Parkinson disease should rock back and forth to initiate movement with bradykinesia (slowed movement). The client should avoid sitting in soft, deep chairs to prevent rigidity and because they are difficult to get up from. The client should exercise in the morning, when the energy level at its highest. The client with a tremor is instructed to use both hands to accomplish a task.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option that uses the closed-ended word “only” first. To select correctly from the remaining options, recall that bradykinesia means slowed movement to identify the correct option. Review client teaching points for Parkinson’s disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1434). St. Louis: Mosby. 24 / 100 A nurse is teaching a client who is experiencing homonymous hemianopsia after a brain attack (stroke) about measures to overcome the deficit. The nurse tells the client to: A. Wear eyeglasses 24 hours a day B. Wear a patch on the affected eye C. Turn the head to scan the lost visual field D. Keep all objects in the impaired field of vision Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field. The nurse instructs the client to scan the environment to overcome the visual deficit. The nurse encourages the use of personal eyeglasses to improve overall vision, but it is not necessary to wear the glasses 24 hours a day. The client should keep objects in the intact field of vision whenever possible. An eye patch is of no use because the client does not have double vision.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with homonymous hemianopsia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1350, 1407). St. Louis: Mosby. Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field. The nurse instructs the client to scan the environment to overcome the visual deficit. The nurse encourages the use of personal eyeglasses to improve overall vision, but it is not necessary to wear the glasses 24 hours a day. The client should keep objects in the intact field of vision whenever possible. An eye patch is of no use because the client does not have double vision.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with homonymous hemianopsia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1350, 1407). St. Louis: Mosby. 25 / 100 A client who is recovering from a brain attack (stroke) has residual dysphagia. Which measure does the nurse plan to implement at mealtimes? A. Giving the client thin liquids B. Alternating liquids with solids C. Giving foods that are primarily liquid D. Placing food in the affected side of the client’s mouth The client with dysphagia may be started on a diet once the gag and swallow reflexes have returned. Liquids should be thickened to help prevent aspiration. Food is placed on the unaffected side of the mouth. Liquids are alternated with solids whenever possible to prevent food from being left in the mouth. The client is assisted with meals as needed and is given ample time to chew and swallow.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve giving thin liquids or primarily liquids. To select from the remaining options, visualize each. Recalling that placing food on the affected side of the mouth will put the client at risk for aspiration will assist you in eliminating this option. Review care of the client with residual dysphagia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1402). St. Louis: Mosby. The client with dysphagia may be started on a diet once the gag and swallow reflexes have returned. Liquids should be thickened to help prevent aspiration. Food is placed on the unaffected side of the mouth. Liquids are alternated with solids whenever possible to prevent food from being left in the mouth. The client is assisted with meals as needed and is given ample time to chew and swallow.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve giving thin liquids or primarily liquids. To select from the remaining options, visualize each. Recalling that placing food on the affected side of the mouth will put the client at risk for aspiration will assist you in eliminating this option. Review care of the client with residual dysphagia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1402). St. Louis: Mosby. 26 / 100 A client who experienced a brain attack (stroke) exhibits right-sided unilateral neglect. The nurse caring for this client plans to place the client’s personal care items: A. Within the client’s reach on the left side B. Within the client’s reach on the right side C. Just out of the client’s reach on the left side D. Just out of the client’s reach on the right side Unilateral neglect is unawareness of one side of the body. The client behaves as if that part is not there. The client does not look at the paralyzed limb when moving about. Unilateral neglect results in increased risk for injury. It is possible for the client to relearn to look for and to move the affected limb(s). Therefore in this condition the client’s personal care items are placed within the client’s reach on the right side. Hemiparesis is a weakness of the face, arm, and leg on one side. The client with one-sided hemiparesis benefits from having objects placed on the unaffected side and within reach. This reduces client frustration and aids in ensuring client safety because the client does not have to strain and reach for needed items. The nurse adapts the client’s environment to the deficit by focusing on the client’s unaffected side and by placing the client’s personal care items on the affected side within reach. Placing items out of the client’s reach presents a risk of injury.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options first that are potentially hazardous to the client. To select from the remaining options, focus on the subject, unilateral neglect. With unilateral neglect, objects are placed on the affected side to train the client to attend to that part of the environment. Review care of the client with unilateral neglect if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1403). St. Louis: Mosby. Unilateral neglect is unawareness of one side of the body. The client behaves as if that part is not there. The client does not look at the paralyzed limb when moving about. Unilateral neglect results in increased risk for injury. It is possible for the client to relearn to look for and to move the affected limb(s). Therefore in this condition the client’s personal care items are placed within the client’s reach on the right side. Hemiparesis is a weakness of the face, arm, and leg on one side. The client with one-sided hemiparesis benefits from having objects placed on the unaffected side and within reach. This reduces client frustration and aids in ensuring client safety because the client does not have to strain and reach for needed items. The nurse adapts the client’s environment to the deficit by focusing on the client’s unaffected side and by placing the client’s personal care items on the affected side within reach. Placing items out of the client’s reach presents a risk of injury.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options first that are potentially hazardous to the client. To select from the remaining options, focus on the subject, unilateral neglect. With unilateral neglect, objects are placed on the affected side to train the client to attend to that part of the environment. Review care of the client with unilateral neglect if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1403). St. Louis: Mosby. 27 / 100 A nurse answers the call bell of a client who has been fitted with an internal cervical radiation implant, and the client states that she thinks that the implant has fallen out. The nurse checks the client and sees the implant lying in the bed. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Calling the health care provider B. Reinserting the implant into the client’s vagina C. Picking up the implant with gloved hands and placing it in sterile water D. Using long-handled forceps to place the implant in a lead container A lead container and long-handled forceps should be kept in the client’s room at all times during internal radiation therapy. If the implant is dislodged, the nurse should pick it up with long-handled forceps and place it in the lead container. Reinserting the implant into the vagina and picking up the implant with gloved hands and placing it in sterile water are both incorrect nursing actions. The health care provider is called after action is taken to maintain the safety of the client.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. Recalling that the nurse needs to protect him or herself from exposure to the radiation will direct you to the correct option. Review the measures for dealing with a dislodged implant if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders. A lead container and long-handled forceps should be kept in the client’s room at all times during internal radiation therapy. If the implant is dislodged, the nurse should pick it up with long-handled forceps and place it in the lead container. Reinserting the implant into the vagina and picking up the implant with gloved hands and placing it in sterile water are both incorrect nursing actions. The health care provider is called after action is taken to maintain the safety of the client.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. Recalling that the nurse needs to protect him or herself from exposure to the radiation will direct you to the correct option. Review the measures for dealing with a dislodged implant if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders. 28 / 100 A female client who has undergone placement of a sealed radiation implant asks the nurse whether she can take a walk around the nursing unit. How should the nurse respond to the client’s request? A. “Short walks are OK.” B. “You need to stay in your room for now.” C. “Yes, it’s fine to take a walk around the nursing unit.” D. “Do you think that a walk around the unit will tire you out?” The client with a sealed radiation implant must remain in a private room to keep others from being exposed to radiation. The other options are all incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client is permitted to leave the room for ambulation. Review care of the client with a radiation implant if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders. The client with a sealed radiation implant must remain in a private room to keep others from being exposed to radiation. The other options are all incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client is permitted to leave the room for ambulation. Review care of the client with a radiation implant if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders. 29 / 100 A nurse develops a nursing care plan for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Which stipulation does the nurse include in the plan? A. Visitors must be limited to one half-hour per day. B. Visitors must remain at least 2 feet (61 cm) from the client C. A dosimeter badge must be placed on the client’s bedside stand. D. The client may be maintained in a semiprivate room as long as the client uses a commode The nurse would limit each visitor to a half-hour per day and be sure that visitors remain at least 6 feet (1.8 metres) from the radiation source. The nurse would wear the dosimeter badge when caring for the client. The dosimeter badge measures an individual’s exposure to radiation and should be used by only one individual. The dosimeter badge is not left in the client’s room. The client is assigned to a private room with a private bath to keep other clients from being exposed to radiation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Thinking about the measures that will prevent exposure to radiation direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a radiation implant if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders. The nurse would limit each visitor to a half-hour per day and be sure that visitors remain at least 6 feet (1.8 metres) from the radiation source. The nurse would wear the dosimeter badge when caring for the client. The dosimeter badge measures an individual’s exposure to radiation and should be used by only one individual. The dosimeter badge is not left in the client’s room. The client is assigned to a private room with a private bath to keep other clients from being exposed to radiation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Thinking about the measures that will prevent exposure to radiation direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a radiation implant if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders. 30 / 100 The nurse has instructed a client who is about to begin external radiation therapy in how to maintain optimal skin integrity during therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? A. “I need to keep the sun off the radiation site.” B. “I can use over-the-counter cortisone cream on the radiation site if it gets red.” C. “I need to be careful not to wash off the marks that the radiologist made on my skin.” D. “I need to wash the skin at the radiation site with a mild soap and water and pat it dry.” The client should use no powders, ointments, lotions, or creams on the skin at the radiation site unless they have been prescribed by the health care provider. Avoiding sun exposure of the radiation site, not removing marks made on the skin by the radiologist, and washing the skin with mild soap and water and patting it dry are all correct measures. The client should also be instructed to avoid using harsh detergents to wash clothing.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further instruction” in the query of the question, which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Noting the words “over-the-counter” will direct you to the correct option. Review client teaching points for skin care during radiation therapy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 269-270). St. Louis: Mosby. The client should use no powders, ointments, lotions, or creams on the skin at the radiation site unless they have been prescribed by the health care provider. Avoiding sun exposure of the radiation site, not removing marks made on the skin by the radiologist, and washing the skin with mild soap and water and patting it dry are all correct measures. The client should also be instructed to avoid using harsh detergents to wash clothing.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further instruction” in the query of the question, which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Noting the words “over-the-counter” will direct you to the correct option. Review client teaching points for skin care during radiation therapy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 269-270). St. Louis: Mosby. 31 / 100 A client with cancer of the larynx is receiving external radiation therapy of the neck. Which side effect related specifically to the site of irradiation does the nurse tell the client to expect? A. Diarrhea B. Dyspnea C. Headache D. Dysphagia In general, skin reactions and fatigue may occur with radiation therapy of any site, whereas other side effects occur only when a specific area lies in the treatment field. A client undergoing radiation therapy of the larynx is most likely to experience dysphagia. Diarrhea may occur with irradiation of the gastrointestinal tract. Dyspnea may occur with lung irradiation. Headache may occur with irradiation of the head.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “related specifically to the site.” Focus on the anatomical location of the radiation therapy to identify the correct option. Review the effects of radiation therapy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 268). St. Louis: Mosby In general, skin reactions and fatigue may occur with radiation therapy of any site, whereas other side effects occur only when a specific area lies in the treatment field. A client undergoing radiation therapy of the larynx is most likely to experience dysphagia. Diarrhea may occur with irradiation of the gastrointestinal tract. Dyspnea may occur with lung irradiation. Headache may occur with irradiation of the head.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “related specifically to the site.” Focus on the anatomical location of the radiation therapy to identify the correct option. Review the effects of radiation therapy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 268). St. Louis: Mosby 32 / 100 A nurse is having dinner at a restaurant when a man sitting at the next table collapses and falls to the floor. The nurse yells for help and quickly assesses the client, noting that the client is not breathing and does not have a pulse. The nurse initiates cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) immediately, and the restaurant manager rushes to the scene with an automatic external defibrillator (AED). What should the nurse do next? A. Use the AED B. Stop the resuscitation efforts C. Perform CPR until emergency medical services arrives D. Check for a pulse for 30 seconds before continuing CPR Basic components of CPR include immediate recognition of the sudden cardiac arrest (unresponsiveness and absence of normal breathing) and activation of the emergency response system, early CPR, and rapid defibrillation with the use of an AED.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the resuscitation efforts should be terminated. To select from the remaining options it is necessary to know the components of CPR. Review the components of CPR and the procedure for using an AED if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 680-682). St. Louis: Mosby. Basic components of CPR include immediate recognition of the sudden cardiac arrest (unresponsiveness and absence of normal breathing) and activation of the emergency response system, early CPR, and rapid defibrillation with the use of an AED.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the resuscitation efforts should be terminated. To select from the remaining options it is necessary to know the components of CPR. Review the components of CPR and the procedure for using an AED if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 680-682). St. Louis: Mosby. 33 / 100 A nurse is working in the emergency department. Which client should be assessed first? A. A client with new-onset dizziness B. A client admitted with a recent ear injury C. A client who has been experiencing nausea and vomiting for 12 hours D. A client with new-onset atrial fibrillation with a rate of 118 beats/min The client with new-onset atrial fibrillation is at risk for complications associated with the tachydysrhythmia. This dysrhythmia may result in decreased cardiac output because of ineffective atrial contractions. Thrombi form in the atria as a result of the pooling of blood. All of the other clients will require the nurse’s attention, but the client who requires immediate attention and is the most hemodynamically unstable is the one with atrial fibrillation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to find the correct option. The client experiencing atrial fibrillation is the least stable of the clients identified in the other options. Review the principles of prioritization if you had difficulty with this question. References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 126). St. Louis: Saunders. The client with new-onset atrial fibrillation is at risk for complications associated with the tachydysrhythmia. This dysrhythmia may result in decreased cardiac output because of ineffective atrial contractions. Thrombi form in the atria as a result of the pooling of blood. All of the other clients will require the nurse’s attention, but the client who requires immediate attention and is the most hemodynamically unstable is the one with atrial fibrillation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to find the correct option. The client experiencing atrial fibrillation is the least stable of the clients identified in the other options. Review the principles of prioritization if you had difficulty with this question. References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 126). St. Louis: Saunders. 34 / 100 A nurse attending a recertification course in basic life support (BLS) for healthcare professionals is practicing BLS on an infant mannequin. Where does the nurse place the fingers to assess the infant’s pulse? A. Neck B. Wrist C. Behind the knee D. Antecubital fossa of the arm An infant’s pulse should be checked at the brachial artery. The relatively short, fat neck of an infant makes palpation of the carotid artery (neck) difficult. Palpation of the pulse in the radial (wrist) and popliteal (behind the knee) area would also be difficult.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and visualize each location identified in the options. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for performing BLS on an infant if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 852). St. Louis: Elsevier. An infant’s pulse should be checked at the brachial artery. The relatively short, fat neck of an infant makes palpation of the carotid artery (neck) difficult. Palpation of the pulse in the radial (wrist) and popliteal (behind the knee) area would also be difficult.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and visualize each location identified in the options. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for performing BLS on an infant if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 852). St. Louis: Elsevier. 35 / 100 A pediatric nurse finds a hospitalized child unresponsive. A quick assessment reveals that the child is not breathing and does not have a pulse. The nurse initiates cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). How many chest compressions per minute does the nurse deliver? A. 15 B. 30 C. 50 D. 100 In an infant or child, the rate of chest compressions is at least 100/min.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the procedure for performing CPR on a child is needed to answer this question. Remember that the rate of chest compressions is at least 100/min. Review this procedure if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 852). St. Louis: Elsevier. In an infant or child, the rate of chest compressions is at least 100/min.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the procedure for performing CPR on a child is needed to answer this question. Remember that the rate of chest compressions is at least 100/min. Review this procedure if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 852). St. Louis: Elsevier. 36 / 100 The nurse is administering cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to an adult client. Which compression-ventilation ratio is correct? A. 15:1 B. 15:2 C. 20:2 D. 30:2 37 / 100 A nurse arrives at the scene of a code and begins to assist with cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) of an adult. The nurse delivers compressions by pushing down on the chest to a depth of: A. 1 inch B. 1½ inches (3.8 cm) C. 2 inches (5 cm) D. 4 inches (10 cm) When CPR is being performed on an adult, the sternum should be depressed at least 2 inches (5 cm). The other options are incorrect because they are too shallow to be effective or too deep, which can cause damage to internal organs. The rescuer should allow complete recoil of the chest after each compression to allow the heart to fill completely before the next compression.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the procedure for performing chest compressions on an adult is necessary to answer the question. Consider the normal body structure of an adult to answer the question correctly. If you had difficulty with this question, review the procedure for CPR for an adult.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., p. 685). St. Louis: Mosby. When CPR is being performed on an adult, the sternum should be depressed at least 2 inches (5 cm). The other options are incorrect because they are too shallow to be effective or too deep, which can cause damage to internal organs. The rescuer should allow complete recoil of the chest after each compression to allow the heart to fill completely before the next compression.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the procedure for performing chest compressions on an adult is necessary to answer the question. Consider the normal body structure of an adult to answer the question correctly. If you had difficulty with this question, review the procedure for CPR for an adult.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., p. 685). St. Louis: Mosby. 38 / 100 A nurse enters a client’s room and finds the client unconscious. The nurse quickly performs an assessment and determines that the client is not breathing. Which action does the nurse take first? A. Beginning chest compressions B. Checking the client’s pulse oximetry reading C. Placing an oxygen mask on the client D. Counting the client’s carotid pulse for 15 seconds According to the American Heart Association, detecting a pulse may be difficult. The healthcare provider should take not more than 10 seconds to check for a pulse; if the rescuer does not definitely feel a pulse within that period, he or she should start chest compressions. The acronym CAB (circulation, airway, and breathing) is used to prioritize the steps of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Effective chest compressions are essential for providing blood flow during CPR. To provide effective chest compressions, the provider must push hard and fast. Current guidelines for CPR call for the initiation of compressions before ventilations. Oxygen may be helpful at some point, but the airway is opened before the administration of oxygen. Checking the client’s pulse oximetry reading delays implementation of lifesaving measures. According to the American Heart Association, detecting a pulse may be difficult. The healthcare provider should take not more than 10 seconds to check for a pulse; if the rescuer does not definitely feel a pulse within that period, he or she should start chest compressions. The acronym CAB (circulation, airway, and breathing) is used to prioritize the steps of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Effective chest compressions are essential for providing blood flow during CPR. To provide effective chest compressions, the provider must push hard and fast. Current guidelines for CPR call for the initiation of compressions before ventilations. Oxygen may be helpful at some point, but the airway is opened before the administration of oxygen. Checking the client’s pulse oximetry reading delays implementation of lifesaving measures. 39 / 100 A nurse is caring for a client with Crohn disease whose magnesium level is 1.0 mEq/L (0.5 mmol/L). Which assessment findings does the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply. A. Hypotension B. Abdominal distention C. Trousseau sign D. Skeletal muscle weakness E. Decreased deep tendon reflexes The normal magnesium level is 1.5-2.5 mEq/L (0.75-1.25 mmol/L). A magnesium level of 1.0 mEq/L(0.5 mmol/L) reflects hypomagnesemia. Assessment signs include hypertension; gastrointestinal manifestations such as anorexia, nausea, abdominal distention, and decreased bowel sounds; shallow respirations; neuromuscular manifestations such as twitches, paresthesias, hyperreflexia, and the Trousseau and Chvostek signs; and irritability and confusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the options that are comparable or alike because they reflect neurological, musculoskeletal, and cardiovascular depression. If you had difficulty with this question, review the assessment signs found in magnesium imbalances.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 193). St. Louis: Saunders. The normal magnesium level is 1.5-2.5 mEq/L (0.75-1.25 mmol/L). A magnesium level of 1.0 mEq/L(0.5 mmol/L) reflects hypomagnesemia. Assessment signs include hypertension; gastrointestinal manifestations such as anorexia, nausea, abdominal distention, and decreased bowel sounds; shallow respirations; neuromuscular manifestations such as twitches, paresthesias, hyperreflexia, and the Trousseau and Chvostek signs; and irritability and confusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the options that are comparable or alike because they reflect neurological, musculoskeletal, and cardiovascular depression. If you had difficulty with this question, review the assessment signs found in magnesium imbalances.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 193). St. Louis: Saunders. 40 / 100 A nurse is monitoring a client with hyperparathyroidism for signs of hypercalcemia. For which clinical manifestations, associated with this electrolyte imbalance, does the nurse assess the client? Select all that apply. A. Paresthesias B. Muscle weakness C. Increased urine output D. Chvostek sign E. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes Signs of hypercalcemia include muscle weakness, diminished deep tendon reflexes or an absence thereof, increased urine output, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and increased heart rate and blood pressure. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, the presence of the Chvostek sign, and paresthesias are signs of hypocalcemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, signs of hypercalcemia. Note that all of the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they reflect hyperactivity of the neuromuscular system. Review the assessment signs noted in hypercalcemia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 190-191). St. Louis: Saunders.. Signs of hypercalcemia include muscle weakness, diminished deep tendon reflexes or an absence thereof, increased urine output, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and increased heart rate and blood pressure. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, the presence of the Chvostek sign, and paresthesias are signs of hypocalcemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, signs of hypercalcemia. Note that all of the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they reflect hyperactivity of the neuromuscular system. Review the assessment signs noted in hypercalcemia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 190-191). St. Louis: Saunders.. 41 / 100 A nurse is caring for a client experiencing hyponatremia who was admitted to the medical-surgical unit with fluid-volume overload. For which clinical manifestations of this electrolyte imbalance does the nurse monitor this client? Select all that apply. A. Slow pulse B. Decreased urine output C. Skeletal muscle weakness D. Hyperactive bowel sounds E. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes Signs of hyponatremia include a rapid, thready pulse; skeletal muscle weakness; diminished deep tendon reflexes; abdominal cramping and hyperactive bowel sounds; increased urine output; headache; and personality changes. The nurse must assess these changes from baseline. If muscle weakness is detected, the nurse should immediately check respiratory effectiveness, because ventilation depends on strength of the respiratory muscles.Test-Taking Strategy: Specific knowledge of the manifestations of hyponatremia is needed to answer this question. Remember that muscle weakness and hyperactive bowel sounds are characteristics of hyponatremia. If you had difficulty with this question, review these clinical manifestations.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 181-182). St. Louis: Saunders. Signs of hyponatremia include a rapid, thready pulse; skeletal muscle weakness; diminished deep tendon reflexes; abdominal cramping and hyperactive bowel sounds; increased urine output; headache; and personality changes. The nurse must assess these changes from baseline. If muscle weakness is detected, the nurse should immediately check respiratory effectiveness, because ventilation depends on strength of the respiratory muscles.Test-Taking Strategy: Specific knowledge of the manifestations of hyponatremia is needed to answer this question. Remember that muscle weakness and hyperactive bowel sounds are characteristics of hyponatremia. If you had difficulty with this question, review these clinical manifestations.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 181-182). St. Louis: Saunders. 42 / 100 A nurse notes that a client’s serum potassium level is 5.8 mEq/L(5.8 mmol/L). The nurse interprets this as an expected finding in the client with: A. Diarrhea B. Wound drainage C. Addison disease D. Heart failure being treated with loop diuretics A serum potassium level greater than 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L)indicates hyperkalemia, and the nurse would report the finding to the health care provider. Adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) is a cause of hyperkalemia. Other common causes of hyperkalemia include tissue damage, such as that in burn injuries, renal failure, and the use of potassium-sparing diuretics. The client with diarrhea or wound drainage or the client being treated with diuretics is at risk for hypokalemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they all indicate that the client is experiencing body fluid losses and therefore a loss of potassium. If you had difficulty with this question, review the risk factors associated with hyperkalemia.Reference: Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 296, 1211). St. Louis: Mosby. A serum potassium level greater than 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L)indicates hyperkalemia, and the nurse would report the finding to the health care provider. Adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) is a cause of hyperkalemia. Other common causes of hyperkalemia include tissue damage, such as that in burn injuries, renal failure, and the use of potassium-sparing diuretics. The client with diarrhea or wound drainage or the client being treated with diuretics is at risk for hypokalemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they all indicate that the client is experiencing body fluid losses and therefore a loss of potassium. If you had difficulty with this question, review the risk factors associated with hyperkalemia.Reference: Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 296, 1211). St. Louis: Mosby. 43 / 100 A healthcare provider writes a prescription for the administration of intravenous (IV) potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia. What does the nurse plan to do when preparing and administering this medication? A. Insert a Foley catheter in the client B. Prepare the client for insertion of a central IV line C. Administer the medication with the use of a macrodrip IV tubing set D. Ensure that the medication is diluted in an appropriate amount of normal saline solution Potassium chloride administered IV must always be diluted in IV fluid. Undiluted potassium chloride given IV can cause cardiac arrest. The intramuscular and subcutaneous routes of administration are not recommended because the medication cannot be adequately diluted for these routes; toxicity could result if the medication is not adequately diluted. Potassium chloride is never administered as a bolus (IV push) injection; an IV push would result in sudden severe hyperkalemia, which could precipitate cardiac arrest. Saline dilution is recommended, but dextrose is avoided because it increases intracellular potassium shifting. Although urine output is monitored carefully during administration, it is not necessary to insert a Foley catheter unless this is specifically prescribed. The health care provider is notified if the urinary output is less than 30 mL/hr. Potassium chloride should be administered with the use of a controlled IV infusion device to avoid bolus infusion and increased risk of cardiac arrest. A central IV line is not necessary; potassium chloride may be administered through a peripheral IV line.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “intravenous potassium chloride.” Recalling that the medication must be diluted will direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review the guidelines for the administration of potassium chloride. References: Gahart, B., & Nazareno, A. (2015). 2015 Intravenous medications (31st ed., pp. 1009-1010). St. Louis: Mosby. Potassium chloride administered IV must always be diluted in IV fluid. Undiluted potassium chloride given IV can cause cardiac arrest. The intramuscular and subcutaneous routes of administration are not recommended because the medication cannot be adequately diluted for these routes; toxicity could result if the medication is not adequately diluted. Potassium chloride is never administered as a bolus (IV push) injection; an IV push would result in sudden severe hyperkalemia, which could precipitate cardiac arrest. Saline dilution is recommended, but dextrose is avoided because it increases intracellular potassium shifting. Although urine output is monitored carefully during administration, it is not necessary to insert a Foley catheter unless this is specifically prescribed. The health care provider is notified if the urinary output is less than 30 mL/hr. Potassium chloride should be administered with the use of a controlled IV infusion device to avoid bolus infusion and increased risk of cardiac arrest. A central IV line is not necessary; potassium chloride may be administered through a peripheral IV line.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “intravenous potassium chloride.” Recalling that the medication must be diluted will direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review the guidelines for the administration of potassium chloride. References: Gahart, B., & Nazareno, A. (2015). 2015 Intravenous medications (31st ed., pp. 1009-1010). St. Louis: Mosby. 44 / 100 A nurse notes that a client has ST-segment depression on the electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor. With which serum potassium reading does the nurse associate this finding? A. 3.1 mEq/L (3.1 mmol/L) B. 4.2 mEq/L (4.2 mmol/L) C. 4.5 mEq/L (4.5 mmol/L) D. 5.4 mEq/L (5.4 mmol/L) A serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/L(3.5 mmol/L) is indicative of hypokalemia, the most common electrolyte imbalance, which is potentially life threatening. ECG changes in hypokalemia include peaked P waves, flat T waves, a depressed ST segment, and prominent U waves. Readings of 4.5 mEq/L (4.5 mmol/L)and 4.2 mEq/L (4.2 mmol/L)are normal potassium levels; 5.4 mEq/L (5.4 mmol/L)indicates hyperkalemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Begin to answer this question by recalling the normal range of values for serum potassium. Next it is necessary to know that ST-segment depression occurs in hypokalemia. If you had difficulty with this question, review the ECG changes that occur in hypokalemia.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 296, 791). St. Louis: Mosby. A serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/L(3.5 mmol/L) is indicative of hypokalemia, the most common electrolyte imbalance, which is potentially life threatening. ECG changes in hypokalemia include peaked P waves, flat T waves, a depressed ST segment, and prominent U waves. Readings of 4.5 mEq/L (4.5 mmol/L)and 4.2 mEq/L (4.2 mmol/L)are normal potassium levels; 5.4 mEq/L (5.4 mmol/L)indicates hyperkalemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Begin to answer this question by recalling the normal range of values for serum potassium. Next it is necessary to know that ST-segment depression occurs in hypokalemia. If you had difficulty with this question, review the ECG changes that occur in hypokalemia.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 296, 791). St. Louis: Mosby. 45 / 100 A nurse is caring for a client who is being treated for congestive heart failure and has been assigned a nursing diagnosis of excessive fluid volume. Which assessment finding causes the nurse to determine that the client’s condition has improved? A. Dyspnea B. 1+ edema in the legs C. Moist crackles in the lower lobes of the lungs D. Weight loss of 4 lb (1.8 kg) in 24 hours One sign that excessive fluid volume is resolving is loss of body weight. It is important to recall that 1 L of fluid weighs 1 kg, which equals 2.2 lb (1 liter = 2.2 lb = 1 kg). The other options listed indicate that the client is retaining fluid. Assessment findings associated with excessive fluid volume include cough, dyspnea, rales or crackles, tachypnea, tachycardia, increased blood pressure and bounding pulse, increased central venous pressure, weight gain, edema, neck and hand vein distention, altered level of consciousness, and decreased hematocrit. These symptoms must be reversed if the fluid-volume excess is to be resolved.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, a sign that the client’s condition is improving. The only such finding is decreasing body weight. If you had difficulty with this question, review the assessment findings noted in excessive fluid volume and the signs that the condition is resolving. One sign that excessive fluid volume is resolving is loss of body weight. It is important to recall that 1 L of fluid weighs 1 kg, which equals 2.2 lb (1 liter = 2.2 lb = 1 kg). The other options listed indicate that the client is retaining fluid. Assessment findings associated with excessive fluid volume include cough, dyspnea, rales or crackles, tachypnea, tachycardia, increased blood pressure and bounding pulse, increased central venous pressure, weight gain, edema, neck and hand vein distention, altered level of consciousness, and decreased hematocrit. These symptoms must be reversed if the fluid-volume excess is to be resolved.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, a sign that the client’s condition is improving. The only such finding is decreasing body weight. If you had difficulty with this question, review the assessment findings noted in excessive fluid volume and the signs that the condition is resolving. 46 / 100 A nurse is reviewing the medical records of the clients to whom she is assigned on the 7 am–7 pm shift. Which client will the nurse monitor most closely for excessive fluid volume? A. A 48-year-old client receiving diuretics to treat hypertension B. A 35-year old client who is vomiting undigested food after eating C. An 85-year-old client receiving intravenous (IV) therapy at a rate of 100 mL/hr D. A 65-year-old client with a nasogastric tube attached to low suction following partial gastrectomy The older adult client receiving IV therapy at 100 mL/hr is at the greatest risk for excessive fluid volume because of the diminished cardiovascular and renal function that occur with aging. Other causes of excessive fluid volume include renal failure, heart failure, liver disorders, excessive use of hypotonic IV fluids to replace isotonic losses, excessive irrigation of body fluids, and excessive ingestion of table salt. A client who is receiving diuretics, vomiting, or has a nasogastric tube attached to suction is at risk for deficient fluid volume.Test-Taking Strategy: Read the question carefully, noting that it asks for the client at risk for excessive fluid volume. Read each option and think about the fluid imbalance that could occur in each situation; in the case of the incorrect options, it is fluid-volume deficiency; the only option reflecting conditions that could result in an excess is the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review the causes of excessive fluid volume. The older adult client receiving IV therapy at 100 mL/hr is at the greatest risk for excessive fluid volume because of the diminished cardiovascular and renal function that occur with aging. Other causes of excessive fluid volume include renal failure, heart failure, liver disorders, excessive use of hypotonic IV fluids to replace isotonic losses, excessive irrigation of body fluids, and excessive ingestion of table salt. A client who is receiving diuretics, vomiting, or has a nasogastric tube attached to suction is at risk for deficient fluid volume.Test-Taking Strategy: Read the question carefully, noting that it asks for the client at risk for excessive fluid volume. Read each option and think about the fluid imbalance that could occur in each situation; in the case of the incorrect options, it is fluid-volume deficiency; the only option reflecting conditions that could result in an excess is the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review the causes of excessive fluid volume. 47 / 100 A client with gastroenteritis who has been vomiting and has diarrhea is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of dehydration. For which clinical manifestations that correlate with this fluid imbalance would the nurse assess the client? Select all that apply. A. Decreased pulse B. Decreased urine output C. Increased blood pressure D. Increased respiratory rate E. Decreased respiratory depth A client with dehydration has an increased depth and rate of respirations. The diminished fluid volume is perceived by the body as a decreased oxygen level (hypoxia), and increased respiration is an attempt to maintain oxygen delivery. Other assessment findings in insufficient fluid volume are decreased urine volume, increased pulse, weight loss, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, concentrated urine with increased specific gravity, increased hematocrit, and altered level of consciousness. Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse, and increased urine output occur with fluid-volume overload.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, dehydration (deficient fluid volume). Think about the pathophysiology of deficient fluid volume. Remember that the body will increase the respiratory rate in an attempt to maintain the oxygen level. If you had difficulty with this question, review the signs of insufficient fluid volume. A client with dehydration has an increased depth and rate of respirations. The diminished fluid volume is perceived by the body as a decreased oxygen level (hypoxia), and increased respiration is an attempt to maintain oxygen delivery. Other assessment findings in insufficient fluid volume are decreased urine volume, increased pulse, weight loss, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, concentrated urine with increased specific gravity, increased hematocrit, and altered level of consciousness. Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse, and increased urine output occur with fluid-volume overload.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, dehydration (deficient fluid volume). Think about the pathophysiology of deficient fluid volume. Remember that the body will increase the respiratory rate in an attempt to maintain the oxygen level. If you had difficulty with this question, review the signs of insufficient fluid volume. 48 / 100 A nurse is assigned to care for four clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse see first on the shift assessment? A. A client admitted with pneumonia with a fever of 100° F (37.8°C) and some diaphoresis B. A client with congestive heart failure with clear lung sounds on the previous shift C. A client with new-onset of shortness of breath (SOB) and a history of pulmonary edema D. A client undergoing long-term corticosteroid therapy with mild bruising on the anterior surfaces of the arms The client who should be seen first is the one with SOB and a history of pulmonary edema. In light of such a history, SOB could indicate that fluid-volume overload has once again developed. The client with a fever and who is diaphoretic is at risk for insufficient fluid volume as a result of loss of fluid through the skin, but this client is not the priority.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject of the question, the client who should be seen first. Recall the rule of assessment of the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — which means that the client experiencing SOB should take precedence over the other clients on the unit. This client’s condition could progress to respiratory arrest if the client were not assessed immediately on the basis of the signs and symptoms. Read each option and think about the client in most critical condition and review the disorders to determine which clients have the most critical needs. If you had difficulty with this question, review the various disease processes presented in this question. The client who should be seen first is the one with SOB and a history of pulmonary edema. In light of such a history, SOB could indicate that fluid-volume overload has once again developed. The client with a fever and who is diaphoretic is at risk for insufficient fluid volume as a result of loss of fluid through the skin, but this client is not the priority.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject of the question, the client who should be seen first. Recall the rule of assessment of the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — which means that the client experiencing SOB should take precedence over the other clients on the unit. This client’s condition could progress to respiratory arrest if the client were not assessed immediately on the basis of the signs and symptoms. Read each option and think about the client in most critical condition and review the disorders to determine which clients have the most critical needs. If you had difficulty with this question, review the various disease processes presented in this question. 49 / 100 A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone pulmonary angiography with catheter insertion through the right femoral vein. The nurse assesses for allergic reaction to the contrast medium by monitoring for the presence of which? A. Bradycardia B. Respiratory distress C. Hematoma in the right groin D. Discomfort in the right groin Signs of an allergic reaction to contrast dye include early signs, such as localized itching and edema, followed by more severe symptoms, such as respiratory distress, stridor, and decreased blood pressure. Discomfort in the catheter insertion area is to be expected and is not a sign of allergic reaction. Hematoma formation, which is abnormal and indicates bleeding, should be reported to the health care provider. Bradycardia is unrelated to the situation set forth in the question.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, signs of an allergic reaction to contrast medium. Eliminate bradycardia first because it is an unrelated event. Eliminate discomfort next, because it is expected after this procedure. Choose between the remaining options by focusing on the subject, an allergic reaction. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the signs of an allergic reaction. Signs of an allergic reaction to contrast dye include early signs, such as localized itching and edema, followed by more severe symptoms, such as respiratory distress, stridor, and decreased blood pressure. Discomfort in the catheter insertion area is to be expected and is not a sign of allergic reaction. Hematoma formation, which is abnormal and indicates bleeding, should be reported to the health care provider. Bradycardia is unrelated to the situation set forth in the question.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, signs of an allergic reaction to contrast medium. Eliminate bradycardia first because it is an unrelated event. Eliminate discomfort next, because it is expected after this procedure. Choose between the remaining options by focusing on the subject, an allergic reaction. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the signs of an allergic reaction. 50 / 100 A client who has just undergone bronchoscopy was returned to the nursing unit 1 hour ago. With which assessment finding is the nurse most concerned? A. Oxygen saturation of 97% B. Equal breath sounds in both lungs C. Absence of cough and gag reflexes D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min The absence of cough and gag reflexes is of greatest concern to the nurse because it indicates that the client does not have protective airway reflexes and is at risk of aspiration. Bilaterally equal breath sounds are a normal finding indicating an absence of complications such as hemothorax or pneumothorax. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation of 97% are normal measurements.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, most, which indicate the need to select the option that is cause for concern. Eliminate the normal assessment findings. Review care of the client after bronchoscopy. The absence of cough and gag reflexes is of greatest concern to the nurse because it indicates that the client does not have protective airway reflexes and is at risk of aspiration. Bilaterally equal breath sounds are a normal finding indicating an absence of complications such as hemothorax or pneumothorax. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation of 97% are normal measurements.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, most, which indicate the need to select the option that is cause for concern. Eliminate the normal assessment findings. Review care of the client after bronchoscopy. 51 / 100 A client has just undergone insertion of a chest tube that is attached to a closed chest drainage system. Which action should the nurse plan to take in the care of this client? A. Assessing the client’s chest for crepitus once every 24 hours B. Taping the connections between the chest tube and the drainage system C. Adding 20 mL of sterile water to the suction control chamber every shift D. Recording the volume of secretions in the drainage collection chamber every 24 hours The nurse tapes all system connections to prevent accidental disconnection. Drainage is noted and recorded every hour during the first 24 hours after insertion and every 8 hours thereafter. Assessment for crepitus is performed once every 8 hours or more often if needed. Sterile water is only added to the suction control chamber as needed to replace evaporative loss.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, planning care for a client with a chest tube drainage system. Begin to answer this question by eliminating the options that call for a particular assessment or action every 24 hours, which is much too infrequent for the client who has just had a chest tube inserted. To select from the remaining options, recall that sterile water is only added to the suction control chamber as needed; this will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a chest tube. The nurse tapes all system connections to prevent accidental disconnection. Drainage is noted and recorded every hour during the first 24 hours after insertion and every 8 hours thereafter. Assessment for crepitus is performed once every 8 hours or more often if needed. Sterile water is only added to the suction control chamber as needed to replace evaporative loss.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, planning care for a client with a chest tube drainage system. Begin to answer this question by eliminating the options that call for a particular assessment or action every 24 hours, which is much too infrequent for the client who has just had a chest tube inserted. To select from the remaining options, recall that sterile water is only added to the suction control chamber as needed; this will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a chest tube. 52 / 100 A nurse is reading the radiology report of a client with a chest tube attached to a closed drainage system who has undergone a chest x-ray. The report states that the client’s affected lung is fully reexpanded. The nurse anticipates that the assessment of the chest tube system will reveal which finding? A. No fluctuation in the water seal chamber B. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber C. Increased drainage in the collection chamber D. Continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber When the client’s lung is fully reexpanded, the drainage system will no longer drain and fluctuation in the water seal chamber will be absent. This is because the lung has reexpanded and the pleural space is again a potential space. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system. Continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber means that suction is being applied to the system.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, chect tube drainage findings associated with a fully expanded lung. To answer this question correctly, you must recall the principles involved in a correctly functioning closed chest tube drainage system. Remember that when the lung has reexpanded, the system no longer functions. Also note the words “no fluctuation” in the correct option. Review assessment of a client with a chest tube. When the client’s lung is fully reexpanded, the drainage system will no longer drain and fluctuation in the water seal chamber will be absent. This is because the lung has reexpanded and the pleural space is again a potential space. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system. Continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber means that suction is being applied to the system.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, chect tube drainage findings associated with a fully expanded lung. To answer this question correctly, you must recall the principles involved in a correctly functioning closed chest tube drainage system. Remember that when the lung has reexpanded, the system no longer functions. Also note the words “no fluctuation” in the correct option. Review assessment of a client with a chest tube. 53 / 100 A nurse is monitoring the respiratory status of a client who has just undergone surgery and is wearing a pulse oximeter. Which coexisting problem is cause for the nurse to suspect that the oxygen saturation readings are not entirely accurate? A. Infection B. Hypertension C. Low blood pressure D. Loss of cough reflex Hypotension, shock, and the use of peripheral vasoconstricting medications may each result in inaccurate pulse oximetry readings because of the impairment of peripheral perfusion. The other options listed would not produce inaccurate readings.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, factors that affect pulse oximetry readings. Recall that pulse oximetry is a means of measuring oxygen saturation in blood flowing through the blood vessels in the periphery of the body. Any factor that impairs blood flow in this area may produce inaccurate measurement. With this concept in mind, you should be able to eliminate each of the incorrect options. Review the factors that affect a pulse oximetry reading. Hypotension, shock, and the use of peripheral vasoconstricting medications may each result in inaccurate pulse oximetry readings because of the impairment of peripheral perfusion. The other options listed would not produce inaccurate readings.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, factors that affect pulse oximetry readings. Recall that pulse oximetry is a means of measuring oxygen saturation in blood flowing through the blood vessels in the periphery of the body. Any factor that impairs blood flow in this area may produce inaccurate measurement. With this concept in mind, you should be able to eliminate each of the incorrect options. Review the factors that affect a pulse oximetry reading. 54 / 100 A nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning on a client. Which observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply. A. The client becomes cyanotic. B. Secretions are becoming bloody C. The client gags during the procedure. D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed. E. The heart rate varies from 80 to 82 beats/min. The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects of suctioning, which include cyanosis, an excessively rapid or slow heart rate, and the sudden appearance of bloody secretions. If any of these findings is noted, the nurse stops suctioning and contacts the health care provider immediately. The descriptions in the other options are expected findings and not a reason for concern.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the findings that should be cause for concern to the nurse. This indicates that you are being asked to select the options that constitute abnormal or unexpected findings during suctioning of a client. Gagging is expected, so eliminate this option. Next eliminate clear to opaque secretions and heart rate ranging from 80 to 82 beats/min, because these are normal findings. Review the procedure for suctioning a client and the expected findings. The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects of suctioning, which include cyanosis, an excessively rapid or slow heart rate, and the sudden appearance of bloody secretions. If any of these findings is noted, the nurse stops suctioning and contacts the health care provider immediately. The descriptions in the other options are expected findings and not a reason for concern.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the findings that should be cause for concern to the nurse. This indicates that you are being asked to select the options that constitute abnormal or unexpected findings during suctioning of a client. Gagging is expected, so eliminate this option. Next eliminate clear to opaque secretions and heart rate ranging from 80 to 82 beats/min, because these are normal findings. Review the procedure for suctioning a client and the expected findings. 55 / 100 A client has a chest drainage system in place. The fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration. The nurse interprets this finding as an indication of which? A. The tube is patent B. There is probably a kink in the tubing C. Suction should be added to the system D. The client is retaining airway secretions With normal breathing and a patent chest tube, the fluid level in the water seal chamber rises with inspiration and falls with expiration. The system should not be affected by airway secretions, because the chest tube drains fluid (not airway secretions) from the pleural space. The other options are incorrect interpretations.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, expected findings with a correctly functioning chest tube drainage system. Think about the purpose and physiological functioning of a chest tube system. Recalling that a fluctuating fluid level in the water seal chamber is expected will help you identify the correct option. Review care of the client with a chest tube drainage system. With normal breathing and a patent chest tube, the fluid level in the water seal chamber rises with inspiration and falls with expiration. The system should not be affected by airway secretions, because the chest tube drains fluid (not airway secretions) from the pleural space. The other options are incorrect interpretations.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, expected findings with a correctly functioning chest tube drainage system. Think about the purpose and physiological functioning of a chest tube system. Recalling that a fluctuating fluid level in the water seal chamber is expected will help you identify the correct option. Review care of the client with a chest tube drainage system. 56 / 100 A client who experienced the sudden onset of respiratory distress has been intubated with an endotracheal tube. After the tube is placed in the trachea, the nurse should take which immediate action? A. Tape the tube in place B. Send the client for a chest x-ray C. Note how far the tube has been inserted D. Auscultate both lungs for the presence of breath sounds Immediately after an endotracheal tube is inserted, tube placement is verified. Initially the lungs are assessed for bilateral breath sounds and the chest is observed to see whether it rises and falls symmetrically with ventilation. After it has been determined that the client is being adequately ventilated, the tube is taped in place and placement is verified by means of chest x-ray. The depth of tube insertion is documented.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediate” in the query of the question. Recalling the sequence of events after endotracheal intubation will direct you to the correct option. Also, use your knowledge of the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to identify the correct option. Review the procedures involved in intubation. Immediately after an endotracheal tube is inserted, tube placement is verified. Initially the lungs are assessed for bilateral breath sounds and the chest is observed to see whether it rises and falls symmetrically with ventilation. After it has been determined that the client is being adequately ventilated, the tube is taped in place and placement is verified by means of chest x-ray. The depth of tube insertion is documented.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediate” in the query of the question. Recalling the sequence of events after endotracheal intubation will direct you to the correct option. Also, use your knowledge of the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to identify the correct option. Review the procedures involved in intubation. 57 / 100 Oxygen by way of nasal cannula has been prescribed for a client with emphysema. The nurse checks the health care provider’s prescriptions to ensure that the prescribed flow is not greater than which liter (L) per minute (min)? A. 1 L/min B. 3 L/min C. 4 L/min D. 6 L/min Because the client with emphysema has long-standing hypercapnia, the respiratory drive is triggered by a low oxygen level rather than by a high carbon dioxide level. Too much oxygen in this client could cause respiratory failure. The client with emphysema usually receives oxygen at a flow rate of 1 to 2 (and no more than 3) L/min.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the safe oxygen liter flow for a client with emphysema. Recalling the physiology of emphysema and remembering that the client with emphysema has long-standing hypercapnia will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with emphysema. Because the client with emphysema has long-standing hypercapnia, the respiratory drive is triggered by a low oxygen level rather than by a high carbon dioxide level. Too much oxygen in this client could cause respiratory failure. The client with emphysema usually receives oxygen at a flow rate of 1 to 2 (and no more than 3) L/min.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the safe oxygen liter flow for a client with emphysema. Recalling the physiology of emphysema and remembering that the client with emphysema has long-standing hypercapnia will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with emphysema. 58 / 100 A nurse is watching as a nursing student suctions a client through a tracheostomy tube. Which actions on the part of the student would prompt the nurse to intervene and demonstrate correct procedure? Select all that apply. A. Setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg B. Applying suction throughout the procedure C. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning D. Placing the client in a supine position before the procedure E. Hyperoxygenating the client with 100% oxygen before suctioning The client with a tracheostomy tube should be positioned with the head of the bed elevated. Correct suction pressure for the adult client is 80 to 120 mm Hg. Suction is applied intermittently during catheter withdrawal. Breath sounds should be assessed before the procedure to help determine the need for suctioning. The client should be hyperoxygenated with 100% oxygen before suctioning.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, incorrect suctioning procedure. Noting the words “to intervene,” which should tell you that the correct answer is an incorrect nursing action. Visualizing the procedure and recalling the principles of suctioning will direct you to the correct options. Review the procedure for suctioning. The client with a tracheostomy tube should be positioned with the head of the bed elevated. Correct suction pressure for the adult client is 80 to 120 mm Hg. Suction is applied intermittently during catheter withdrawal. Breath sounds should be assessed before the procedure to help determine the need for suctioning. The client should be hyperoxygenated with 100% oxygen before suctioning.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, incorrect suctioning procedure. Noting the words “to intervene,” which should tell you that the correct answer is an incorrect nursing action. Visualizing the procedure and recalling the principles of suctioning will direct you to the correct options. Review the procedure for suctioning. 59 / 100 A nurse is watching as an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) measure the blood pressure (BP) of a hypertensive client. Which actions on the part of the UAP would interfere with accurate measurement and prompt the nurse to intervene? Select all that apply. A. Measuring the BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes B. Having the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level C. Used a cuff with a rubber bladder that encircles at least 60% of the limb D. Measuring the BP after the client reports that he just drank a cup (236 ml) of coffee. E. Allowing the client to talk as the blood pressure is being measured The client should not smoke tobacco or drink a beverage containing caffeine for at least 30 minutes before having the BP measured. The bladder of the cuff should encircle at least 80% of the limb being measured. The client should be seated with the arm bared, positioned with support and at heart level. The client should sit with the legs on the floor, feet uncrossed, and not speak during the recording. The client should rest quietly for 5 minutes before the reading is taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, actions that would interfere with accurate BP measurement. Visualizing this procedure and reading each option carefully will assist you in eliminating the incorrect options. Review the principles related to blood pressure measurement. The client should not smoke tobacco or drink a beverage containing caffeine for at least 30 minutes before having the BP measured. The bladder of the cuff should encircle at least 80% of the limb being measured. The client should be seated with the arm bared, positioned with support and at heart level. The client should sit with the legs on the floor, feet uncrossed, and not speak during the recording. The client should rest quietly for 5 minutes before the reading is taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, actions that would interfere with accurate BP measurement. Visualizing this procedure and reading each option carefully will assist you in eliminating the incorrect options. Review the principles related to blood pressure measurement. 60 / 100 A client has undergone pericardiocentesis to treat cardiac tamponade. For which signs should the nurse assess the client to determine whether the tamponade is recurring? A. Decreasing pulse B. Rising blood pressure C. Distant muffled heart sounds D. Falling central venous pressure (CVP) After effective pericardiocentesis, an increase in blood pressure and a decrease in CVP are expected. The pulse may slow because less cardiac work is needed to produce adequate cardiac output. Distant muffled heart sounds that were noted before the test should become clear with effective pericardiocentesis. A return of distant muffled heart sounds indicates returning pericardial effusion and possible tamponade.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, recurring cardiac tamponade. This tells you that the correct option is a symptom of the original problem, cardiac tamponade. Recalling the signs of cardiac tamponade will direct you to the correct option. Review these signs of cardiac tamponade. After effective pericardiocentesis, an increase in blood pressure and a decrease in CVP are expected. The pulse may slow because less cardiac work is needed to produce adequate cardiac output. Distant muffled heart sounds that were noted before the test should become clear with effective pericardiocentesis. A return of distant muffled heart sounds indicates returning pericardial effusion and possible tamponade.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, recurring cardiac tamponade. This tells you that the correct option is a symptom of the original problem, cardiac tamponade. Recalling the signs of cardiac tamponade will direct you to the correct option. Review these signs of cardiac tamponade. 61 / 100 A nurse has a prescription to apply a Holter monitor to a client for continuous cardiac monitoring for a 24-hour period. What steps should the nurse take to initiate this prescription? Select all that apply A. Giving the client a device holder to wear around the waist B. Giving the client a diary in which to record activity and symptoms C. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours D. Instructing the client to enclose the monitor in plastic wrap before taking a bath E. Telling the client that occasional slight shocks from the monitor will be felt but that they are harmless The nurse applies electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring leads to the chest in the usual fashion and gives the client a sling or holder to carry the transistor radio–sized monitor (walkie-talkie), which is worn around the chest or waist. Clients undergoing Holter monitoring are instructed to maintain a normal schedule and to keep a diary of all activity and symptoms. The client is told to avoid activities — such as operating heavy machinery, electric shavers, or hairdryers; bathing; or showering — that could interfere with the ECG recording. The client does not feel any shocks from the device.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, procedure for a Holter monitor. Taking a bath while attached to a Holter monitor is contraindicated and slight shocks do not occur, so these options are eliminated first. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours is eliminated because it could prevent the client from experiencing dysrhythmias that the monitor is supposed to detect. Review the procedure for Holter monitoring. The nurse applies electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring leads to the chest in the usual fashion and gives the client a sling or holder to carry the transistor radio–sized monitor (walkie-talkie), which is worn around the chest or waist. Clients undergoing Holter monitoring are instructed to maintain a normal schedule and to keep a diary of all activity and symptoms. The client is told to avoid activities — such as operating heavy machinery, electric shavers, or hairdryers; bathing; or showering — that could interfere with the ECG recording. The client does not feel any shocks from the device.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, procedure for a Holter monitor. Taking a bath while attached to a Holter monitor is contraindicated and slight shocks do not occur, so these options are eliminated first. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours is eliminated because it could prevent the client from experiencing dysrhythmias that the monitor is supposed to detect. Review the procedure for Holter monitoring. 62 / 100 A nurse has a prescription to apply a Holter monitor to a client for continuous cardiac monitoring for a 24-hour period. What steps should the nurse take to initiate this prescription? Select all that apply A. Giving the client a device holder to wear around the waist B. Giving the client a diary in which to record activity and symptoms C. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours D. Instructing the client to enclose the monitor in plastic wrap before taking a bath E. Telling the client that occasional slight shocks from the monitor will be felt but that they are harmless The nurse applies electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring leads to the chest in the usual fashion and gives the client a sling or holder to carry the transistor radio–sized monitor (walkie-talkie), which is worn around the chest or waist. Clients undergoing Holter monitoring are instructed to maintain a normal schedule and to keep a diary of all activity and symptoms. The client is told to avoid activities — such as operating heavy machinery, electric shavers, or hairdryers; bathing; or showering — that could interfere with the ECG recording. The client does not feel any shocks from the device.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, procedure for a Holter monitor. Taking a bath while attached to a Holter monitor is contraindicated and slight shocks do not occur, so these options are eliminated first. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours is eliminated because it could prevent the client from experiencing dysrhythmias that the monitor is supposed to detect. Review the procedure for Holter monitoring. The nurse applies electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring leads to the chest in the usual fashion and gives the client a sling or holder to carry the transistor radio–sized monitor (walkie-talkie), which is worn around the chest or waist. Clients undergoing Holter monitoring are instructed to maintain a normal schedule and to keep a diary of all activity and symptoms. The client is told to avoid activities — such as operating heavy machinery, electric shavers, or hairdryers; bathing; or showering — that could interfere with the ECG recording. The client does not feel any shocks from the device.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, procedure for a Holter monitor. Taking a bath while attached to a Holter monitor is contraindicated and slight shocks do not occur, so these options are eliminated first. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours is eliminated because it could prevent the client from experiencing dysrhythmias that the monitor is supposed to detect. Review the procedure for Holter monitoring. 63 / 100 A nurse in a health care provider’s office has just made an appointment for a client to undergo an exercise stress test. The nurse, in providing pre-procedure teaching, should provide which information to the client? A. Wear sweatpants and a heavy sweatshirt B. Eat a small meal just before the procedure C. Wear comfortable rubber-soled shoes such as sneakers D. Avoid consuming caffeine for 30 minutes before the procedure The client should wear comfortable rubber-soled, such as sneakers, for the procedure. The client wears light, loose, comfortable clothing; a shirt that buttons in front is helpful for electrocardiogram (ECG) lead placement. The client should be NPO after bedtime, or for a minimum of 2 hours before the test, and should avoid tobacco, alcohol, and caffeine on the day of the test.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client teaching for an exercise stress test. Eliminate options that could interfere with test results, such as digestion, alcohol, caffeine, smoking, and restrictive or uncomfortable clothing. This will direct you to the correct option. Review client teaching for exercise stress testing. The client should wear comfortable rubber-soled, such as sneakers, for the procedure. The client wears light, loose, comfortable clothing; a shirt that buttons in front is helpful for electrocardiogram (ECG) lead placement. The client should be NPO after bedtime, or for a minimum of 2 hours before the test, and should avoid tobacco, alcohol, and caffeine on the day of the test.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client teaching for an exercise stress test. Eliminate options that could interfere with test results, such as digestion, alcohol, caffeine, smoking, and restrictive or uncomfortable clothing. This will direct you to the correct option. Review client teaching for exercise stress testing. 64 / 100 A client who has sustained a myocardial infarction is scheduled to have an echocardiogram. Which measure should the nurse take before the procedure? A. Imposing nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status for 4 hours B. Asking the client to sign an informed consent form C. Asking the client about a history of allergy to iodine or shellfish D. Telling the client that the procedure is painless and takes 30 to 60 minutes to complete In echocardiography, ultrasound is used to evaluate the heart’s structure and motion. It is a noninvasive, risk-free, pain-free test that involves no special preparation and is commonly performed at the bedside or on an outpatient basis. The client must lie quietly for 30 to 60 minutes while the procedure is being performed. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, preparing the client for an echocardiogram. Recalling that echocardiography involves the use of ultrasound and that ultrasound is noninvasive, safe, and painless should help you eliminate the incorrect options. Review echocardiogram. In echocardiography, ultrasound is used to evaluate the heart’s structure and motion. It is a noninvasive, risk-free, pain-free test that involves no special preparation and is commonly performed at the bedside or on an outpatient basis. The client must lie quietly for 30 to 60 minutes while the procedure is being performed. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, preparing the client for an echocardiogram. Recalling that echocardiography involves the use of ultrasound and that ultrasound is noninvasive, safe, and painless should help you eliminate the incorrect options. Review echocardiogram. 65 / 100 A nurse provides information to a client who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization to rule out coronary occlusion. The nurse should provide which information to the client? A. The procedure is performed in the operating room B. It is necessary to lie quietly on a hard x-ray table for about 4 hours C. The room is bright and well lit, and it is best to keep the eyes closed D. The client may have feelings of warmth or flushing during the procedure The nurse tells the client about to undergo cardiac catheterization room that the procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department. A local anesthetic is used, so there is little or no pain with catheter insertion. The procedure may take as long as 2 hours, during which time the client may feel various sensations including a feeling of warmth or flushing, with catheter passage and dye injection. The x-ray table is hard and may be tilted periodically to obtain the best possible views.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the cardiac catheterization procedure. Recalling that this is a diagnostic procedure will help you eliminate the option in which the nurse tells the client that the procedure is performed in the operating room. The duration of the procedure (4 hours) identified in this incorrect option should cause you to eliminate it, and the use of the words “bright and well lit” indicate an incorrect option. Review the procedure for cardiac catheterization The nurse tells the client about to undergo cardiac catheterization room that the procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department. A local anesthetic is used, so there is little or no pain with catheter insertion. The procedure may take as long as 2 hours, during which time the client may feel various sensations including a feeling of warmth or flushing, with catheter passage and dye injection. The x-ray table is hard and may be tilted periodically to obtain the best possible views.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the cardiac catheterization procedure. Recalling that this is a diagnostic procedure will help you eliminate the option in which the nurse tells the client that the procedure is performed in the operating room. The duration of the procedure (4 hours) identified in this incorrect option should cause you to eliminate it, and the use of the words “bright and well lit” indicate an incorrect option. Review the procedure for cardiac catheterization 66 / 100 A nurse reviews a client’s urinalysis report. Which finding does the nurse recognize as abnormal? A. pH of 6.0 B. An absence of protein C. The presence of ketones D. Specific gravity of 1.018 The normal pH range of urine is 4.5 to 7.8, and normal specific gravity ranges from 1.016 to 1.022. The urine is typically screened for protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, casts, crystals, red blood cells, and white blood cells, none of which should be present.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, an abnormal finding in the urinalysis. The words “the presence of” should direct you to the correct option. Review normal urinalysis findings The normal pH range of urine is 4.5 to 7.8, and normal specific gravity ranges from 1.016 to 1.022. The urine is typically screened for protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, casts, crystals, red blood cells, and white blood cells, none of which should be present.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, an abnormal finding in the urinalysis. The words “the presence of” should direct you to the correct option. Review normal urinalysis findings 67 / 100 A client has undergone renal angiography by way of the right femoral artery. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing a complication of the procedure on noting which finding? A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min D. Pallor and coolness of the right leg Complications of renal angiography include allergic reaction to the dye, dye-induced renal damage, and a number of vascular complications, including hemorrhage, thrombosis, and embolism. The nurse detects these complications by monitoring the client for signs and symptoms of allergic reaction, decreased urine output, hematoma or hemorrhage at the insertion site, and signs of diminished circulation to the affected leg. The incorrect options are normal findings.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject “a complication of the procedure,” which should tell you that the correct option is an abnormal assessment finding. Eliminate the incorrect options, because they are normal findings. Pallor and coolness indicate thrombosis or hematoma and should be further assessed and reported. Review the signs of complications after renal angiography Complications of renal angiography include allergic reaction to the dye, dye-induced renal damage, and a number of vascular complications, including hemorrhage, thrombosis, and embolism. The nurse detects these complications by monitoring the client for signs and symptoms of allergic reaction, decreased urine output, hematoma or hemorrhage at the insertion site, and signs of diminished circulation to the affected leg. The incorrect options are normal findings.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject “a complication of the procedure,” which should tell you that the correct option is an abnormal assessment finding. Eliminate the incorrect options, because they are normal findings. Pallor and coolness indicate thrombosis or hematoma and should be further assessed and reported. Review the signs of complications after renal angiography 68 / 100 A client who has undergone renal biopsy complains of pain, radiating to the front of the abdomen, at the biopsy site. For which finding should the nurse assess the client? A. Bleeding B. Renal colic C. Infection at the site D. Increased temperature Bleeding should be suspected if pain originates at the biopsy site and begins to radiate to the flank area and around to the front of the abdomen. Hypotension, a decreasing hematocrit, and gross or microscopic hematuria are also indicators of bleeding. Signs of infection would not appear immediately after a biopsy. There is no information in the question to indicate the presence of renal colic.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options of increased temperature and infection at the site first because they are comparable or alike. To choose between the remaining options, recall that the information in the question is not indicative of renal colic. Review the complications associated with renal biopsy Bleeding should be suspected if pain originates at the biopsy site and begins to radiate to the flank area and around to the front of the abdomen. Hypotension, a decreasing hematocrit, and gross or microscopic hematuria are also indicators of bleeding. Signs of infection would not appear immediately after a biopsy. There is no information in the question to indicate the presence of renal colic.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options of increased temperature and infection at the site first because they are comparable or alike. To choose between the remaining options, recall that the information in the question is not indicative of renal colic. Review the complications associated with renal biopsy 69 / 100 A nurse is preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP). Which action by the nurse is most important? A. Administering a sedative B. Encouraging fluid intake C. Administering an oral preparation of radiopaque dye D. Questioning the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish Some IVP dyes are iodine based; if the dye to be used in this procedure is one of them and the client has an allergy to iodine or shellfish, he may experience an allergic reaction, manifested as itching, hives, rash, a tight feeling in the throat, shortness of breath, or bronchospasm. For this reason, assessing the client for allergies is the priority. The dye is injected intravenously. The client may or may not receive premedication. Nothing-by-mouth status is generally imposed after midnight on the day before the test.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, most important. Noting the word “intravenous” in the name of the test indicates that a dye will be injected. This will help direct you to the correct option. Review the priority assessments in preprocedure care for an IVP. Some IVP dyes are iodine based; if the dye to be used in this procedure is one of them and the client has an allergy to iodine or shellfish, he may experience an allergic reaction, manifested as itching, hives, rash, a tight feeling in the throat, shortness of breath, or bronchospasm. For this reason, assessing the client for allergies is the priority. The dye is injected intravenously. The client may or may not receive premedication. Nothing-by-mouth status is generally imposed after midnight on the day before the test.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, most important. Noting the word “intravenous” in the name of the test indicates that a dye will be injected. This will help direct you to the correct option. Review the priority assessments in preprocedure care for an IVP. 70 / 100 A nurse has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which measure should the nurse take during this procedure? A. Keeping the specimen at room temperature B. Saving the first urine specimen collected at the start time C. Discarding the last voided specimen at the end of the collection time D. Asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time Because the 24-hour urine collection is a timed quantitative determination, the test must be started with an empty bladder. Therefore the first urine is discarded. Fifteen minutes before the end of the collection time, the client should be asked to void, and this specimen is added to the collection. The collection should be refrigerated or placed on ice to help prevent changes in urine composition.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, collecting collecting a 24-hour urine specimen. Think about the purpose and procdure of collecting a specimen. Recalling that the 24-hour urine collection is a timed quantitative determination will assist you in identifying the correct option. Review the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen Because the 24-hour urine collection is a timed quantitative determination, the test must be started with an empty bladder. Therefore the first urine is discarded. Fifteen minutes before the end of the collection time, the client should be asked to void, and this specimen is added to the collection. The collection should be refrigerated or placed on ice to help prevent changes in urine composition.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, collecting collecting a 24-hour urine specimen. Think about the purpose and procdure of collecting a specimen. Recalling that the 24-hour urine collection is a timed quantitative determination will assist you in identifying the correct option. Review the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen 71 / 100 A client has just undergone a renal biopsy. Which intervention should the nurse include in the post-procedure plan of care? A. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours B. Periodically testing the urine for occult blood C. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics D. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances After renal biopsy, bed rest is maintained and the client’s vital signs and puncture site are assessed frequently. Urine is tested periodically for occult blood to detect bleeding as a complication. Fluids are encouraged to reduce the risk of clot formation at the biopsy site. Opioid analgesics are often needed to manage the renal colic pain that some clients feel after this procedure.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, postprocedure care following renal biopsy. Think about what a biopsy entails. Recalling that pain and bleeding are potential concerns after this procedure will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client after renal biopsy After renal biopsy, bed rest is maintained and the client’s vital signs and puncture site are assessed frequently. Urine is tested periodically for occult blood to detect bleeding as a complication. Fluids are encouraged to reduce the risk of clot formation at the biopsy site. Opioid analgesics are often needed to manage the renal colic pain that some clients feel after this procedure.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, postprocedure care following renal biopsy. Think about what a biopsy entails. Recalling that pain and bleeding are potential concerns after this procedure will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client after renal biopsy 72 / 100 A CD4+ lymphocyte count is performed on a client who is infected with HIV. The results of the test indicate a CD4+ count of 450 cells per cubic millimeter of blood. The nurse interprets this test result as indicating which? A. Improvement in the client B. The need for antiretroviral therapy C. The need to discontinue antiretroviral therapy D. An effective response to the treatment for HIV The normal CD4+ count is between 500 to 1,500 cells per cubic millimeter of blood.Antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4+ count is less than 500 cells per cubic millimeter of bloodor below 25%, or when the client shows symptoms of HIV. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the incorrect options because they are comparable or alike in that they indicate a positive response to treatment. Review the CD4+ count and the interpretation of its results. The normal CD4+ count is between 500 to 1,500 cells per cubic millimeter of blood.Antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4+ count is less than 500 cells per cubic millimeter of bloodor below 25%, or when the client shows symptoms of HIV. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the incorrect options because they are comparable or alike in that they indicate a positive response to treatment. Review the CD4+ count and the interpretation of its results. 73 / 100 A client is tested for HIV with the use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and the test result is positive. The nurse should provide which information to the client about the test? A. HIV infection has been confirmed B. The client probably has an opportunistic infection C. The test will need to be confirmed with the use of a Western blot D. A positive test is a normal result and does not mean that the client is infected with HIV The normal value for an ELISA test is negative. A positive ELISA test must be confirmed with the use of the Western Blot. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully and focus on the subject, that the test result is positive. Recalling that an ELISA test is an HIV antibody-screening test and that a positive result must be confirmed with the use of the Western blot will direct you to the correct option. Review interpretations of the results of an ELISA test The normal value for an ELISA test is negative. A positive ELISA test must be confirmed with the use of the Western Blot. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully and focus on the subject, that the test result is positive. Recalling that an ELISA test is an HIV antibody-screening test and that a positive result must be confirmed with the use of the Western blot will direct you to the correct option. Review interpretations of the results of an ELISA test 74 / 100 A nurse is providing post-procedure instructions to a client returning home after arthroscopy of the shoulder. The nurse should provide the client with which information? A. To resume full activity the next day B. Not to eat or drink anything until the next morning C. To keep the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day D. o report to the health care provider the development of fever or redness and heat at the site After arthroscopy, signs and symptoms of infection such as fever or redness and heat at the site should be reported to the health care provider. The client may resume the usual diet immediately. The arm does not have to be completely immobilized once sensation has returned, but the client is usually encouraged to refrain from strenuous activity for at least a few days.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client instructions after arthroscopy of the shoulder. Eliminate keeping the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day and resuming full activity the next day, because they represent extremes of activity variations. To select from the remaining options, remember that the client is always taught to report signs and symptoms of infection to the health care provider. Review client instructions after arthroscopy After arthroscopy, signs and symptoms of infection such as fever or redness and heat at the site should be reported to the health care provider. The client may resume the usual diet immediately. The arm does not have to be completely immobilized once sensation has returned, but the client is usually encouraged to refrain from strenuous activity for at least a few days.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client instructions after arthroscopy of the shoulder. Eliminate keeping the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day and resuming full activity the next day, because they represent extremes of activity variations. To select from the remaining options, remember that the client is always taught to report signs and symptoms of infection to the health care provider. Review client instructions after arthroscopy 75 / 100 A nurse is providing post-procedure instructions to a client returning home after arthroscopy of the shoulder. The nurse should provide the client with which information? A. To resume full activity the next day B. Not to eat or drink anything until the next morning C. To keep the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day D. o report to the health care provider the development of fever or redness and heat at the site After arthroscopy, signs and symptoms of infection such as fever or redness and heat at the site should be reported to the health care provider. The client may resume the usual diet immediately. The arm does not have to be completely immobilized once sensation has returned, but the client is usually encouraged to refrain from strenuous activity for at least a few days.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client instructions after arthroscopy of the shoulder. Eliminate keeping the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day and resuming full activity the next day, because they represent extremes of activity variations. To select from the remaining options, remember that the client is always taught to report signs and symptoms of infection to the health care provider. Review client instructions after arthroscopy After arthroscopy, signs and symptoms of infection such as fever or redness and heat at the site should be reported to the health care provider. The client may resume the usual diet immediately. The arm does not have to be completely immobilized once sensation has returned, but the client is usually encouraged to refrain from strenuous activity for at least a few days.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client instructions after arthroscopy of the shoulder. Eliminate keeping the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day and resuming full activity the next day, because they represent extremes of activity variations. To select from the remaining options, remember that the client is always taught to report signs and symptoms of infection to the health care provider. Review client instructions after arthroscopy 76 / 100 Blood is drawn from a male client with suspected uric acid calculi for a serum uric acid determination. Which value does the nurse recognize as a normal uric acid level? A. 1.7 mg/dL (101.2 μmol/L) B. 4.4 mg/dL (262 μmol/L) C C. 8.9 mg/dL (529.9 μmol/L) D. 12.8 mg/dL (762.1 μmol/L) The normal range for uric acid is 4.4 to 7.6 mg/dL (262 to 452 μmol/L)for males and 2.3 to 6.6 mg/dL (137 to 393 μmol/L)for females. Therefore the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the normal uric acid reference range for a male. To answer this question correctly, you must be familiar with the normal range of values for serum uric acid. Review the normal reference range for uric acid for males and females The normal range for uric acid is 4.4 to 7.6 mg/dL (262 to 452 μmol/L)for males and 2.3 to 6.6 mg/dL (137 to 393 μmol/L)for females. Therefore the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the normal uric acid reference range for a male. To answer this question correctly, you must be familiar with the normal range of values for serum uric acid. Review the normal reference range for uric acid for males and females 77 / 100 A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test? A. “I didn’t shampoo my hair.” B. “I ate breakfast this morning.” C. “I didn’t take my anticonvulsant today.” D. “It was hard not to drink coffee this morning, but I knew that I couldn’t, so I didn’t.” Preprocedure care for EEG involves client teaching about the procedure, ensuring that the client’s hair has been freshly shampooed, and providing a light meal and fluids to prevent hypoglycemia, which could alter brain waves. Medications such as antidepressants, tranquilizers, and anticonvulsants are withheld for 24 to 48 hours before the procedure as prescribed. Stimulants such as coffee, tea, cola, alcohol, and cigarettes are also withheld.Test-Taking Strategy: Use your knowledge of the EEG procedure to answer the question and note the strategic words “needs additional preparation.” These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling the purpose of an EEG and the anatomical location of this test will direct you to the correct option. Review preparation for an EEG Preprocedure care for EEG involves client teaching about the procedure, ensuring that the client’s hair has been freshly shampooed, and providing a light meal and fluids to prevent hypoglycemia, which could alter brain waves. Medications such as antidepressants, tranquilizers, and anticonvulsants are withheld for 24 to 48 hours before the procedure as prescribed. Stimulants such as coffee, tea, cola, alcohol, and cigarettes are also withheld.Test-Taking Strategy: Use your knowledge of the EEG procedure to answer the question and note the strategic words “needs additional preparation.” These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling the purpose of an EEG and the anatomical location of this test will direct you to the correct option. Review preparation for an EEG 78 / 100 A client has just returned to the nursing unit after computerized tomography (CT) with contrast medium. Which action should the nurse plan to take as part of routine after-care for this client? A. Administering a laxative B. Encouraging fluid intake C. Maintaining the client on strict bed rest D. Holding all medications for at least 2 hours After CT scanning, the client may resume all usual activities. The client should be encouraged to consume extra fluids to replace those lost during diuresis of the contrast dye. Medications do not have to be withheld. There is no reason to administer a laxative; also, a health care provider’s prescription is needed for this intervention.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, aftercare following CT scanning. Note the words “contrast medium” in the question. Recalling the importance of flushing the dye from the system after this procedure will direct you to the correct option. Review care after a CT scan After CT scanning, the client may resume all usual activities. The client should be encouraged to consume extra fluids to replace those lost during diuresis of the contrast dye. Medications do not have to be withheld. There is no reason to administer a laxative; also, a health care provider’s prescription is needed for this intervention.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, aftercare following CT scanning. Note the words “contrast medium” in the question. Recalling the importance of flushing the dye from the system after this procedure will direct you to the correct option. Review care after a CT scan 79 / 100 A client has just undergone lumbar puncture. Into which position does the nurse assist the client after the procedure? A. Flat B. Semi-Fowler C. Side-lying, with the head of the bed elevated D. Sitting up in a recliner with the feet elevated After lumbar puncture, the client must remain flat for as long as 12 hours to help prevent post-procedure spinal headache and leakage of cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they all involve elevation of the client’s head. Review care of the client after lumbar puncture After lumbar puncture, the client must remain flat for as long as 12 hours to help prevent post-procedure spinal headache and leakage of cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they all involve elevation of the client’s head. Review care of the client after lumbar puncture 80 / 100 A client has been scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). For which condition, a contraindication to MRI, does the nurse check the client’s medical history? A. Pancreatitis B. Pacemaker insertion C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus D. Chronic The candidate for MRI must be free of metal devices or implants. A careful history is conducted to determine whether any such metal objects, such as orthopedic hardware, pacemakers, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, and intrauterine devices, are inside the client. These may heat up in the magnetic field generated by the MRI device, become dislodged, or malfunction during the procedure. The other medical problems listed do not pose a risk or contraindication for this procedure.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that each of the incorrect options are comparable or alike and are medical disorders. The correct option is the name of a procedure in which a device is implanted into the client. Remember that it is crucial to ensure that there are no metal objects in the vicinity of the MRI machine. Review contraindications to MRI The candidate for MRI must be free of metal devices or implants. A careful history is conducted to determine whether any such metal objects, such as orthopedic hardware, pacemakers, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, and intrauterine devices, are inside the client. These may heat up in the magnetic field generated by the MRI device, become dislodged, or malfunction during the procedure. The other medical problems listed do not pose a risk or contraindication for this procedure.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that each of the incorrect options are comparable or alike and are medical disorders. The correct option is the name of a procedure in which a device is implanted into the client. Remember that it is crucial to ensure that there are no metal objects in the vicinity of the MRI machine. Review contraindications to MRI 81 / 100 A client who underwent preadmission testing 1 week before surgery had blood drawn for several serum laboratory studies. Which abnormal laboratory results should the nurse report to the surgeon’s office? Select all that apply. A. Hematocrit 30% (0.30) B. Sodium 141 mEq/L (141 mmol/L) C. Hemoglobin 8.9 g/dL (89 g/L) D. Platelets 210× 103/μL (210 × 109/L) E. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (70 μmol/L) Routine screening tests include complete blood cell count, serum electrolyte analysis, coagulation studies, and serum creatinine tests. The complete blood cell count includes the hemoglobin and hematocrit analysis. All of these values are within their normal ranges except the hemoglobin and hematocrit. If a client has low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, the surgery may be postponed by the surgeon. The normal hemoglobin level for a male ranges from 13.2 to 17.3 g/dL (132-173 g/L) and for a female, 11.7 to 15.5 g/dL (117-155 g/L). The normal hematocrit for a male ranges from 39% to 50% ( 0.39-0.50) and for a female, 35% to 47% ( 0.35-0.47).Test-Taking Strategy: Note the word “abnormal” in the question and focus on the subject, laboratory results that could necessitate the postponement of surgery. Recalling the normal values for the laboratory studies identified in the options will direct you to the correct ones. Review these normal laboratory values Routine screening tests include complete blood cell count, serum electrolyte analysis, coagulation studies, and serum creatinine tests. The complete blood cell count includes the hemoglobin and hematocrit analysis. All of these values are within their normal ranges except the hemoglobin and hematocrit. If a client has low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, the surgery may be postponed by the surgeon. The normal hemoglobin level for a male ranges from 13.2 to 17.3 g/dL (132-173 g/L) and for a female, 11.7 to 15.5 g/dL (117-155 g/L). The normal hematocrit for a male ranges from 39% to 50% ( 0.39-0.50) and for a female, 35% to 47% ( 0.35-0.47).Test-Taking Strategy: Note the word “abnormal” in the question and focus on the subject, laboratory results that could necessitate the postponement of surgery. Recalling the normal values for the laboratory studies identified in the options will direct you to the correct ones. Review these normal laboratory values 82 / 100 A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above which value? A. 85% B. 89% C. 95% D. 100% Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected reading is at least 95%. Therefore the other options are incorrect. Readings of 85% and 89% are lower than what is desired in the postoperative period. A level of 100% is most desirable, but the level should remain at least 95%Test-Taking Strategy: Note the information in the question and that the client is without a history of respiratory disease. Familiarity with the pulse oximeter and normal readings is needed to answer this question. Noting the word “above” in the question will help you answer correctly. Review the purpose and expected results of pulse oximetry. Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected reading is at least 95%. Therefore the other options are incorrect. Readings of 85% and 89% are lower than what is desired in the postoperative period. A level of 100% is most desirable, but the level should remain at least 95%Test-Taking Strategy: Note the information in the question and that the client is without a history of respiratory disease. Familiarity with the pulse oximeter and normal readings is needed to answer this question. Noting the word “above” in the question will help you answer correctly. Review the purpose and expected results of pulse oximetry. 83 / 100 A nurse receives a telephone call from a nurse on the post-anesthesia care unit, who reports that a client is being transferred to the surgical unit. What should the nurse plan to do first on arrival of the client? A. Assess the patency of the airway B. Check tubes and drains for patency C. Check the dressing for bleeding D. Assess the vital signs to compare them with preoperative measurements The first action of the nurse is to assess the patency of the airway. The nurse then performs an assessment of cardiovascular function, the condition of the surgical site, the patency of tubes and drains for patency, and the function of the central nervous system. If the airway is not patent, immediate measures must be taken to help ensure the survival of the client.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation). Airway patency is the priority. The incorrect options are all nursing actions that should be performed after a patent airway has been established. Review priority nursing assessments in the client who has undergone surgery The first action of the nurse is to assess the patency of the airway. The nurse then performs an assessment of cardiovascular function, the condition of the surgical site, the patency of tubes and drains for patency, and the function of the central nervous system. If the airway is not patent, immediate measures must be taken to help ensure the survival of the client.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation). Airway patency is the priority. The incorrect options are all nursing actions that should be performed after a patent airway has been established. Review priority nursing assessments in the client who has undergone surgery 84 / 100 A nurse is preparing a client for transfer to the operating room. Which action should the take in the care of this client at this time? A. Ensuring that the client has voided B. Administering all daily medications C. Practicing postoperative breathing exercises D. Verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours The nurse should ensure that the client has voided if a Foley catheter is not in place. The nurse does not administer all daily medications just before sending a client to the operating room. Rather, the health care provider writes a specific prescription outlining which medications may be given with a sip of water. The client is usually prescribed to have nothing by mouth for 8 hours before surgery, not 24 hours. The time of transfer to the operating room is not the time to practice breathing exercises. This should have been done earlier.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the words “at this time.” Eliminate the option that involves administering all daily medications because of the close-ended word “all.” Eliminate the option that involves verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours because of the words “last 24 hours.” To select from the remaining options, focus on the words “at this time”; this will direct you to the correct option. Remember that the client is likely to be anxious at this time, meaning that it would be inappropriate to practice breathing exercises. Review preoperative client care measures The nurse should ensure that the client has voided if a Foley catheter is not in place. The nurse does not administer all daily medications just before sending a client to the operating room. Rather, the health care provider writes a specific prescription outlining which medications may be given with a sip of water. The client is usually prescribed to have nothing by mouth for 8 hours before surgery, not 24 hours. The time of transfer to the operating room is not the time to practice breathing exercises. This should have been done earlier.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the words “at this time.” Eliminate the option that involves administering all daily medications because of the close-ended word “all.” Eliminate the option that involves verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours because of the words “last 24 hours.” To select from the remaining options, focus on the words “at this time”; this will direct you to the correct option. Remember that the client is likely to be anxious at this time, meaning that it would be inappropriate to practice breathing exercises. Review preoperative client care measures 85 / 100 A nurse administers scopolamine as prescribed to a client. For which side effect of this medication does the nurse monitor the client? A. Pupil constriction B. Increased urine output C. Complaints of dry mouth D. Complaints of feeling sweaty Scopolamine, an anticholinergic medication, often causes the side effects of dry mouth, urine retention, decreased sweating, and pupil dilation. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the side effects of scopolamine. Recalling the classification of this medication and that this medication dries body secretions will direct you to the correct option. Review the expected side effects of scopolamine Scopolamine, an anticholinergic medication, often causes the side effects of dry mouth, urine retention, decreased sweating, and pupil dilation. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the side effects of scopolamine. Recalling the classification of this medication and that this medication dries body secretions will direct you to the correct option. Review the expected side effects of scopolamine 86 / 100 A client in the postanesthesia care unit has an as-needed prescription for ondansetron. Which occurrence would prompt the nurse to administer this medication to the client? A. Paralytic ileus B. Incisional pain C. Urine retention D. Nausea and vomiting Ondansetron is an antiemetic that is used in the treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. This medication is not used to treat any of the problems identified in the other options.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, the action and use of ondansetron. To answer this question accurately, it is necessary to know the classification of this medication. Focusing on the clinical setting identified in the question should narrow your choices to nausea and vomiting and incisional pain. To correctly select from these two options, it is necessary to know that ondansetron is an antiemetic. Review the action of ondansetron Ondansetron is an antiemetic that is used in the treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. This medication is not used to treat any of the problems identified in the other options.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, the action and use of ondansetron. To answer this question accurately, it is necessary to know the classification of this medication. Focusing on the clinical setting identified in the question should narrow your choices to nausea and vomiting and incisional pain. To correctly select from these two options, it is necessary to know that ondansetron is an antiemetic. Review the action of ondansetron 87 / 100 A nurse is caring for a client who has just regained bowel sounds after undergoing surgery. The health care provider has prescribed a clear liquid diet for the client. Which item does the nurse ensure is available in the client’s room before allowing the client to drink? A. Straw B. Napkin C. Suction equipment D. Oxygen saturation monitor Aspiration is a concern when fluids are offered to a client who has just undergone surgery. It is possible that the swallow reflex is still impaired as an effect of anesthesia. The nurse checks the gag and swallow reflexes before offering fluids to the client, but suction equipment still must be available. An oxygen saturation monitor is unnecessary when fluids are being administered, nor is a napkin or straw necessary; in fact, the straw could contribute to the formation of flatus, resulting in gastrointestinal discomfort.Test-Taking Strategy: The subject of the question is protecting the client’s gag and swallow reflexes. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to answer this question. The correct option helps maintain airway clearance. Review care of the client who has recently undergone surgery and is beginning a clear liquid diet. Aspiration is a concern when fluids are offered to a client who has just undergone surgery. It is possible that the swallow reflex is still impaired as an effect of anesthesia. The nurse checks the gag and swallow reflexes before offering fluids to the client, but suction equipment still must be available. An oxygen saturation monitor is unnecessary when fluids are being administered, nor is a napkin or straw necessary; in fact, the straw could contribute to the formation of flatus, resulting in gastrointestinal discomfort.Test-Taking Strategy: The subject of the question is protecting the client’s gag and swallow reflexes. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to answer this question. The correct option helps maintain airway clearance. Review care of the client who has recently undergone surgery and is beginning a clear liquid diet. 88 / 100 A client recovering from surgery has a large abdominal wound. Which food, high in vitamin C, should the nurse encourage the client to eat as a means of promoting wound healing? A. Steak B. Veal C. Cheese D. Oranges Citrus fruits and juices are especially high in vitamin C. Other sources are potatoes, tomatoes, and other fruits and vegetables. Meats and dairy products are not especially high in vitamin C. Meats are high in protein. Dairy products are high in calcium.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate steak and veal first because they are comparable or alike in that they are meats. To select from the remaining options, recall that cheese is high in calcium, not vitamin C; this will direct you to the correct option. Review foods high in vitamin C Citrus fruits and juices are especially high in vitamin C. Other sources are potatoes, tomatoes, and other fruits and vegetables. Meats and dairy products are not especially high in vitamin C. Meats are high in protein. Dairy products are high in calcium.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate steak and veal first because they are comparable or alike in that they are meats. To select from the remaining options, recall that cheese is high in calcium, not vitamin C; this will direct you to the correct option. Review foods high in vitamin C 89 / 100 A nurse is assessing the chest tube drainage system of a postoperative client who has undergone a right upper lobectomy. The closed drainage system contains 300 mL of bloody drainage, and the nurse notes intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber. One hour after the initial assessment, the nurse notes that the bubbling in the water seal chamber is now constant, and the client appears dyspneic. On the basis of these findings, what should the nurse assess first? A. The client’s vital signs B. The amount of drainage C. The client’s lung sounds D. The chest tube connections The client’s dyspnea is most likely related to an air leak caused by a loose connection. Other causes might be a tear or incision in the pulmonary pleura, which requires health care provider intervention. Although the interventions identified in the other options should also be taken in this situation, they should be performed only after the nurse has tried to locate and correct the air leak. It only takes a moment to check the connections, and if a leak is found and corrected, the client’s symptoms should resolve.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” and focus on the data in the question. Recalling that a constant bubbling in the water seal chamber could indicate a leak in the system will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a closed chest tube drainage system The client’s dyspnea is most likely related to an air leak caused by a loose connection. Other causes might be a tear or incision in the pulmonary pleura, which requires health care provider intervention. Although the interventions identified in the other options should also be taken in this situation, they should be performed only after the nurse has tried to locate and correct the air leak. It only takes a moment to check the connections, and if a leak is found and corrected, the client’s symptoms should resolve.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” and focus on the data in the question. Recalling that a constant bubbling in the water seal chamber could indicate a leak in the system will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a closed chest tube drainage system 90 / 100 A nurse is preparing for intershift report when an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) pulls an emergency call light in a client’s room. Upon answering the light, the nurse finds a client who returned from surgery earlier in the day experiencing tachycardia and tachypnea. The client’s blood pressure is 88/60 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Call the health care provider B. Check the hourly urine output C. Check the IV site for infiltration D. Place the client in a modified Trendelenburg position The client is exhibiting signs of shock and requires emergency intervention. The first action is to place the client in a modified Trendelenburg position (flat with the legs elevated) to increase blood return from the legs, which in turn increases venous return and subsequently the blood pressure. The nurse calls the health care provider, verifies the client’s blood volume status by assessing urine output, and ensures that the IV infusion is proceeding without complications.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation). The correct option addresses the client’s circulatory status. Review the nursing interventions to be taken immediately in the event of postoperative shock The client is exhibiting signs of shock and requires emergency intervention. The first action is to place the client in a modified Trendelenburg position (flat with the legs elevated) to increase blood return from the legs, which in turn increases venous return and subsequently the blood pressure. The nurse calls the health care provider, verifies the client’s blood volume status by assessing urine output, and ensures that the IV infusion is proceeding without complications.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation). The correct option addresses the client’s circulatory status. Review the nursing interventions to be taken immediately in the event of postoperative shock 91 / 100 A nurse is getting a client out of bed for the first time since surgery. The nurse raises the head of the bed, and the client complains of dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Check the client’s blood pressure B. Check the oxygen saturation level C. Have the client take some deep breaths D. Lower the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness is relieved Dizziness or a feeling of faintness is not uncommon when a client is positioned upright for the first time after surgery. If this occurs, the nurse lowers the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness is relieved. The nurse then checks the client’s pulse and blood pressure. Because the problem is circulatory, not respiratory, checking the oxygen saturation level and having the client take some deep breaths are not the first actions to be taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Note the relationship between the subject of the question (the client becomes dizzy) and the correct answer. Review unexpected outcomes after surgery and the priority nursing interventions in the event of such outcomes Dizziness or a feeling of faintness is not uncommon when a client is positioned upright for the first time after surgery. If this occurs, the nurse lowers the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness is relieved. The nurse then checks the client’s pulse and blood pressure. Because the problem is circulatory, not respiratory, checking the oxygen saturation level and having the client take some deep breaths are not the first actions to be taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Note the relationship between the subject of the question (the client becomes dizzy) and the correct answer. Review unexpected outcomes after surgery and the priority nursing interventions in the event of such outcomes 92 / 100 A nurse is assessing a postoperative client on an hourly basis. The nurse notes that the client’s urine output for the past hour was 25 mL. On the basis of this finding, the nurse should take which action first? A. Call the health care provider B. Increase the rate of the IV infusion C. Check the client’s overall intake and output record D. Administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline solution (0.9%) Clients are at risk for becoming hypovolemic after surgery, and often the first sign of hypovolemia is decreasing urine output. However, the nurse needs additional data to make an accurate interpretation. Neither an increase in the rate of the IV infusion nor administration of a 250-mL bolus of normal saline (0.9%) would be implemented without a prescription from the health care provider. The health care provider is called once the nurse has gathered all necessary assessment data, including the overall fluid status and vital signs.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Try to visualize the situation and use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. The correct option addresses the process of assessment. Eliminate increasing the rate of the IV infusion and administering a 250-mL bolus of normal saline (0.9%), because each requires a health care provider’s prescription. In this situation, the nurse needs to gather additional information before contacting the health care provider. Review unexpected outcomes after surgery and priority nursing interventions in the event of such outcomes Clients are at risk for becoming hypovolemic after surgery, and often the first sign of hypovolemia is decreasing urine output. However, the nurse needs additional data to make an accurate interpretation. Neither an increase in the rate of the IV infusion nor administration of a 250-mL bolus of normal saline (0.9%) would be implemented without a prescription from the health care provider. The health care provider is called once the nurse has gathered all necessary assessment data, including the overall fluid status and vital signs.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Try to visualize the situation and use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. The correct option addresses the process of assessment. Eliminate increasing the rate of the IV infusion and administering a 250-mL bolus of normal saline (0.9%), because each requires a health care provider’s prescription. In this situation, the nurse needs to gather additional information before contacting the health care provider. Review unexpected outcomes after surgery and priority nursing interventions in the event of such outcomes 93 / 100 A nurse assesses the closed chest tube drainage system of a client who underwent lobectomy 24 hours ago. The nurse notes that there has been no chest tube drainage for the past hour.Which action should the nurse take first? A. Contact the health care provider B. Check for kinks in the drainage system C. Check the client’s blood pressure and heart rate D. Connect a new drainage system to the client’s chest tube If a chest tube is not draining, the nurse must first check for a kink or clot in the chest drainage system. The nurse also observes the client for signs of respiratory distress or mediastinal shift; and if such signs are noted, the health care provider is notified. Checking the heart rate and blood pressure is not directly related to the lack of chest tube drainage. Connecting a new drainage system to the client’s chest tube is done once the fluid drainage chamber is full. A specific procedure is followed when a new drainage system is connected to a client’s chest tube.Test-Taking Strategy: Note strategic word “first.” Focusing on the subject, a lack of chest tube drainage, will direct you to the correct option. Review unexpected outcomes and related interventions in the care of a chest tube drainage system If a chest tube is not draining, the nurse must first check for a kink or clot in the chest drainage system. The nurse also observes the client for signs of respiratory distress or mediastinal shift; and if such signs are noted, the health care provider is notified. Checking the heart rate and blood pressure is not directly related to the lack of chest tube drainage. Connecting a new drainage system to the client’s chest tube is done once the fluid drainage chamber is full. A specific procedure is followed when a new drainage system is connected to a client’s chest tube.Test-Taking Strategy: Note strategic word “first.” Focusing on the subject, a lack of chest tube drainage, will direct you to the correct option. Review unexpected outcomes and related interventions in the care of a chest tube drainage system 94 / 100 A nurse is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the client begins to cough, and the nurse hears a wheeze. The nurse tries to remove the suction catheter from the client’s trachea but is unable to do so. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Call a code B. Contact the health care provider C. Administer a bronchodilator D. Disconnect the suction source from the catheter Inability to remove a suction catheter is a critical situation. This finding, along with the client’s symptoms presented in the question, indicates the presence of bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction. The nurse immediately disconnects the suction source from the catheter but leave the catheter in the trachea. The nurse then connects the oxygen source to the catheter. The health care provider is notified and will most likely prescribe an inhaled bronchodilator. The nurse also prepares for emergency resuscitation if the bronchospasm is not relieved.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Eliminate the option of administering a bronchodilator, because this action requires a health care provider’s prescription. To select from the remaining options, visualize the situation presented in the question. Noting that the nurse is unable to remove the suction catheter from the client’s trachea will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of a complication during suctioning Inability to remove a suction catheter is a critical situation. This finding, along with the client’s symptoms presented in the question, indicates the presence of bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction. The nurse immediately disconnects the suction source from the catheter but leave the catheter in the trachea. The nurse then connects the oxygen source to the catheter. The health care provider is notified and will most likely prescribe an inhaled bronchodilator. The nurse also prepares for emergency resuscitation if the bronchospasm is not relieved.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Eliminate the option of administering a bronchodilator, because this action requires a health care provider’s prescription. To select from the remaining options, visualize the situation presented in the question. Noting that the nurse is unable to remove the suction catheter from the client’s trachea will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of a complication during suctioning 95 / 100 A nurse performing nasopharyngeal suctioning and suddenly notes the presence of bloody secretions. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Continue suctioning to remove the blood B. Check the degree of suction being applied C. Encourage the client to cough out the bloody secretions D. Remove the suction catheter from the client’s nose and begin vigorous suctioning through the mouth The return of bloody secretions is an unexpected outcome of suctioning. If it occurs, the nurse should first assess the client and then determine the degree of suction being applied. The degree of suction pressure may need to be decreased. The nurse must also remember to apply intermittent suction and perform catheter rotation during suctioning. Continuing the suctioning or performing vigorous suctioning through the mouth will result in increased trauma and therefore increased bleeding. Suctioning is normally performed on clients who are unable to expectorate secretions. It is therefore unlikely that the client will be able to cough out the bloody secretions.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Eliminate the options of continuing the suctioning to remove the blood and removing the suction catheter from the nose to begin vigorous suctioning through the mouth, because they are comparable or alike. Next eliminate the option that involves encouraging the client to cough out the bloody secretions, because it is unlikely that the client will be able to do so. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of a complication during suctioning The return of bloody secretions is an unexpected outcome of suctioning. If it occurs, the nurse should first assess the client and then determine the degree of suction being applied. The degree of suction pressure may need to be decreased. The nurse must also remember to apply intermittent suction and perform catheter rotation during suctioning. Continuing the suctioning or performing vigorous suctioning through the mouth will result in increased trauma and therefore increased bleeding. Suctioning is normally performed on clients who are unable to expectorate secretions. It is therefore unlikely that the client will be able to cough out the bloody secretions.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Eliminate the options of continuing the suctioning to remove the blood and removing the suction catheter from the nose to begin vigorous suctioning through the mouth, because they are comparable or alike. Next eliminate the option that involves encouraging the client to cough out the bloody secretions, because it is unlikely that the client will be able to do so. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of a complication during suctioning 96 / 100 A nurse is helping a client with a closed chest tube drainage system get out of bed and into a chair. During the transfer, the chest tube is caught on the leg of the chair and dislodged from the insertion site. What is the immediate nursing action? A. Reinsert the chest tube B. Contact the health care provider C. Transfer the client back to bed D. Cover the insertion site with a sterile occlusive dressing If a chest tube is dislodged from the insertion site, the nurse immediately covers the site with sterile occlusive dressing. The nurse then performs a respiratory assessment, helps the client back into bed, and contacts the health care provider. The nurse does not reinsert the chest tube. The health care providerwill reinsert the chest tube as necessary.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediate.” Eliminate the option that involves reinsertion of the chest tube first, because a nurse is not trained to insert a chest tube. To select from the remaining options, focus on the subject, dislodgment of a chest tube from its insertion site, and recall the complications associated with this occurrence; this will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of complications associated with a closed chest tube drainage system If a chest tube is dislodged from the insertion site, the nurse immediately covers the site with sterile occlusive dressing. The nurse then performs a respiratory assessment, helps the client back into bed, and contacts the health care provider. The nurse does not reinsert the chest tube. The health care providerwill reinsert the chest tube as necessary.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediate.” Eliminate the option that involves reinsertion of the chest tube first, because a nurse is not trained to insert a chest tube. To select from the remaining options, focus on the subject, dislodgment of a chest tube from its insertion site, and recall the complications associated with this occurrence; this will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of complications associated with a closed chest tube drainage system 97 / 100 A nurse is assessing a client who has a closed chest tube drainage system. The nurse notes constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. What actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply). A. Clamp the chest tube B. Change the drainage system C. Assess the system for an external air leak D. Reduce the degree of suction being applied E. Document assessment findings, actions taken, and client response Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber of a closed chest tube drainage system may indicate the presence of an air leak. The nurse would assess the chest tube system for the presence of an external air leak if constant bubbling were noted in this chamber. If an external air leak is not present and the air leak is a new occurrence, the health care provider is notified immediately, because an air leak may be present in the pleural space. Leakage and trapping of air in the pleural space can result in a tension pneumothorax. Clamping the chest tube is incorrect. Additionally, a chest tube is not clamped unless this has been specifically prescribed in the agency’s policies and procedures. Changing the drainage system will not alleviate the problem. Reducing the degree of suction being applied will not affect the bubbling in the water seal chamber and could be harmful. The nurse would document the assessment findings and interventions taken in the client’s medical record.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question, noting that there is bubbling in the water seal chamber. Use knowledge regarding the priority actions in the care of a closed chest tube drainage system. Recalling that this may indicate an air leak will direct you to the correct options. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event that complications of a closed chest tube drainage system occur Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber of a closed chest tube drainage system may indicate the presence of an air leak. The nurse would assess the chest tube system for the presence of an external air leak if constant bubbling were noted in this chamber. If an external air leak is not present and the air leak is a new occurrence, the health care provider is notified immediately, because an air leak may be present in the pleural space. Leakage and trapping of air in the pleural space can result in a tension pneumothorax. Clamping the chest tube is incorrect. Additionally, a chest tube is not clamped unless this has been specifically prescribed in the agency’s policies and procedures. Changing the drainage system will not alleviate the problem. Reducing the degree of suction being applied will not affect the bubbling in the water seal chamber and could be harmful. The nurse would document the assessment findings and interventions taken in the client’s medical record.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question, noting that there is bubbling in the water seal chamber. Use knowledge regarding the priority actions in the care of a closed chest tube drainage system. Recalling that this may indicate an air leak will direct you to the correct options. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event that complications of a closed chest tube drainage system occur 98 / 100 A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects that the client has a pulmonary embolism and immediately sets about to take which action? A. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan B. Attaching the client to a cardiac monitor C. Administering oxygen by way of nasal cannula D. Ensuring that the intravenous (IV) line is patent Pulmonary embolism is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen is immediately administered nasally to relieve hypoxemia, respiratory distress, and central cyanosis, and thehealth care provideris notified. IV infusion lines are needed to administer medications or fluids. A perfusion scan, among other tests, may be performed. The electrocardiogram is monitored for the presence of dysrhythmias. Additionally, a urinary catheter may be inserted and blood for arterial blood gas determinations drawn. The immediate priority, however, is the administration of oxygen.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the client’s diagnosis and use the skills of prioritizing. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to find the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of pulmonary embolism 99 / 100 A client who just returned from the recovery room after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy is restless and the pulse rate is increased. As the nurse continues the assessment, the client begins to vomit a copious amount of bright-red blood. The nurse should take which immediate action? A. Notify the surgeon B. Continue the assessment C. Check the client’s blood pressure D. Obtain a flashlight, gauze, and a curved hemostat Hemorrhage is a potential complication after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. If the client vomits a large amount of bright-red blood or the pulse rate increases and the patient is restless, the nurse must notify the surgeon immediately. The nurse should obtain a light, mirror, gauze, curved hemostat, and waste basin to facilitate examination of the surgical site. The nurse should also gather additional assessment data, but the surgeon must be contacted immediately.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, immediate. Noting the words “bright-red blood” will assist in directing you to the correct option. Remember that the presence of bright-red blood indicates active bleeding. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately when bleeding occurs after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy Hemorrhage is a potential complication after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. If the client vomits a large amount of bright-red blood or the pulse rate increases and the patient is restless, the nurse must notify the surgeon immediately. The nurse should obtain a light, mirror, gauze, curved hemostat, and waste basin to facilitate examination of the surgical site. The nurse should also gather additional assessment data, but the surgeon must be contacted immediately.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, immediate. Noting the words “bright-red blood” will assist in directing you to the correct option. Remember that the presence of bright-red blood indicates active bleeding. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately when bleeding occurs after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy 100 / 100 A client who has undergone abdominal surgery calls the nurse and reports that she just felt “something give way” in the abdominal incision. The nurse checks the incision and notes the presence of wound dehiscence. The nurse should take which immediate action? A. Document the findings B. Contact the health care provider C. Place the client in a supine position with the legs flat D. Cover the abdominal wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline solution Wound dehiscence is the disruption of a surgical incision or wound. When dehiscence occurs, the nurse immediately places the client in a low Fowler’s position or supine with the knees bent and instructs the client to lie quietly. These actions will minimize protrusion of the underlying tissues. The nurse then covers the wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline. The health care provider is notified, and the nurse documents the occurrence and the nursing actions that were implemented in response.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediate.” Visualize this occurrence and recall that the primary concern when wound dehiscence occurs is the protrusion of underlying tissues. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of wound dehiscence Wound dehiscence is the disruption of a surgical incision or wound. When dehiscence occurs, the nurse immediately places the client in a low Fowler’s position or supine with the knees bent and instructs the client to lie quietly. These actions will minimize protrusion of the underlying tissues. The nurse then covers the wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline. The health care provider is notified, and the nurse documents the occurrence and the nursing actions that were implemented in response.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediate.” Visualize this occurrence and recall that the primary concern when wound dehiscence occurs is the protrusion of underlying tissues. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of wound dehiscence Your score is 0% Please rate this Quiz Send feedback
Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically.
Thanks for attempting the quiz
Nclex Content Review Class One – Week One
Week One Assessment
The number of attempts remaining is 1
User Information
1 / 100
A client arrives in the emergency department for treatment of a surface injury sustained when sand blew into the eye. Which action does the nurse take first?
When a client has sustained a surface injury of the eye as a result of the introduction of a foreign body, the nurse must first assess visual acuity. The eye is then assessed for corneal abrasions; this is followed by irrigation with sterile normal saline solution to gently remove the particles. Ice would be placed on the eye if the client had sustained an eye contusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. The correct option is the only one that involves assessment. Eliminate the options that reflect implementation. Review content related to the initial treatment of various eye injuries if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 1072). St. Louis: Saunders.Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying
2 / 100
A nurse receives a telephone call from a neighbor, who says that her child was just hit in the eye with a swing. The nurse rushes to the neighbor’s house and notes that the child has sustained a contusion of the eye. The nurse advises the child’s mother to immediately:
Treatment for a contusion ideally begins at the time of injury and includes the application of ice to the site. Although the child should also undergo a thorough eye examination to rule out other injuries, calling an optometrist is not the first action to be taken. Irrigating the eye with cool water may be implemented for injuries that involve a splash of an irritant into the eye. It is not necessary to call an ambulance.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “immediately.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., calling an ambulance or an optometrist). To select from the remaining options, focus on the type of injury that has been sustained, which will direct you to the correct option. Review initial treatment after an eye contusion if you had difficulty with this question. References: Hockenberry, M., & Wilson, D. (2013). Wong’s Essentials of pediatric nursing (9th ed., p. 586). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., Perry, A. G., Stockert, P. A., & Hall, A. M. (2013). Fundamentals of nursing. (8th ed., p. 1212). St. Louis: Mosby.
3 / 100
A nurse provides home care instructions to a client after a scleral buckling procedure. The nurse should tell the client:
The scleral buckling procedure is performed to treat retinal detachment. In the preoperative period the nurse places an eye patch over the client’s affected eye to reduce eye movement. Some clients may require bilateral patching. Redness and swelling of the eyelids and conjunctiva, the result of surgical manipulation, are expected. Blood loss in retinal detachment surgery is minimal, and only serous drainage is expected on the postoperative dressing. The client should not expect immediate return of vision. Postoperative inflammation and eye drops interfere with vision. Because healing takes place over weeks to months, vision will improve gradually. Strict bedrest for 48 hours is not required; however, depending on the location and size of the retinal break, activity restrictions may be needed to prevent further tearing or detachment and to promote drainage of any subretinal fluid.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options containing the words “strict” and “perfectly clear.” To select from the remaining options, recall that redness and swelling of the eye occur as a result of surgical manipulation. Review client instructions after scleral buckling if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 397). St. Louis: Mosby.
4 / 100
During a client’s yearly eye examination, the nurse checks the intraocular pressure. The nurse notes that the pressure in the right eye is 12 mm Hg and 19 mm Hg in the left. The nurse tells the client:
Normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mm Hg. Therefore this client’s intraocular pressure is normal. Increased intake of fluids is unrelated to increasing intraocular pressure.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge that normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mm Hg will help you identify the correct option. Review this normal finding and the findings in glaucoma if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 399). St. Louis: Mosby.
5 / 100
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client after outpatient surgery for cataract removal. The nurse determines that the client needs additional instructions if the client indicates that he will:
If the client experiences any pain that is unrelieved, redness around the eye, or nausea or vomiting, the health care provider must be notified, because such findings could be an indication of increased intraocular pressure. Usually the client is given a follow-up appointment on the day after the surgery, and the health care provider removes the eye patch at this time. The client is instructed to limit activity to sitting in a chair, resting, and walking to the bathroom for 24 hours. Aspirin or medications containing aspirin should not be taken by the client; rather, acetaminophen should be used to alleviate discomfort.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling the signs of increased intraocular pressure will direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review the discharge instructions for the client after cataract extraction.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 395). St. Louis: Mosby.
6 / 100
A client is transported to the recovery area of the ambulatory care unit after cataract surgery. In which position does the nurse place the client?
After cataract extraction surgery, the client should be placed in the semi-Fowler position or on the unaffected side to prevent edema at the surgical site. Supine, on the affected side, and prone are all incorrect because they will result in increased edema at the site.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they are flat positions. To select from the remaining options, remember that local edema may occur after the trauma of surgery. Use the principles of gravity and measures to prevent accumulation of fluid around the surgical site to direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review care of the client immediately after cataract surgery. References: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 390, 393-394). St. Louis: Mosby.Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., p. 426). St. Louis: Mosby.
7 / 100
A nurse provides home care instructions to a client with Ménière disease about measures to control and treat vertigo. The nurse should tell the client to:
Limiting and fluids in the diet will help reduce the amount of endolymphatic fluid, which is excessive in Ménière disease. The client’s room should be darkened to reduce the acute symptoms of vertigo. The client should limit head movement to prevent worsening of the symptoms of vertigo.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling the pathophysiology of Ménière disease and remembering that the disease is caused by excess endolymph will direct you to the correct option. Review the measures that will reduce vertigo in the client with Ménière disease if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1096-1097). St. Louis: Saunders.
8 / 100
A stapedectomy is performed on a client with otosclerosis. During the preparations for discharge, which home care instruction does the nurse give the client?
The client must avoid rapidly moving the head, bouncing, and bending over for at least 3 weeks to prevent disruption of the surgical site. The client should keep the affected ear dry at all times and should avoid getting the head wet, washing the hair, or showering for 1 week. The client should not rinse out the ear. The client also needs to avoid drinking through a straw for 2 to 3 weeks because the sucking action necessary to use the straw could cause disruption of the surgical site. The client should notify the health care provider if excessive ear drainage is noted.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the option containing the word “excessive.” Recalling that the ear needs to remain dry will assist you in eliminating the option that involves showering. To select from the remaining options, think about each action and its effect on the ear. This will direct you to the correct option. Review care after stapedectomy if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1102-1103). St. Louis: Saunders.
9 / 100
A nurse is providing instructions to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) about effective measures for communicating with a hearing-impaired client. The nurse instructs the UAP to:
To facilitate communication with a client who is hearing impaired, the nurse should speak in a normal tone, not shout or raise the voice. The nurse should speak clearly and directly while facing the client and keep the hands away from the mouth so that the client can read the nurse’s lips. It may be helpful for the nurse to move closer to the client and toward the better ear to facilitate communication, but it is not helpful to talk directly into the client’s impaired ear. Smiling while talking will make it difficult for the client to lipread.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, communicating with a hearing-impaired client. Visualizing each of the options will direct you to the correct one. Review these communication techniques if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 410). St. Louis: Mosby.
10 / 100
A nurse provides instructions to a client about measures to prevent an acute attack of gout. The nurse determines that the client needs additional instructions if the client states:
Treatment of gout includes both nutrition and medication therapy. The client should be encouraged to limit the use of alcohol and reduce the consumption of foods high in purines. Such foods include sardines, herring, mussels, liver, kidney, goose, venison, and sweetbreads. Medication therapy is a primary component of management for clients with gout, and the health care provider normally prescribes a medication that will promote uric acid excretion or reduce its production. Fluid intake is important in preventing the development of uric acid stones. Fad or starvation diets can precipitate an acute attack because of the rapid breakdown of cells they induce. Excessive physical and emotional stress can exacerbate the disease.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and your knowledge of the treatment for gout. Also note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recall that in this disorder the client experiences an increased uric acid level and that medications are needed to promote the acid’s excretion. Review the management of gout if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1577). St. Louis: Mosby.
11 / 100
A nurse provides instructions to a client with rheumatoid arthritis about joint exercises that are important to prevent deformity and reduce pain. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instruction?
The client should avoid activities (other than gentle range of motion) when the joints are inflamed. Isometric exercises are also helpful when the joints are inflamed. Daily range-of-motion exercises are an important component of the program and will help relieve pain, but the client should exercise only to the point of fatigue or discomfort. All clients are taught to maintain good posture.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Noting the closed-ended word “all” will direct you to the correct option. Review exercise instructions for the client with rheumatoid arthritis if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1574-1576). St. Louis: Mosby.
12 / 100
A nurse provides home care instructions to a client with a below-the-knee amputation (BKA) about residual limb and prosthesis care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
The client should be instructed to don the prosthesis immediately on arising and to keep it on all day (once the incision has healed completely) to reduce residual limb swelling. “I can wash my leg with a mild soap,” “I need to check my leg for irritation every day,” and “I should wear a sock over my stump” are correct statements regarding residual limb and prosthesis care. The client should not use any lotions, alcohol-containing powders, or oils on the residual limb unless told to do so by the healthcare provider. The client should also perform range-of-motion exercises of the joints, as well as strengthening exercises, including the upper extremities, every day.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling that the prosthesis is used to reduce residual limb edema will direct you to the correct option. Review client instructions regarding prosthesis and residual limb care if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1533). St. Louis: Mosby.
13 / 100
Buck extension traction is applied to the right leg of a client who sustained a right hip fracture. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Buck extension traction is a type of skin traction. It is important with skin traction to inspect the skin underneath at least once every 8 hours for irritation or inflammation. The nurse never releases the weights of traction unless specifically asked to do so by the health care provider. Applying lanolin to the skin could leave the skin slippery, making it difficult to maintain the belt or boot used for the skin traction. There are no pins to care for with skin traction.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that Buck extension traction is a type of skin traction will assist you in eliminating the option of assessing the pin sites. Next eliminate the option that indicates that the nurse may remove traction weights without a specific prescription to do so. To select from the remaining options, use the steps of the nursing process. The correct option addresses assessment. Review care of the client in Buck traction if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 258, 266). St. Louis: Mosby.
14 / 100
A client with a leg fracture who has been placed in skeletal traction is transported to the orthopedic unit after surgery. Which finding would indicate the need to contact the orthopedic specialist?
After skeletal traction pins are inserted and traction is applied, all ropes, knots, and pulleys are inspected to ensure that they are positioned properly. Traction knots and ropes must be intact and secure. Ropes should move easily over pulleys and weights, and the weights should hang freely at all times. The clamps on the traction frame should be tight.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need to contact the orthopedic specialist,” which indicate the need to select the option that constitutes an unsafe or incorrect observation. Noting the words “unable to move over the pulleys” will help you identify to the correct option. Review care of the client in skeletal traction if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 263, 265-266). St. Louis: Mosby.
15 / 100
A client has just had a plaster leg cast applied, and the nurse has given the client instructions on cast care. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instruction?
Using a blow dryer on the hot setting to dry the cast is not advised because it may burn the client’s skin under the cast and crack the cast. While the cast is still damp, the client may feel cold and may experience a decrease in body temperature. The client should never insert any item under the cast because of the risk skin compromise. An odor coming from the cast could indicate the presence of infection, warranting health care provider notification.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling that the use of a hot blow dryer can cause burns will direct you to this option. Review client teaching points in regard to cast care if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 253-254). St. Louis: Mosby.
16 / 100
A client who sustained a fracture of the left arm requires the application of a plaster cast. The nurse tells the client that the procedure for applying the cast involves:
To apply a cast, the skin is washed and dried well, but it is not soaked in a warm-water bath. Padding is applied and a stockinette is placed smoothly and evenly over the area to be casted. The plaster is then rolled onto the padding and the edges are trimmed or smoothed as needed. Local anesthesia of the fractured extremity is not necessary, although an analgesic may be administered to alleviate pain. A local anesthetic will block nerve sensation, and it is important for the client to be able to report any changes in sensations after the cast is applied. If the client has open wounds on the fractured extremity, a window will be cut in the cast to allow visualization and treatment of the wound. A wound would not be covered with cast material.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option containing the words “2 hours.” Next eliminate the option that involves administration of a local anesthetic, recalling that a local anesthetic will block nerve sensation. Recognizing that covering an open wound with a cast material would not permit assessment of the wound will allow you to eliminate this option. Review client instructions regarding the application of a plaster cast if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 251-253). St. Louis: Mosby.
17 / 100
A client is found to have AIDS. What is the nurse’s highest priority in providing care to this client?
The client with AIDS has inadequate immune bodies and is at risk for infection. The priority nursing intervention is protecting the client from infection. The nurse would also provide emotional support to the client. Discussing the cause of AIDS and the ways in which AIDS is contracted are not priority interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “highest priority.” Use Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory to answer the question. Remember that physiological needs are the priority. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the priority needs of a client with AIDS if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 239-240, 242). St. Louis: Mosby
18 / 100
A client arrives at the emergency department with reports of a headache, hives, itching, and difficulty swallowing. The client states that he took ibuprofen (Motrin) 1 hour earlier and believes that he is experiencing an allergic reaction to this medication. After ensuring that the client has a patent airway, which intervention does the nurse prepare the client for first?
Once airway has been established, the client would be given subcutaneous epinephrine. IV corticosteroids and IV fluids may also be prescribed. Pain medication may or may not be prescribed.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. All of the interventions in the options may be prescribed for the client experiencing a hypersensitivity reaction. Remember that once airway is established, the client will receive epinephrine. Review care of the client who experiences an allergic reaction if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 214). St. Louis: Mosby.
19 / 100
A nurse is assessing a client with AIDS for signs of Pneumocystis jiroveci infection. Which sign of the infection is the earliest manifestation?
The client with P. jiroveci infection usually has a cough as the first symptom, which begins as nonproductive then progresses to productive. Later signs include fever, dyspnea on exertion, and finally dyspnea at rest.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “earliest.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve dyspnea. To select from the remaining options, focus on the anatomical location of the infection, which will direct you to the correct option. Review the early manifestations of P. jiroveci infection if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 236). St. Louis: Mosby.
20 / 100
An emergency department (ED) nurse receives a telephone call from emergency medical services and is told that a client who has sustained severe burns of the face and upper arms is being transported to the ED. Which action does the nurse, preparing for the arrival of the client, plan to implement first?
When a victim who sustains a burn injury arrives at the ED, breathing is assessed, a patent airway is established, and the client is given 100% humidified oxygen. Inserting a Foley catheter, initiating an IV line, and cleansing the burn wound are also components of the plan of care for a burned client, but these are not the immediate actions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to answer the question. The correct option is the only one related to the airway. Review care of the burned client if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 456). St. Louis: Mosby.
21 / 100
A nurse is monitoring a client who has just undergone radical neck dissection. The nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure has dropped from 132/84 to 90/50 mm Hg and that the pulse has increased from 78 to 96 beats/min. On the basis of these findings, the nurse immediately:
In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse assesses the client for stridor (a coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration when auscultating over the trachea), a sign of airway edema, and for signs of bleeding. A drop in blood pressure and an increase in pulse are indicators of bleeding. The health care provider is notified immediately if either of these events occurs. Suctioning is performed to remove secretions that cannot be expectorated by the client. Increasing the rate of the client’s IV solution is not done without a health care provider’s prescription. A pulse oximeter may be needed, but this is not the action to be taken immediately.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Focus on the data in the question and note that the nurse’s findings indicate bleeding. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately if bleeding occurs if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 513, 1200-1201). St. Louis: Mosby.
22 / 100
A client with a spinal cord injury suddenly complains of a pounding headache. The nurse quickly assesses the client and notes that the client is diaphoretic, that his blood pressure has increased, and that his heart rate has slowed. Suspecting that the client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, the nurse elevates the head of the client’s bed and immediately:
Autonomic dysreflexia is an emergency that occurs as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli that are innocuous in normal individuals. It occurs only after spinal shock has resolved. A variety of stimuli may trigger this response, including a distended bladder (the most common cause); distention or contraction of the visceral organs, especially the bowel (as a result of constipation or impaction); or stimulation of the skin. When autonomic dysreflexia occurs, the client is immediately placed in a sitting position to lower the blood pressure. The nurse then performs a rapid assessment to identify and alleviate the cause. The client’s bladder is emptied immediately by way of a urinary catheter, the rectum is checked for the presence of a fecal mass, and the skin is examined for areas of pressure, irritation, or compromise. The health care provider is notified, and then the nurse documents the occurrence and the actions taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and note that the nurse has already elevated the head of the client’s bed. Next, recall that autonomic dysreflexia occurs as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli, which will direct you to the correct option. Review immediate interventions for autonomic dysreflexia if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1479-1480). St. Louis: Mosby.
23 / 100
A nurse is providing home care instructions to a client with Parkinson disease about measures to avoid rigidity and to overcome tremor and bradykinesia. The nurse tells the client to:
The client with Parkinson disease should rock back and forth to initiate movement with bradykinesia (slowed movement). The client should avoid sitting in soft, deep chairs to prevent rigidity and because they are difficult to get up from. The client should exercise in the morning, when the energy level at its highest. The client with a tremor is instructed to use both hands to accomplish a task.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option that uses the closed-ended word “only” first. To select correctly from the remaining options, recall that bradykinesia means slowed movement to identify the correct option. Review client teaching points for Parkinson’s disease if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1434). St. Louis: Mosby.
24 / 100
A nurse is teaching a client who is experiencing homonymous hemianopsia after a brain attack (stroke) about measures to overcome the deficit. The nurse tells the client to:
Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field. The nurse instructs the client to scan the environment to overcome the visual deficit. The nurse encourages the use of personal eyeglasses to improve overall vision, but it is not necessary to wear the glasses 24 hours a day. The client should keep objects in the intact field of vision whenever possible. An eye patch is of no use because the client does not have double vision.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with homonymous hemianopsia if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1350, 1407). St. Louis: Mosby.
25 / 100
A client who is recovering from a brain attack (stroke) has residual dysphagia. Which measure does the nurse plan to implement at mealtimes?
The client with dysphagia may be started on a diet once the gag and swallow reflexes have returned. Liquids should be thickened to help prevent aspiration. Food is placed on the unaffected side of the mouth. Liquids are alternated with solids whenever possible to prevent food from being left in the mouth. The client is assisted with meals as needed and is given ample time to chew and swallow.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve giving thin liquids or primarily liquids. To select from the remaining options, visualize each. Recalling that placing food on the affected side of the mouth will put the client at risk for aspiration will assist you in eliminating this option. Review care of the client with residual dysphagia if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1402). St. Louis: Mosby.
26 / 100
A client who experienced a brain attack (stroke) exhibits right-sided unilateral neglect. The nurse caring for this client plans to place the client’s personal care items:
Unilateral neglect is unawareness of one side of the body. The client behaves as if that part is not there. The client does not look at the paralyzed limb when moving about. Unilateral neglect results in increased risk for injury. It is possible for the client to relearn to look for and to move the affected limb(s). Therefore in this condition the client’s personal care items are placed within the client’s reach on the right side. Hemiparesis is a weakness of the face, arm, and leg on one side. The client with one-sided hemiparesis benefits from having objects placed on the unaffected side and within reach. This reduces client frustration and aids in ensuring client safety because the client does not have to strain and reach for needed items. The nurse adapts the client’s environment to the deficit by focusing on the client’s unaffected side and by placing the client’s personal care items on the affected side within reach. Placing items out of the client’s reach presents a risk of injury.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options first that are potentially hazardous to the client. To select from the remaining options, focus on the subject, unilateral neglect. With unilateral neglect, objects are placed on the affected side to train the client to attend to that part of the environment. Review care of the client with unilateral neglect if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1403). St. Louis: Mosby.
27 / 100
A nurse answers the call bell of a client who has been fitted with an internal cervical radiation implant, and the client states that she thinks that the implant has fallen out. The nurse checks the client and sees the implant lying in the bed. Which action should the nurse take first?
A lead container and long-handled forceps should be kept in the client’s room at all times during internal radiation therapy. If the implant is dislodged, the nurse should pick it up with long-handled forceps and place it in the lead container. Reinserting the implant into the vagina and picking up the implant with gloved hands and placing it in sterile water are both incorrect nursing actions. The health care provider is called after action is taken to maintain the safety of the client.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. Recalling that the nurse needs to protect him or herself from exposure to the radiation will direct you to the correct option. Review the measures for dealing with a dislodged implant if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders.
28 / 100
A female client who has undergone placement of a sealed radiation implant asks the nurse whether she can take a walk around the nursing unit. How should the nurse respond to the client’s request?
The client with a sealed radiation implant must remain in a private room to keep others from being exposed to radiation. The other options are all incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client is permitted to leave the room for ambulation. Review care of the client with a radiation implant if you had difficulty with this question.
29 / 100
A nurse develops a nursing care plan for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Which stipulation does the nurse include in the plan?
The nurse would limit each visitor to a half-hour per day and be sure that visitors remain at least 6 feet (1.8 metres) from the radiation source. The nurse would wear the dosimeter badge when caring for the client. The dosimeter badge measures an individual’s exposure to radiation and should be used by only one individual. The dosimeter badge is not left in the client’s room. The client is assigned to a private room with a private bath to keep other clients from being exposed to radiation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Thinking about the measures that will prevent exposure to radiation direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a radiation implant if you had difficulty with this question.
30 / 100
The nurse has instructed a client who is about to begin external radiation therapy in how to maintain optimal skin integrity during therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
The client should use no powders, ointments, lotions, or creams on the skin at the radiation site unless they have been prescribed by the health care provider. Avoiding sun exposure of the radiation site, not removing marks made on the skin by the radiologist, and washing the skin with mild soap and water and patting it dry are all correct measures. The client should also be instructed to avoid using harsh detergents to wash clothing.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further instruction” in the query of the question, which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Noting the words “over-the-counter” will direct you to the correct option. Review client teaching points for skin care during radiation therapy if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 269-270). St. Louis: Mosby.
31 / 100
A client with cancer of the larynx is receiving external radiation therapy of the neck. Which side effect related specifically to the site of irradiation does the nurse tell the client to expect?
In general, skin reactions and fatigue may occur with radiation therapy of any site, whereas other side effects occur only when a specific area lies in the treatment field. A client undergoing radiation therapy of the larynx is most likely to experience dysphagia. Diarrhea may occur with irradiation of the gastrointestinal tract. Dyspnea may occur with lung irradiation. Headache may occur with irradiation of the head.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “related specifically to the site.” Focus on the anatomical location of the radiation therapy to identify the correct option. Review the effects of radiation therapy if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 268). St. Louis: Mosby
32 / 100
A nurse is having dinner at a restaurant when a man sitting at the next table collapses and falls to the floor. The nurse yells for help and quickly assesses the client, noting that the client is not breathing and does not have a pulse. The nurse initiates cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) immediately, and the restaurant manager rushes to the scene with an automatic external defibrillator (AED). What should the nurse do next?
Basic components of CPR include immediate recognition of the sudden cardiac arrest (unresponsiveness and absence of normal breathing) and activation of the emergency response system, early CPR, and rapid defibrillation with the use of an AED.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the resuscitation efforts should be terminated. To select from the remaining options it is necessary to know the components of CPR. Review the components of CPR and the procedure for using an AED if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 680-682). St. Louis: Mosby.
33 / 100
A nurse is working in the emergency department. Which client should be assessed first?
The client with new-onset atrial fibrillation is at risk for complications associated with the tachydysrhythmia. This dysrhythmia may result in decreased cardiac output because of ineffective atrial contractions. Thrombi form in the atria as a result of the pooling of blood. All of the other clients will require the nurse’s attention, but the client who requires immediate attention and is the most hemodynamically unstable is the one with atrial fibrillation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to find the correct option. The client experiencing atrial fibrillation is the least stable of the clients identified in the other options. Review the principles of prioritization if you had difficulty with this question. References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 126). St. Louis: Saunders.
34 / 100
A nurse attending a recertification course in basic life support (BLS) for healthcare professionals is practicing BLS on an infant mannequin. Where does the nurse place the fingers to assess the infant’s pulse?
An infant’s pulse should be checked at the brachial artery. The relatively short, fat neck of an infant makes palpation of the carotid artery (neck) difficult. Palpation of the pulse in the radial (wrist) and popliteal (behind the knee) area would also be difficult.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and visualize each location identified in the options. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for performing BLS on an infant if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 852). St. Louis: Elsevier.
35 / 100
A pediatric nurse finds a hospitalized child unresponsive. A quick assessment reveals that the child is not breathing and does not have a pulse. The nurse initiates cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). How many chest compressions per minute does the nurse deliver?
In an infant or child, the rate of chest compressions is at least 100/min.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the procedure for performing CPR on a child is needed to answer this question. Remember that the rate of chest compressions is at least 100/min. Review this procedure if you had difficulty with this question.
36 / 100
The nurse is administering cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to an adult client. Which compression-ventilation ratio is correct?
37 / 100
A nurse arrives at the scene of a code and begins to assist with cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) of an adult. The nurse delivers compressions by pushing down on the chest to a depth of:
When CPR is being performed on an adult, the sternum should be depressed at least 2 inches (5 cm). The other options are incorrect because they are too shallow to be effective or too deep, which can cause damage to internal organs. The rescuer should allow complete recoil of the chest after each compression to allow the heart to fill completely before the next compression.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the procedure for performing chest compressions on an adult is necessary to answer the question. Consider the normal body structure of an adult to answer the question correctly. If you had difficulty with this question, review the procedure for CPR for an adult.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., p. 685). St. Louis: Mosby.
38 / 100
A nurse enters a client’s room and finds the client unconscious. The nurse quickly performs an assessment and determines that the client is not breathing. Which action does the nurse take first?
According to the American Heart Association, detecting a pulse may be difficult. The healthcare provider should take not more than 10 seconds to check for a pulse; if the rescuer does not definitely feel a pulse within that period, he or she should start chest compressions. The acronym CAB (circulation, airway, and breathing) is used to prioritize the steps of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Effective chest compressions are essential for providing blood flow during CPR. To provide effective chest compressions, the provider must push hard and fast. Current guidelines for CPR call for the initiation of compressions before ventilations. Oxygen may be helpful at some point, but the airway is opened before the administration of oxygen. Checking the client’s pulse oximetry reading delays implementation of lifesaving measures.
39 / 100
A nurse is caring for a client with Crohn disease whose magnesium level is 1.0 mEq/L (0.5 mmol/L). Which assessment findings does the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply.
The normal magnesium level is 1.5-2.5 mEq/L (0.75-1.25 mmol/L). A magnesium level of 1.0 mEq/L(0.5 mmol/L) reflects hypomagnesemia. Assessment signs include hypertension; gastrointestinal manifestations such as anorexia, nausea, abdominal distention, and decreased bowel sounds; shallow respirations; neuromuscular manifestations such as twitches, paresthesias, hyperreflexia, and the Trousseau and Chvostek signs; and irritability and confusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the options that are comparable or alike because they reflect neurological, musculoskeletal, and cardiovascular depression. If you had difficulty with this question, review the assessment signs found in magnesium imbalances.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 193). St. Louis: Saunders.
40 / 100
A nurse is monitoring a client with hyperparathyroidism for signs of hypercalcemia. For which clinical manifestations, associated with this electrolyte imbalance, does the nurse assess the client? Select all that apply.
Signs of hypercalcemia include muscle weakness, diminished deep tendon reflexes or an absence thereof, increased urine output, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and increased heart rate and blood pressure. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, the presence of the Chvostek sign, and paresthesias are signs of hypocalcemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, signs of hypercalcemia. Note that all of the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they reflect hyperactivity of the neuromuscular system. Review the assessment signs noted in hypercalcemia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 190-191). St. Louis: Saunders..
41 / 100
A nurse is caring for a client experiencing hyponatremia who was admitted to the medical-surgical unit with fluid-volume overload. For which clinical manifestations of this electrolyte imbalance does the nurse monitor this client? Select all that apply.
Signs of hyponatremia include a rapid, thready pulse; skeletal muscle weakness; diminished deep tendon reflexes; abdominal cramping and hyperactive bowel sounds; increased urine output; headache; and personality changes. The nurse must assess these changes from baseline. If muscle weakness is detected, the nurse should immediately check respiratory effectiveness, because ventilation depends on strength of the respiratory muscles.Test-Taking Strategy: Specific knowledge of the manifestations of hyponatremia is needed to answer this question. Remember that muscle weakness and hyperactive bowel sounds are characteristics of hyponatremia. If you had difficulty with this question, review these clinical manifestations.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 181-182). St. Louis: Saunders.
42 / 100
A nurse notes that a client’s serum potassium level is 5.8 mEq/L(5.8 mmol/L). The nurse interprets this as an expected finding in the client with:
A serum potassium level greater than 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L)indicates hyperkalemia, and the nurse would report the finding to the health care provider. Adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) is a cause of hyperkalemia. Other common causes of hyperkalemia include tissue damage, such as that in burn injuries, renal failure, and the use of potassium-sparing diuretics. The client with diarrhea or wound drainage or the client being treated with diuretics is at risk for hypokalemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they all indicate that the client is experiencing body fluid losses and therefore a loss of potassium. If you had difficulty with this question, review the risk factors associated with hyperkalemia.Reference: Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 296, 1211). St. Louis: Mosby.
43 / 100
A healthcare provider writes a prescription for the administration of intravenous (IV) potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia. What does the nurse plan to do when preparing and administering this medication?
Potassium chloride administered IV must always be diluted in IV fluid. Undiluted potassium chloride given IV can cause cardiac arrest. The intramuscular and subcutaneous routes of administration are not recommended because the medication cannot be adequately diluted for these routes; toxicity could result if the medication is not adequately diluted. Potassium chloride is never administered as a bolus (IV push) injection; an IV push would result in sudden severe hyperkalemia, which could precipitate cardiac arrest. Saline dilution is recommended, but dextrose is avoided because it increases intracellular potassium shifting. Although urine output is monitored carefully during administration, it is not necessary to insert a Foley catheter unless this is specifically prescribed. The health care provider is notified if the urinary output is less than 30 mL/hr. Potassium chloride should be administered with the use of a controlled IV infusion device to avoid bolus infusion and increased risk of cardiac arrest. A central IV line is not necessary; potassium chloride may be administered through a peripheral IV line.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “intravenous potassium chloride.” Recalling that the medication must be diluted will direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review the guidelines for the administration of potassium chloride. References: Gahart, B., & Nazareno, A. (2015). 2015 Intravenous medications (31st ed., pp. 1009-1010). St. Louis: Mosby.
44 / 100
A nurse notes that a client has ST-segment depression on the electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor. With which serum potassium reading does the nurse associate this finding?
A serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/L(3.5 mmol/L) is indicative of hypokalemia, the most common electrolyte imbalance, which is potentially life threatening. ECG changes in hypokalemia include peaked P waves, flat T waves, a depressed ST segment, and prominent U waves. Readings of 4.5 mEq/L (4.5 mmol/L)and 4.2 mEq/L (4.2 mmol/L)are normal potassium levels; 5.4 mEq/L (5.4 mmol/L)indicates hyperkalemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Begin to answer this question by recalling the normal range of values for serum potassium. Next it is necessary to know that ST-segment depression occurs in hypokalemia. If you had difficulty with this question, review the ECG changes that occur in hypokalemia.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 296, 791). St. Louis: Mosby.
45 / 100
A nurse is caring for a client who is being treated for congestive heart failure and has been assigned a nursing diagnosis of excessive fluid volume. Which assessment finding causes the nurse to determine that the client’s condition has improved?
One sign that excessive fluid volume is resolving is loss of body weight. It is important to recall that 1 L of fluid weighs 1 kg, which equals 2.2 lb (1 liter = 2.2 lb = 1 kg). The other options listed indicate that the client is retaining fluid. Assessment findings associated with excessive fluid volume include cough, dyspnea, rales or crackles, tachypnea, tachycardia, increased blood pressure and bounding pulse, increased central venous pressure, weight gain, edema, neck and hand vein distention, altered level of consciousness, and decreased hematocrit. These symptoms must be reversed if the fluid-volume excess is to be resolved.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, a sign that the client’s condition is improving. The only such finding is decreasing body weight. If you had difficulty with this question, review the assessment findings noted in excessive fluid volume and the signs that the condition is resolving.
46 / 100
A nurse is reviewing the medical records of the clients to whom she is assigned on the 7 am–7 pm shift. Which client will the nurse monitor most closely for excessive fluid volume?
The older adult client receiving IV therapy at 100 mL/hr is at the greatest risk for excessive fluid volume because of the diminished cardiovascular and renal function that occur with aging. Other causes of excessive fluid volume include renal failure, heart failure, liver disorders, excessive use of hypotonic IV fluids to replace isotonic losses, excessive irrigation of body fluids, and excessive ingestion of table salt. A client who is receiving diuretics, vomiting, or has a nasogastric tube attached to suction is at risk for deficient fluid volume.Test-Taking Strategy: Read the question carefully, noting that it asks for the client at risk for excessive fluid volume. Read each option and think about the fluid imbalance that could occur in each situation; in the case of the incorrect options, it is fluid-volume deficiency; the only option reflecting conditions that could result in an excess is the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review the causes of excessive fluid volume.
47 / 100
A client with gastroenteritis who has been vomiting and has diarrhea is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of dehydration. For which clinical manifestations that correlate with this fluid imbalance would the nurse assess the client? Select all that apply.
A client with dehydration has an increased depth and rate of respirations. The diminished fluid volume is perceived by the body as a decreased oxygen level (hypoxia), and increased respiration is an attempt to maintain oxygen delivery. Other assessment findings in insufficient fluid volume are decreased urine volume, increased pulse, weight loss, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, concentrated urine with increased specific gravity, increased hematocrit, and altered level of consciousness. Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse, and increased urine output occur with fluid-volume overload.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, dehydration (deficient fluid volume). Think about the pathophysiology of deficient fluid volume. Remember that the body will increase the respiratory rate in an attempt to maintain the oxygen level. If you had difficulty with this question, review the signs of insufficient fluid volume.
48 / 100
A nurse is assigned to care for four clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse see first on the shift assessment?
The client who should be seen first is the one with SOB and a history of pulmonary edema. In light of such a history, SOB could indicate that fluid-volume overload has once again developed. The client with a fever and who is diaphoretic is at risk for insufficient fluid volume as a result of loss of fluid through the skin, but this client is not the priority.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject of the question, the client who should be seen first. Recall the rule of assessment of the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — which means that the client experiencing SOB should take precedence over the other clients on the unit. This client’s condition could progress to respiratory arrest if the client were not assessed immediately on the basis of the signs and symptoms. Read each option and think about the client in most critical condition and review the disorders to determine which clients have the most critical needs. If you had difficulty with this question, review the various disease processes presented in this question.
49 / 100
A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone pulmonary angiography with catheter insertion through the right femoral vein. The nurse assesses for allergic reaction to the contrast medium by monitoring for the presence of which?
Signs of an allergic reaction to contrast dye include early signs, such as localized itching and edema, followed by more severe symptoms, such as respiratory distress, stridor, and decreased blood pressure. Discomfort in the catheter insertion area is to be expected and is not a sign of allergic reaction. Hematoma formation, which is abnormal and indicates bleeding, should be reported to the health care provider. Bradycardia is unrelated to the situation set forth in the question.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, signs of an allergic reaction to contrast medium. Eliminate bradycardia first because it is an unrelated event. Eliminate discomfort next, because it is expected after this procedure. Choose between the remaining options by focusing on the subject, an allergic reaction. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the signs of an allergic reaction.
50 / 100
A client who has just undergone bronchoscopy was returned to the nursing unit 1 hour ago. With which assessment finding is the nurse most concerned?
The absence of cough and gag reflexes is of greatest concern to the nurse because it indicates that the client does not have protective airway reflexes and is at risk of aspiration. Bilaterally equal breath sounds are a normal finding indicating an absence of complications such as hemothorax or pneumothorax. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation of 97% are normal measurements.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, most, which indicate the need to select the option that is cause for concern. Eliminate the normal assessment findings. Review care of the client after bronchoscopy.
51 / 100
A client has just undergone insertion of a chest tube that is attached to a closed chest drainage system. Which action should the nurse plan to take in the care of this client?
The nurse tapes all system connections to prevent accidental disconnection. Drainage is noted and recorded every hour during the first 24 hours after insertion and every 8 hours thereafter. Assessment for crepitus is performed once every 8 hours or more often if needed. Sterile water is only added to the suction control chamber as needed to replace evaporative loss.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, planning care for a client with a chest tube drainage system. Begin to answer this question by eliminating the options that call for a particular assessment or action every 24 hours, which is much too infrequent for the client who has just had a chest tube inserted. To select from the remaining options, recall that sterile water is only added to the suction control chamber as needed; this will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a chest tube.
52 / 100
A nurse is reading the radiology report of a client with a chest tube attached to a closed drainage system who has undergone a chest x-ray. The report states that the client’s affected lung is fully reexpanded. The nurse anticipates that the assessment of the chest tube system will reveal which finding?
When the client’s lung is fully reexpanded, the drainage system will no longer drain and fluctuation in the water seal chamber will be absent. This is because the lung has reexpanded and the pleural space is again a potential space. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system. Continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber means that suction is being applied to the system.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, chect tube drainage findings associated with a fully expanded lung. To answer this question correctly, you must recall the principles involved in a correctly functioning closed chest tube drainage system. Remember that when the lung has reexpanded, the system no longer functions. Also note the words “no fluctuation” in the correct option. Review assessment of a client with a chest tube.
53 / 100
A nurse is monitoring the respiratory status of a client who has just undergone surgery and is wearing a pulse oximeter. Which coexisting problem is cause for the nurse to suspect that the oxygen saturation readings are not entirely accurate?
Hypotension, shock, and the use of peripheral vasoconstricting medications may each result in inaccurate pulse oximetry readings because of the impairment of peripheral perfusion. The other options listed would not produce inaccurate readings.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, factors that affect pulse oximetry readings. Recall that pulse oximetry is a means of measuring oxygen saturation in blood flowing through the blood vessels in the periphery of the body. Any factor that impairs blood flow in this area may produce inaccurate measurement. With this concept in mind, you should be able to eliminate each of the incorrect options. Review the factors that affect a pulse oximetry reading.
54 / 100
A nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning on a client. Which observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.
The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects of suctioning, which include cyanosis, an excessively rapid or slow heart rate, and the sudden appearance of bloody secretions. If any of these findings is noted, the nurse stops suctioning and contacts the health care provider immediately. The descriptions in the other options are expected findings and not a reason for concern.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the findings that should be cause for concern to the nurse. This indicates that you are being asked to select the options that constitute abnormal or unexpected findings during suctioning of a client. Gagging is expected, so eliminate this option. Next eliminate clear to opaque secretions and heart rate ranging from 80 to 82 beats/min, because these are normal findings. Review the procedure for suctioning a client and the expected findings.
55 / 100
A client has a chest drainage system in place. The fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration. The nurse interprets this finding as an indication of which?
With normal breathing and a patent chest tube, the fluid level in the water seal chamber rises with inspiration and falls with expiration. The system should not be affected by airway secretions, because the chest tube drains fluid (not airway secretions) from the pleural space. The other options are incorrect interpretations.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, expected findings with a correctly functioning chest tube drainage system. Think about the purpose and physiological functioning of a chest tube system. Recalling that a fluctuating fluid level in the water seal chamber is expected will help you identify the correct option. Review care of the client with a chest tube drainage system.
56 / 100
A client who experienced the sudden onset of respiratory distress has been intubated with an endotracheal tube. After the tube is placed in the trachea, the nurse should take which immediate action?
Immediately after an endotracheal tube is inserted, tube placement is verified. Initially the lungs are assessed for bilateral breath sounds and the chest is observed to see whether it rises and falls symmetrically with ventilation. After it has been determined that the client is being adequately ventilated, the tube is taped in place and placement is verified by means of chest x-ray. The depth of tube insertion is documented.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediate” in the query of the question. Recalling the sequence of events after endotracheal intubation will direct you to the correct option. Also, use your knowledge of the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to identify the correct option. Review the procedures involved in intubation.
57 / 100
Oxygen by way of nasal cannula has been prescribed for a client with emphysema. The nurse checks the health care provider’s prescriptions to ensure that the prescribed flow is not greater than which liter (L) per minute (min)?
Because the client with emphysema has long-standing hypercapnia, the respiratory drive is triggered by a low oxygen level rather than by a high carbon dioxide level. Too much oxygen in this client could cause respiratory failure. The client with emphysema usually receives oxygen at a flow rate of 1 to 2 (and no more than 3) L/min.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the safe oxygen liter flow for a client with emphysema. Recalling the physiology of emphysema and remembering that the client with emphysema has long-standing hypercapnia will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with emphysema.
58 / 100
A nurse is watching as a nursing student suctions a client through a tracheostomy tube. Which actions on the part of the student would prompt the nurse to intervene and demonstrate correct procedure? Select all that apply.
The client with a tracheostomy tube should be positioned with the head of the bed elevated. Correct suction pressure for the adult client is 80 to 120 mm Hg. Suction is applied intermittently during catheter withdrawal. Breath sounds should be assessed before the procedure to help determine the need for suctioning. The client should be hyperoxygenated with 100% oxygen before suctioning.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, incorrect suctioning procedure. Noting the words “to intervene,” which should tell you that the correct answer is an incorrect nursing action. Visualizing the procedure and recalling the principles of suctioning will direct you to the correct options. Review the procedure for suctioning.
59 / 100
A nurse is watching as an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) measure the blood pressure (BP) of a hypertensive client. Which actions on the part of the UAP would interfere with accurate measurement and prompt the nurse to intervene? Select all that apply.
The client should not smoke tobacco or drink a beverage containing caffeine for at least 30 minutes before having the BP measured. The bladder of the cuff should encircle at least 80% of the limb being measured. The client should be seated with the arm bared, positioned with support and at heart level. The client should sit with the legs on the floor, feet uncrossed, and not speak during the recording. The client should rest quietly for 5 minutes before the reading is taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, actions that would interfere with accurate BP measurement. Visualizing this procedure and reading each option carefully will assist you in eliminating the incorrect options. Review the principles related to blood pressure measurement.
60 / 100
A client has undergone pericardiocentesis to treat cardiac tamponade. For which signs should the nurse assess the client to determine whether the tamponade is recurring?
After effective pericardiocentesis, an increase in blood pressure and a decrease in CVP are expected. The pulse may slow because less cardiac work is needed to produce adequate cardiac output. Distant muffled heart sounds that were noted before the test should become clear with effective pericardiocentesis. A return of distant muffled heart sounds indicates returning pericardial effusion and possible tamponade.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, recurring cardiac tamponade. This tells you that the correct option is a symptom of the original problem, cardiac tamponade. Recalling the signs of cardiac tamponade will direct you to the correct option. Review these signs of cardiac tamponade.
61 / 100
A nurse has a prescription to apply a Holter monitor to a client for continuous cardiac monitoring for a 24-hour period. What steps should the nurse take to initiate this prescription? Select all that apply
The nurse applies electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring leads to the chest in the usual fashion and gives the client a sling or holder to carry the transistor radio–sized monitor (walkie-talkie), which is worn around the chest or waist. Clients undergoing Holter monitoring are instructed to maintain a normal schedule and to keep a diary of all activity and symptoms. The client is told to avoid activities — such as operating heavy machinery, electric shavers, or hairdryers; bathing; or showering — that could interfere with the ECG recording. The client does not feel any shocks from the device.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, procedure for a Holter monitor. Taking a bath while attached to a Holter monitor is contraindicated and slight shocks do not occur, so these options are eliminated first. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours is eliminated because it could prevent the client from experiencing dysrhythmias that the monitor is supposed to detect. Review the procedure for Holter monitoring.
62 / 100
63 / 100
A nurse in a health care provider’s office has just made an appointment for a client to undergo an exercise stress test. The nurse, in providing pre-procedure teaching, should provide which information to the client?
The client should wear comfortable rubber-soled, such as sneakers, for the procedure. The client wears light, loose, comfortable clothing; a shirt that buttons in front is helpful for electrocardiogram (ECG) lead placement. The client should be NPO after bedtime, or for a minimum of 2 hours before the test, and should avoid tobacco, alcohol, and caffeine on the day of the test.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client teaching for an exercise stress test. Eliminate options that could interfere with test results, such as digestion, alcohol, caffeine, smoking, and restrictive or uncomfortable clothing. This will direct you to the correct option. Review client teaching for exercise stress testing.
64 / 100
A client who has sustained a myocardial infarction is scheduled to have an echocardiogram. Which measure should the nurse take before the procedure?
In echocardiography, ultrasound is used to evaluate the heart’s structure and motion. It is a noninvasive, risk-free, pain-free test that involves no special preparation and is commonly performed at the bedside or on an outpatient basis. The client must lie quietly for 30 to 60 minutes while the procedure is being performed. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, preparing the client for an echocardiogram. Recalling that echocardiography involves the use of ultrasound and that ultrasound is noninvasive, safe, and painless should help you eliminate the incorrect options. Review echocardiogram.
65 / 100
A nurse provides information to a client who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization to rule out coronary occlusion. The nurse should provide which information to the client?
The nurse tells the client about to undergo cardiac catheterization room that the procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department. A local anesthetic is used, so there is little or no pain with catheter insertion. The procedure may take as long as 2 hours, during which time the client may feel various sensations including a feeling of warmth or flushing, with catheter passage and dye injection. The x-ray table is hard and may be tilted periodically to obtain the best possible views.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the cardiac catheterization procedure. Recalling that this is a diagnostic procedure will help you eliminate the option in which the nurse tells the client that the procedure is performed in the operating room. The duration of the procedure (4 hours) identified in this incorrect option should cause you to eliminate it, and the use of the words “bright and well lit” indicate an incorrect option. Review the procedure for cardiac catheterization
66 / 100
A nurse reviews a client’s urinalysis report. Which finding does the nurse recognize as abnormal?
The normal pH range of urine is 4.5 to 7.8, and normal specific gravity ranges from 1.016 to 1.022. The urine is typically screened for protein, glucose, ketones, bilirubin, casts, crystals, red blood cells, and white blood cells, none of which should be present.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, an abnormal finding in the urinalysis. The words “the presence of” should direct you to the correct option. Review normal urinalysis findings
67 / 100
A client has undergone renal angiography by way of the right femoral artery. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing a complication of the procedure on noting which finding?
Complications of renal angiography include allergic reaction to the dye, dye-induced renal damage, and a number of vascular complications, including hemorrhage, thrombosis, and embolism. The nurse detects these complications by monitoring the client for signs and symptoms of allergic reaction, decreased urine output, hematoma or hemorrhage at the insertion site, and signs of diminished circulation to the affected leg. The incorrect options are normal findings.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject “a complication of the procedure,” which should tell you that the correct option is an abnormal assessment finding. Eliminate the incorrect options, because they are normal findings. Pallor and coolness indicate thrombosis or hematoma and should be further assessed and reported. Review the signs of complications after renal angiography
68 / 100
A client who has undergone renal biopsy complains of pain, radiating to the front of the abdomen, at the biopsy site. For which finding should the nurse assess the client?
Bleeding should be suspected if pain originates at the biopsy site and begins to radiate to the flank area and around to the front of the abdomen. Hypotension, a decreasing hematocrit, and gross or microscopic hematuria are also indicators of bleeding. Signs of infection would not appear immediately after a biopsy. There is no information in the question to indicate the presence of renal colic.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options of increased temperature and infection at the site first because they are comparable or alike. To choose between the remaining options, recall that the information in the question is not indicative of renal colic. Review the complications associated with renal biopsy
69 / 100
A nurse is preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP). Which action by the nurse is most important?
Some IVP dyes are iodine based; if the dye to be used in this procedure is one of them and the client has an allergy to iodine or shellfish, he may experience an allergic reaction, manifested as itching, hives, rash, a tight feeling in the throat, shortness of breath, or bronchospasm. For this reason, assessing the client for allergies is the priority. The dye is injected intravenously. The client may or may not receive premedication. Nothing-by-mouth status is generally imposed after midnight on the day before the test.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, most important. Noting the word “intravenous” in the name of the test indicates that a dye will be injected. This will help direct you to the correct option. Review the priority assessments in preprocedure care for an IVP.
70 / 100
A nurse has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which measure should the nurse take during this procedure?
Because the 24-hour urine collection is a timed quantitative determination, the test must be started with an empty bladder. Therefore the first urine is discarded. Fifteen minutes before the end of the collection time, the client should be asked to void, and this specimen is added to the collection. The collection should be refrigerated or placed on ice to help prevent changes in urine composition.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, collecting collecting a 24-hour urine specimen. Think about the purpose and procdure of collecting a specimen. Recalling that the 24-hour urine collection is a timed quantitative determination will assist you in identifying the correct option. Review the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen
71 / 100
A client has just undergone a renal biopsy. Which intervention should the nurse include in the post-procedure plan of care?
After renal biopsy, bed rest is maintained and the client’s vital signs and puncture site are assessed frequently. Urine is tested periodically for occult blood to detect bleeding as a complication. Fluids are encouraged to reduce the risk of clot formation at the biopsy site. Opioid analgesics are often needed to manage the renal colic pain that some clients feel after this procedure.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, postprocedure care following renal biopsy. Think about what a biopsy entails. Recalling that pain and bleeding are potential concerns after this procedure will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client after renal biopsy
72 / 100
A CD4+ lymphocyte count is performed on a client who is infected with HIV. The results of the test indicate a CD4+ count of 450 cells per cubic millimeter of blood. The nurse interprets this test result as indicating which?
The normal CD4+ count is between 500 to 1,500 cells per cubic millimeter of blood.Antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4+ count is less than 500 cells per cubic millimeter of bloodor below 25%, or when the client shows symptoms of HIV. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the incorrect options because they are comparable or alike in that they indicate a positive response to treatment. Review the CD4+ count and the interpretation of its results.
73 / 100
A client is tested for HIV with the use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and the test result is positive. The nurse should provide which information to the client about the test?
The normal value for an ELISA test is negative. A positive ELISA test must be confirmed with the use of the Western Blot. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully and focus on the subject, that the test result is positive. Recalling that an ELISA test is an HIV antibody-screening test and that a positive result must be confirmed with the use of the Western blot will direct you to the correct option. Review interpretations of the results of an ELISA test
74 / 100
A nurse is providing post-procedure instructions to a client returning home after arthroscopy of the shoulder. The nurse should provide the client with which information?
After arthroscopy, signs and symptoms of infection such as fever or redness and heat at the site should be reported to the health care provider. The client may resume the usual diet immediately. The arm does not have to be completely immobilized once sensation has returned, but the client is usually encouraged to refrain from strenuous activity for at least a few days.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client instructions after arthroscopy of the shoulder. Eliminate keeping the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day and resuming full activity the next day, because they represent extremes of activity variations. To select from the remaining options, remember that the client is always taught to report signs and symptoms of infection to the health care provider. Review client instructions after arthroscopy
75 / 100
76 / 100
Blood is drawn from a male client with suspected uric acid calculi for a serum uric acid determination. Which value does the nurse recognize as a normal uric acid level?
The normal range for uric acid is 4.4 to 7.6 mg/dL (262 to 452 μmol/L)for males and 2.3 to 6.6 mg/dL (137 to 393 μmol/L)for females. Therefore the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the normal uric acid reference range for a male. To answer this question correctly, you must be familiar with the normal range of values for serum uric acid. Review the normal reference range for uric acid for males and females
77 / 100
A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test?
Preprocedure care for EEG involves client teaching about the procedure, ensuring that the client’s hair has been freshly shampooed, and providing a light meal and fluids to prevent hypoglycemia, which could alter brain waves. Medications such as antidepressants, tranquilizers, and anticonvulsants are withheld for 24 to 48 hours before the procedure as prescribed. Stimulants such as coffee, tea, cola, alcohol, and cigarettes are also withheld.Test-Taking Strategy: Use your knowledge of the EEG procedure to answer the question and note the strategic words “needs additional preparation.” These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling the purpose of an EEG and the anatomical location of this test will direct you to the correct option. Review preparation for an EEG
78 / 100
A client has just returned to the nursing unit after computerized tomography (CT) with contrast medium. Which action should the nurse plan to take as part of routine after-care for this client?
After CT scanning, the client may resume all usual activities. The client should be encouraged to consume extra fluids to replace those lost during diuresis of the contrast dye. Medications do not have to be withheld. There is no reason to administer a laxative; also, a health care provider’s prescription is needed for this intervention.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, aftercare following CT scanning. Note the words “contrast medium” in the question. Recalling the importance of flushing the dye from the system after this procedure will direct you to the correct option. Review care after a CT scan
79 / 100
A client has just undergone lumbar puncture. Into which position does the nurse assist the client after the procedure?
After lumbar puncture, the client must remain flat for as long as 12 hours to help prevent post-procedure spinal headache and leakage of cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they all involve elevation of the client’s head. Review care of the client after lumbar puncture
80 / 100
A client has been scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). For which condition, a contraindication to MRI, does the nurse check the client’s medical history?
The candidate for MRI must be free of metal devices or implants. A careful history is conducted to determine whether any such metal objects, such as orthopedic hardware, pacemakers, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, and intrauterine devices, are inside the client. These may heat up in the magnetic field generated by the MRI device, become dislodged, or malfunction during the procedure. The other medical problems listed do not pose a risk or contraindication for this procedure.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that each of the incorrect options are comparable or alike and are medical disorders. The correct option is the name of a procedure in which a device is implanted into the client. Remember that it is crucial to ensure that there are no metal objects in the vicinity of the MRI machine. Review contraindications to MRI
81 / 100
A client who underwent preadmission testing 1 week before surgery had blood drawn for several serum laboratory studies. Which abnormal laboratory results should the nurse report to the surgeon’s office? Select all that apply.
Routine screening tests include complete blood cell count, serum electrolyte analysis, coagulation studies, and serum creatinine tests. The complete blood cell count includes the hemoglobin and hematocrit analysis. All of these values are within their normal ranges except the hemoglobin and hematocrit. If a client has low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, the surgery may be postponed by the surgeon. The normal hemoglobin level for a male ranges from 13.2 to 17.3 g/dL (132-173 g/L) and for a female, 11.7 to 15.5 g/dL (117-155 g/L). The normal hematocrit for a male ranges from 39% to 50% ( 0.39-0.50) and for a female, 35% to 47% ( 0.35-0.47).Test-Taking Strategy: Note the word “abnormal” in the question and focus on the subject, laboratory results that could necessitate the postponement of surgery. Recalling the normal values for the laboratory studies identified in the options will direct you to the correct ones. Review these normal laboratory values
82 / 100
A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above which value?
Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected reading is at least 95%. Therefore the other options are incorrect. Readings of 85% and 89% are lower than what is desired in the postoperative period. A level of 100% is most desirable, but the level should remain at least 95%Test-Taking Strategy: Note the information in the question and that the client is without a history of respiratory disease. Familiarity with the pulse oximeter and normal readings is needed to answer this question. Noting the word “above” in the question will help you answer correctly. Review the purpose and expected results of pulse oximetry.
83 / 100
A nurse receives a telephone call from a nurse on the post-anesthesia care unit, who reports that a client is being transferred to the surgical unit. What should the nurse plan to do first on arrival of the client?
The first action of the nurse is to assess the patency of the airway. The nurse then performs an assessment of cardiovascular function, the condition of the surgical site, the patency of tubes and drains for patency, and the function of the central nervous system. If the airway is not patent, immediate measures must be taken to help ensure the survival of the client.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation). Airway patency is the priority. The incorrect options are all nursing actions that should be performed after a patent airway has been established. Review priority nursing assessments in the client who has undergone surgery
84 / 100
A nurse is preparing a client for transfer to the operating room. Which action should the take in the care of this client at this time?
The nurse should ensure that the client has voided if a Foley catheter is not in place. The nurse does not administer all daily medications just before sending a client to the operating room. Rather, the health care provider writes a specific prescription outlining which medications may be given with a sip of water. The client is usually prescribed to have nothing by mouth for 8 hours before surgery, not 24 hours. The time of transfer to the operating room is not the time to practice breathing exercises. This should have been done earlier.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the words “at this time.” Eliminate the option that involves administering all daily medications because of the close-ended word “all.” Eliminate the option that involves verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours because of the words “last 24 hours.” To select from the remaining options, focus on the words “at this time”; this will direct you to the correct option. Remember that the client is likely to be anxious at this time, meaning that it would be inappropriate to practice breathing exercises. Review preoperative client care measures
85 / 100
A nurse administers scopolamine as prescribed to a client. For which side effect of this medication does the nurse monitor the client?
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic medication, often causes the side effects of dry mouth, urine retention, decreased sweating, and pupil dilation. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the side effects of scopolamine. Recalling the classification of this medication and that this medication dries body secretions will direct you to the correct option. Review the expected side effects of scopolamine
86 / 100
A client in the postanesthesia care unit has an as-needed prescription for ondansetron. Which occurrence would prompt the nurse to administer this medication to the client?
Ondansetron is an antiemetic that is used in the treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. This medication is not used to treat any of the problems identified in the other options.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, the action and use of ondansetron. To answer this question accurately, it is necessary to know the classification of this medication. Focusing on the clinical setting identified in the question should narrow your choices to nausea and vomiting and incisional pain. To correctly select from these two options, it is necessary to know that ondansetron is an antiemetic. Review the action of ondansetron
87 / 100
A nurse is caring for a client who has just regained bowel sounds after undergoing surgery. The health care provider has prescribed a clear liquid diet for the client. Which item does the nurse ensure is available in the client’s room before allowing the client to drink?
Aspiration is a concern when fluids are offered to a client who has just undergone surgery. It is possible that the swallow reflex is still impaired as an effect of anesthesia. The nurse checks the gag and swallow reflexes before offering fluids to the client, but suction equipment still must be available. An oxygen saturation monitor is unnecessary when fluids are being administered, nor is a napkin or straw necessary; in fact, the straw could contribute to the formation of flatus, resulting in gastrointestinal discomfort.Test-Taking Strategy: The subject of the question is protecting the client’s gag and swallow reflexes. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to answer this question. The correct option helps maintain airway clearance. Review care of the client who has recently undergone surgery and is beginning a clear liquid diet.
88 / 100
A client recovering from surgery has a large abdominal wound. Which food, high in vitamin C, should the nurse encourage the client to eat as a means of promoting wound healing?
Citrus fruits and juices are especially high in vitamin C. Other sources are potatoes, tomatoes, and other fruits and vegetables. Meats and dairy products are not especially high in vitamin C. Meats are high in protein. Dairy products are high in calcium.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate steak and veal first because they are comparable or alike in that they are meats. To select from the remaining options, recall that cheese is high in calcium, not vitamin C; this will direct you to the correct option. Review foods high in vitamin C
89 / 100
A nurse is assessing the chest tube drainage system of a postoperative client who has undergone a right upper lobectomy. The closed drainage system contains 300 mL of bloody drainage, and the nurse notes intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber. One hour after the initial assessment, the nurse notes that the bubbling in the water seal chamber is now constant, and the client appears dyspneic. On the basis of these findings, what should the nurse assess first?
The client’s dyspnea is most likely related to an air leak caused by a loose connection. Other causes might be a tear or incision in the pulmonary pleura, which requires health care provider intervention. Although the interventions identified in the other options should also be taken in this situation, they should be performed only after the nurse has tried to locate and correct the air leak. It only takes a moment to check the connections, and if a leak is found and corrected, the client’s symptoms should resolve.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” and focus on the data in the question. Recalling that a constant bubbling in the water seal chamber could indicate a leak in the system will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a closed chest tube drainage system
90 / 100
A nurse is preparing for intershift report when an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) pulls an emergency call light in a client’s room. Upon answering the light, the nurse finds a client who returned from surgery earlier in the day experiencing tachycardia and tachypnea. The client’s blood pressure is 88/60 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
The client is exhibiting signs of shock and requires emergency intervention. The first action is to place the client in a modified Trendelenburg position (flat with the legs elevated) to increase blood return from the legs, which in turn increases venous return and subsequently the blood pressure. The nurse calls the health care provider, verifies the client’s blood volume status by assessing urine output, and ensures that the IV infusion is proceeding without complications.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation). The correct option addresses the client’s circulatory status. Review the nursing interventions to be taken immediately in the event of postoperative shock
91 / 100
A nurse is getting a client out of bed for the first time since surgery. The nurse raises the head of the bed, and the client complains of dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first?
Dizziness or a feeling of faintness is not uncommon when a client is positioned upright for the first time after surgery. If this occurs, the nurse lowers the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness is relieved. The nurse then checks the client’s pulse and blood pressure. Because the problem is circulatory, not respiratory, checking the oxygen saturation level and having the client take some deep breaths are not the first actions to be taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Note the relationship between the subject of the question (the client becomes dizzy) and the correct answer. Review unexpected outcomes after surgery and the priority nursing interventions in the event of such outcomes
92 / 100
A nurse is assessing a postoperative client on an hourly basis. The nurse notes that the client’s urine output for the past hour was 25 mL. On the basis of this finding, the nurse should take which action first?
Clients are at risk for becoming hypovolemic after surgery, and often the first sign of hypovolemia is decreasing urine output. However, the nurse needs additional data to make an accurate interpretation. Neither an increase in the rate of the IV infusion nor administration of a 250-mL bolus of normal saline (0.9%) would be implemented without a prescription from the health care provider. The health care provider is called once the nurse has gathered all necessary assessment data, including the overall fluid status and vital signs.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Try to visualize the situation and use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. The correct option addresses the process of assessment. Eliminate increasing the rate of the IV infusion and administering a 250-mL bolus of normal saline (0.9%), because each requires a health care provider’s prescription. In this situation, the nurse needs to gather additional information before contacting the health care provider. Review unexpected outcomes after surgery and priority nursing interventions in the event of such outcomes
93 / 100
A nurse assesses the closed chest tube drainage system of a client who underwent lobectomy 24 hours ago. The nurse notes that there has been no chest tube drainage for the past hour.Which action should the nurse take first?
If a chest tube is not draining, the nurse must first check for a kink or clot in the chest drainage system. The nurse also observes the client for signs of respiratory distress or mediastinal shift; and if such signs are noted, the health care provider is notified. Checking the heart rate and blood pressure is not directly related to the lack of chest tube drainage. Connecting a new drainage system to the client’s chest tube is done once the fluid drainage chamber is full. A specific procedure is followed when a new drainage system is connected to a client’s chest tube.Test-Taking Strategy: Note strategic word “first.” Focusing on the subject, a lack of chest tube drainage, will direct you to the correct option. Review unexpected outcomes and related interventions in the care of a chest tube drainage system
94 / 100
A nurse is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the client begins to cough, and the nurse hears a wheeze. The nurse tries to remove the suction catheter from the client’s trachea but is unable to do so. Which action should the nurse take first?
Inability to remove a suction catheter is a critical situation. This finding, along with the client’s symptoms presented in the question, indicates the presence of bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction. The nurse immediately disconnects the suction source from the catheter but leave the catheter in the trachea. The nurse then connects the oxygen source to the catheter. The health care provider is notified and will most likely prescribe an inhaled bronchodilator. The nurse also prepares for emergency resuscitation if the bronchospasm is not relieved.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Eliminate the option of administering a bronchodilator, because this action requires a health care provider’s prescription. To select from the remaining options, visualize the situation presented in the question. Noting that the nurse is unable to remove the suction catheter from the client’s trachea will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of a complication during suctioning
95 / 100
A nurse performing nasopharyngeal suctioning and suddenly notes the presence of bloody secretions. Which action should the nurse take first?
The return of bloody secretions is an unexpected outcome of suctioning. If it occurs, the nurse should first assess the client and then determine the degree of suction being applied. The degree of suction pressure may need to be decreased. The nurse must also remember to apply intermittent suction and perform catheter rotation during suctioning. Continuing the suctioning or performing vigorous suctioning through the mouth will result in increased trauma and therefore increased bleeding. Suctioning is normally performed on clients who are unable to expectorate secretions. It is therefore unlikely that the client will be able to cough out the bloody secretions.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Eliminate the options of continuing the suctioning to remove the blood and removing the suction catheter from the nose to begin vigorous suctioning through the mouth, because they are comparable or alike. Next eliminate the option that involves encouraging the client to cough out the bloody secretions, because it is unlikely that the client will be able to do so. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of a complication during suctioning
96 / 100
A nurse is helping a client with a closed chest tube drainage system get out of bed and into a chair. During the transfer, the chest tube is caught on the leg of the chair and dislodged from the insertion site. What is the immediate nursing action?
If a chest tube is dislodged from the insertion site, the nurse immediately covers the site with sterile occlusive dressing. The nurse then performs a respiratory assessment, helps the client back into bed, and contacts the health care provider. The nurse does not reinsert the chest tube. The health care providerwill reinsert the chest tube as necessary.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediate.” Eliminate the option that involves reinsertion of the chest tube first, because a nurse is not trained to insert a chest tube. To select from the remaining options, focus on the subject, dislodgment of a chest tube from its insertion site, and recall the complications associated with this occurrence; this will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of complications associated with a closed chest tube drainage system
97 / 100
A nurse is assessing a client who has a closed chest tube drainage system. The nurse notes constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. What actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply).
Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber of a closed chest tube drainage system may indicate the presence of an air leak. The nurse would assess the chest tube system for the presence of an external air leak if constant bubbling were noted in this chamber. If an external air leak is not present and the air leak is a new occurrence, the health care provider is notified immediately, because an air leak may be present in the pleural space. Leakage and trapping of air in the pleural space can result in a tension pneumothorax. Clamping the chest tube is incorrect. Additionally, a chest tube is not clamped unless this has been specifically prescribed in the agency’s policies and procedures. Changing the drainage system will not alleviate the problem. Reducing the degree of suction being applied will not affect the bubbling in the water seal chamber and could be harmful. The nurse would document the assessment findings and interventions taken in the client’s medical record.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question, noting that there is bubbling in the water seal chamber. Use knowledge regarding the priority actions in the care of a closed chest tube drainage system. Recalling that this may indicate an air leak will direct you to the correct options. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event that complications of a closed chest tube drainage system occur
98 / 100
A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects that the client has a pulmonary embolism and immediately sets about to take which action?
Pulmonary embolism is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen is immediately administered nasally to relieve hypoxemia, respiratory distress, and central cyanosis, and thehealth care provideris notified. IV infusion lines are needed to administer medications or fluids. A perfusion scan, among other tests, may be performed. The electrocardiogram is monitored for the presence of dysrhythmias. Additionally, a urinary catheter may be inserted and blood for arterial blood gas determinations drawn. The immediate priority, however, is the administration of oxygen.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the client’s diagnosis and use the skills of prioritizing. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to find the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of pulmonary embolism
99 / 100
A client who just returned from the recovery room after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy is restless and the pulse rate is increased. As the nurse continues the assessment, the client begins to vomit a copious amount of bright-red blood. The nurse should take which immediate action?
Hemorrhage is a potential complication after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. If the client vomits a large amount of bright-red blood or the pulse rate increases and the patient is restless, the nurse must notify the surgeon immediately. The nurse should obtain a light, mirror, gauze, curved hemostat, and waste basin to facilitate examination of the surgical site. The nurse should also gather additional assessment data, but the surgeon must be contacted immediately.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, immediate. Noting the words “bright-red blood” will assist in directing you to the correct option. Remember that the presence of bright-red blood indicates active bleeding. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately when bleeding occurs after a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy
100 / 100
A client who has undergone abdominal surgery calls the nurse and reports that she just felt “something give way” in the abdominal incision. The nurse checks the incision and notes the presence of wound dehiscence. The nurse should take which immediate action?
Wound dehiscence is the disruption of a surgical incision or wound. When dehiscence occurs, the nurse immediately places the client in a low Fowler’s position or supine with the knees bent and instructs the client to lie quietly. These actions will minimize protrusion of the underlying tissues. The nurse then covers the wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline. The health care provider is notified, and the nurse documents the occurrence and the nursing actions that were implemented in response.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediate.” Visualize this occurrence and recall that the primary concern when wound dehiscence occurs is the protrusion of underlying tissues. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event of wound dehiscence
Your score is
Please rate this Quiz
0% 61 Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically. Thanks for attempting the quiz Nclex Content Review Class One – Week Two Week Two Assessment The number of attempts remaining is 1 User Information 1 / 96 A nurse is assisting a client with a closed chest tube drainage system in bathing. As the nurse is turning the client onto his side, the chest tube is disconnected. What should the nurse do first? A. Call the health care provider B. Clamp the chest tube with a Kelly clamp C. Instruct the client to inhale and hold his breath D. Submerge the end of the chest tube in a bottle of sterile water If the tube becomes disconnected, it is best to immediately reattach it to the drainage system or to submerge the end in a bottle of sterile water or saline solution to reestablish a water seal. The health care provider must be notified, but this is not the first action. The client would not be instructed to inhale, because this would cause atmospheric air to enter the pleural space. In most situations, clamping of chest tubes is contraindicated. When the client has a residual air leak or pneumothorax, clamping the chest tube may precipitate a tension pneumothorax, because the air has no escape route.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “first.” Thinking about the principles related to a chest tube drainage system will direct you to the correct option. Remember that if the tube is disconnected the water seal must be reestablished. Review: the immediate nursing actions related to the complications associated with a closed chest tube drainage system .Reference: Black, J., & Hawks, J. (2009). Medical-surgical nursing: Clinical management for positive outcomes (8th ed., p. 1624). St. Louis: Saunders. If the tube becomes disconnected, it is best to immediately reattach it to the drainage system or to submerge the end in a bottle of sterile water or saline solution to reestablish a water seal. The health care provider must be notified, but this is not the first action. The client would not be instructed to inhale, because this would cause atmospheric air to enter the pleural space. In most situations, clamping of chest tubes is contraindicated. When the client has a residual air leak or pneumothorax, clamping the chest tube may precipitate a tension pneumothorax, because the air has no escape route.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “first.” Thinking about the principles related to a chest tube drainage system will direct you to the correct option. Remember that if the tube is disconnected the water seal must be reestablished. Review: the immediate nursing actions related to the complications associated with a closed chest tube drainage system .Reference: Black, J., & Hawks, J. (2009). Medical-surgical nursing: Clinical management for positive outcomes (8th ed., p. 1624). St. Louis: Saunders. 2 / 96 A nurse is performing suctioning through an adult client’s tracheostomy tube. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 89% and terminates the procedure. Which action would the nurse take next? A. Calling the health care provider B. Calling the respiratory therapist C. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading D. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen The nurse should monitor the client’s heart rate and pulse oximetry during suctioning to assess the client’s tolerance of the procedure. Oxygen desaturation to below 90% indicates hypoxemia. If hypoxia occurs during suctioning, the nurse must terminate the procedure and oxygenate the client with 100% oxygen. Although the nurse would monitor the client’s pulse oximetry, an improvement would not be expected until the client is reoxygenated. It is not necessary to contact the health care provider or the respiratory therapist at this time.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to answer the question. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: the complications associated with suctioning and the appropriate nursing interventions .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 584). St. Louis: Saunders The nurse should monitor the client’s heart rate and pulse oximetry during suctioning to assess the client’s tolerance of the procedure. Oxygen desaturation to below 90% indicates hypoxemia. If hypoxia occurs during suctioning, the nurse must terminate the procedure and oxygenate the client with 100% oxygen. Although the nurse would monitor the client’s pulse oximetry, an improvement would not be expected until the client is reoxygenated. It is not necessary to contact the health care provider or the respiratory therapist at this time.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to answer the question. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: the complications associated with suctioning and the appropriate nursing interventions .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 584). St. Louis: Saunders 3 / 96 A client whose right leg is in skeletal traction complains of pain in the leg. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Realigning the client B. Asking the client to wiggle her toes C. Removing some of the traction weights D. Medicating the client with the prescribed analgesic A client who complains of severe pain may need realignment or may have traction weights that are too heavy. The nurse would first realign the client and then, if this is ineffective, call the physician. Asking the client to wiggle her toes serves no useful purpose. The nurse never removes traction weights unless this has been specifically prescribed by the physician. The client should be medicated only after an effort has been made to determine and treat the cause of her pain.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Recall the causes of pain in a client with skeletal traction and remember that the nurse first determines and treats the cause. Review: care of the client in traction .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 1190). St. Louis: Saunders. A client who complains of severe pain may need realignment or may have traction weights that are too heavy. The nurse would first realign the client and then, if this is ineffective, call the physician. Asking the client to wiggle her toes serves no useful purpose. The nurse never removes traction weights unless this has been specifically prescribed by the physician. The client should be medicated only after an effort has been made to determine and treat the cause of her pain.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Recall the causes of pain in a client with skeletal traction and remember that the nurse first determines and treats the cause. Review: care of the client in traction .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 1190). St. Louis: Saunders. 4 / 96 A nurse is reading the nurse practice act for the state in which she is employed. The nurse uses the information in this act to: A. Identify healthcare policies in her state B. Know how to perform certain procedures C. Be aware of the role of the professional nurse D. Be aware of hospital and long-term care facilities policies A nurse practice act regulates the licensure and practice of nursing. Nurse practice acts describe in general terms what constitutes nursing practice. Actions that are considered unprofessional conduct are usually identified. Guidelines for procedures and policies are formulated by the specific healthcare agency. The healthcare policies of the state in question are not identified in a nurse practice act.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the relationship between the words “nurse practice act” in the question and “role of the professional nurse” in the correct option. Review: the purpose of the nurse practice act .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 8, 9). St. Louis: Mosby. A nurse practice act regulates the licensure and practice of nursing. Nurse practice acts describe in general terms what constitutes nursing practice. Actions that are considered unprofessional conduct are usually identified. Guidelines for procedures and policies are formulated by the specific healthcare agency. The healthcare policies of the state in question are not identified in a nurse practice act.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the relationship between the words “nurse practice act” in the question and “role of the professional nurse” in the correct option. Review: the purpose of the nurse practice act .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 8, 9). St. Louis: Mosby. 5 / 96 A nurse is reviewing the notes written by a nurse on a previous shift. Which note in the client’s record reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation? A. The client seems anxious B. The client’s intake was 360 mL C. The client’s wound is healing well D. The client is voiding large amounts Quality documentation and reporting have five important characteristics: factual, accurate, complete, current, and organized. Using an accurate measurement of intake is correct. The use of the word “seems” indicates that the nurse did not know the facts. Using the word “well” is also incorrect, because it does not provide an accurate observation. Likewise, using the word “large” does not provide an accurate measurement.Test-Taking Strategy: Recall the characteristics of quality documentation and reporting. Also note that the correct option is the only one that is specific. Review: the guidelines for documentation .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 388). St. Louis: Mosby. Quality documentation and reporting have five important characteristics: factual, accurate, complete, current, and organized. Using an accurate measurement of intake is correct. The use of the word “seems” indicates that the nurse did not know the facts. Using the word “well” is also incorrect, because it does not provide an accurate observation. Likewise, using the word “large” does not provide an accurate measurement.Test-Taking Strategy: Recall the characteristics of quality documentation and reporting. Also note that the correct option is the only one that is specific. Review: the guidelines for documentation .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 388). St. Louis: Mosby. 6 / 96 A nurse is supervising a new nursing graduate in various procedures. Which of the following actions by the new nursing graduate constitutes a negligent act? A. Contacting a health care provider about a change in a client’s blood pressure B. Using clean gloves to change a gastrostomy tube dressing C. Checking neurological signs in a client with a head injury D. Giving a verbal report to the nurse on the oncoming shift Common negligent acts include medication errors that result in injury to the client; intravenous therapy errors resulting in infiltrations or phlebitis; burns caused by equipment, bathing, or spills of hot liquids and foods; falls resulting in an injury; failure to use aseptic technique where required; failure to give report or giving an incomplete report to an oncoming shift; failure to adequately monitor a client’s condition; and failure to notify a health care provider of a significant change in a client’s condition. Using clean gloves is a negligent act. The nurse would use sterile gloves to change a dressing over broken skin.Test-Taking Strategy: and focus on the subject, a negligent act. Read each option carefully; note the word “clean” in the correct option. Review: the concept of negligence .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 332). St. Louis: Mosby. Common negligent acts include medication errors that result in injury to the client; intravenous therapy errors resulting in infiltrations or phlebitis; burns caused by equipment, bathing, or spills of hot liquids and foods; falls resulting in an injury; failure to use aseptic technique where required; failure to give report or giving an incomplete report to an oncoming shift; failure to adequately monitor a client’s condition; and failure to notify a health care provider of a significant change in a client’s condition. Using clean gloves is a negligent act. The nurse would use sterile gloves to change a dressing over broken skin.Test-Taking Strategy: and focus on the subject, a negligent act. Read each option carefully; note the word “clean” in the correct option. Review: the concept of negligence .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 332). St. Louis: Mosby. 7 / 96 An 18-year-old client is brought to the emergency department (ED) by emergency medical services after sustaining life-threatening injuries in an automobile accident. The client is unconscious and requires an emergency splenectomy. A nurse in the ED assists in quickly preparing the client for surgery and tries to contact the client’s parents but is unsuccessful. In regard to informed consent for the surgery: A. The nurse understands that consent is not needed B. The nurse will contact the hospital clergy to provide informed consent C. The nurse will sign informed consent on behalf of the client and ask another nurse to witness the signature D. The nurse will prepare the client to undergo mechanical ventilation until the client’s parents can be contacted In an emergency situation, if it is impossible to obtain consent from the client or an authorized person, the procedure required to benefit the client or save his or her life may be undertaken without informed consent. In such cases the law assumes that the client would wish to be treated. Contacting the hospital clergy to provide the informed consent and having the nurse sign on behalf of the client with another nurse to witness the signature are both incorrect. Also, having the client undergo mechanical ventilation until his parents can be contacted will delay treatment of a life-threatening injury.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the strategic words “life-threatening injuries” will direct you to the correct option. Review: the issues regarding informed consent .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 332, 333). St. Louis: Mosby. In an emergency situation, if it is impossible to obtain consent from the client or an authorized person, the procedure required to benefit the client or save his or her life may be undertaken without informed consent. In such cases the law assumes that the client would wish to be treated. Contacting the hospital clergy to provide the informed consent and having the nurse sign on behalf of the client with another nurse to witness the signature are both incorrect. Also, having the client undergo mechanical ventilation until his parents can be contacted will delay treatment of a life-threatening injury.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the strategic words “life-threatening injuries” will direct you to the correct option. Review: the issues regarding informed consent .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 332, 333). St. Louis: Mosby. 8 / 96 A 17-year-old client arrives at the clinic and asks to be examined because she believes that she has contracted a sexually transmitted infection. In regard to informed consent, the nurse tells the client that: A. She will need to sign an informed consent form B. Her mother or father will need to be contacted for permission to treat her C. Anyone over the age of 18 years may sign a consent form for her treatment D. A consent form is not needed if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection Informed consent is a person’s agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is needed if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, he or she may sign the informed consent in the following situations: if the client is an emancipated minor; if the client is seeking birth control services or is pregnant; if the client is seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, drug or substance abuse, or psychiatric services; or if a court order or other legal authorization has been obtained.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the consent form must be signed by another individual. To select from the remaining options, recall that a consent form is required for treatment. Review: the issues related to informed consent .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 63, 333). St. Louis: Mosby. Informed consent is a person’s agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is needed if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, he or she may sign the informed consent in the following situations: if the client is an emancipated minor; if the client is seeking birth control services or is pregnant; if the client is seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, drug or substance abuse, or psychiatric services; or if a court order or other legal authorization has been obtained.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the consent form must be signed by another individual. To select from the remaining options, recall that a consent form is required for treatment. Review: the issues related to informed consent .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 63, 333). St. Louis: Mosby. 9 / 96 The nurse notes that a health care provider has documented the following prescription in a client’s record: Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg stat once. What action should the nurse take? A. Contacting the health care provider B. Administering the medication C. Drawing up the medication in a syringe D. Planning to have the nurse on the next shift administer the medication The medication prescription must include the medication name, dose, route of administration, time, and frequency of the administration. The nurse would contact the health care provider and ask about the route of the medication. The nurse would not prepare the medication or administer it without first checking with the physician. A stat prescription must be administered immediately. Therefore it is inappropriate to plan to have the nurse on the next shift administer the medication.Test-Taking Strategy: Read the prescription and think about the procedure for fulfilling a prescription. This will reveal that the route of administration is not specified. Review: components of a medication prescription .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 713). St. Louis: Mosby. The medication prescription must include the medication name, dose, route of administration, time, and frequency of the administration. The nurse would contact the health care provider and ask about the route of the medication. The nurse would not prepare the medication or administer it without first checking with the physician. A stat prescription must be administered immediately. Therefore it is inappropriate to plan to have the nurse on the next shift administer the medication.Test-Taking Strategy: Read the prescription and think about the procedure for fulfilling a prescription. This will reveal that the route of administration is not specified. Review: components of a medication prescription .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 713). St. Louis: Mosby. 10 / 96 A nurse manager discusses staff empowerment with the nursing team. The nurse manager explains that staff empowerment: A. Allows the staff to make every decision regarding employee scheduling B. Fosters the growth of others so that they are less dependent on the leader C. Means that the staff has the power to reprimand and punish any individual who is not meeting the standards of care delivery D. Indicates that the nurse leader will make decisions regarding the nursing unit and expects that the staff will comply with the changes Staff empowerment fosters the growth of others and facilitates their development so that they are less dependent on their leader. Staff do not have the power to reprimand and punish or make decisions regarding scheduling or the nursing unit.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the definition of the term empowerment and Note the relationship of this definition and its relationship to the information in the correct option. Review: the description of empowerment .References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 261, 262). St. Louis: Saunders.Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., p. 123). St. Louis: Mosby. Staff empowerment fosters the growth of others and facilitates their development so that they are less dependent on their leader. Staff do not have the power to reprimand and punish or make decisions regarding scheduling or the nursing unit.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the definition of the term empowerment and Note the relationship of this definition and its relationship to the information in the correct option. Review: the description of empowerment .References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 261, 262). St. Louis: Saunders.Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., p. 123). St. Louis: Mosby. 11 / 96 A nurse employed at a hospital is asked by a nurse manager to review the organizational chart. The nurse reviews the chart so that he will: A. Understand the organization’s reason for existence B. Be familiar with the organization’s line of authority C. Be familiar with the beliefs and values of the organization D. Be aware of the geographical area that the organization serves An organizational chart depicts and communicates how activities are arranged, how authority relationships are defined, and how communication channels are established. Understanding the organization’s reason for existence, geographical area, and the beliefs and values of the organization are all components of the organization’s mission statement.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of the components of an organizational chart to answer this question. Note the relationship of the words “organizational” in the question and “lines of authority” in the correct option. Review: the purpose of an organizational chart .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 415, 427). St. Louis: Saunders. An organizational chart depicts and communicates how activities are arranged, how authority relationships are defined, and how communication channels are established. Understanding the organization’s reason for existence, geographical area, and the beliefs and values of the organization are all components of the organization’s mission statement.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of the components of an organizational chart to answer this question. Note the relationship of the words “organizational” in the question and “lines of authority” in the correct option. Review: the purpose of an organizational chart .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 415, 427). St. Louis: Saunders. 12 / 96 An emergency department nurse is performing an assessment of a client who has sustained circumferential burns of both legs. What should the nurse assess first? A. Heart rate B. Radial pulse rate C. Peripheral pulses D. Blood pressure (BP) The client who has sustained circumferential burns to the extremities is at risk for altered peripheral circulation. The priority assessment is to check the peripheral pulses to ensure that circulation is adequate. Although the heart rate and BP would also be assessed, the priority with a circumferential extremity burn is the assessment of peripheral pulses.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike first (heart rate and radial pulse rate). To select from the remaining options, focus on the strategic words “first” and “circumferential burns of both legs.” or are unfamiliar with the priority assessment in a client who has sustained a circumferential burn of an extremity, review this content.Reference: Black, J., & Hawks, J. (2009). Medical-surgical nursing: Clinical management for positive outcomes (8th ed., p. 1252). St. Louis: Saunders. The client who has sustained circumferential burns to the extremities is at risk for altered peripheral circulation. The priority assessment is to check the peripheral pulses to ensure that circulation is adequate. Although the heart rate and BP would also be assessed, the priority with a circumferential extremity burn is the assessment of peripheral pulses.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike first (heart rate and radial pulse rate). To select from the remaining options, focus on the strategic words “first” and “circumferential burns of both legs.” or are unfamiliar with the priority assessment in a client who has sustained a circumferential burn of an extremity, review this content.Reference: Black, J., & Hawks, J. (2009). Medical-surgical nursing: Clinical management for positive outcomes (8th ed., p. 1252). St. Louis: Saunders. 13 / 96 A health care provider asks the nurse who is caring for a client with a new colostomy to ask the hospital’s stoma nurse to visit the client and assist the client with care of the colostomy. The nurse initiates the consultation, understanding that the stoma nurse will be able to influence the client because of his: A. Expert power B. Reward power C. Referent power D. Coercive power Power is the ability to influence others to achieve goals. Expert power results from knowledge and skills that one possesses that is needed by others. Reward power is based on the ability to be able to grant rewards and favors. Coercive power is based on fear and the ability to punish. Referent power results from followers’ desire to identify with a powerful person.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and note that a consultation is being sought from another healthcare team member in the care of a client. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: the types of power and the purpose of consultations .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 263). St. Louis: Saunders. Power is the ability to influence others to achieve goals. Expert power results from knowledge and skills that one possesses that is needed by others. Reward power is based on the ability to be able to grant rewards and favors. Coercive power is based on fear and the ability to punish. Referent power results from followers’ desire to identify with a powerful person.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and note that a consultation is being sought from another healthcare team member in the care of a client. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: the types of power and the purpose of consultations .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 263). St. Louis: Saunders. 14 / 96 A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client by way of a nasogastric (NG) tube. Before administering the medication, the nurse must first: A. Check the client’s apical pulse B. Check the placement of the tube C. Check when the last feeding was given D. Check when the last medications were given To help prevent aspiration, the nurse checks the placement of the tube by aspirating gastric contents and measuring the pH. Checking when a feeding or medication was last given and checking the client’s apical pulse are not directly related to the subject of the question.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation. To help prevent the complication of aspiration when administering medications to a client with an NG tube, the nurse must first assess accurate placement of the tube. Review: the principles of administering medications through an NG tube .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 1276). St. Louis: Saunders. To help prevent aspiration, the nurse checks the placement of the tube by aspirating gastric contents and measuring the pH. Checking when a feeding or medication was last given and checking the client’s apical pulse are not directly related to the subject of the question.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation. To help prevent the complication of aspiration when administering medications to a client with an NG tube, the nurse must first assess accurate placement of the tube. Review: the principles of administering medications through an NG tube .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 1276). St. Louis: Saunders. 15 / 96 A client with terminal cancer is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate. On assessment of the client, what does the nurse check first? A. Pulse B. Urine output C. Temperature D. Respiratory status Morphine sulfate depresses respiration, so the nurse must monitor the client’s respiratory status closely. Although the incorrect options may be components of the assessment, checking respiratory status is the priority nursing action.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “first.” Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to guide you to the correct option. Review: priority nursing interventions in the care of a client receiving morphine sulfate .Reference: Gahart, B., & Nazareno, A. (2010). Intravenous medications (26th ed., pp. 928, 930). St. Louis: Mosby. Morphine sulfate depresses respiration, so the nurse must monitor the client’s respiratory status closely. Although the incorrect options may be components of the assessment, checking respiratory status is the priority nursing action.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “first.” Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to guide you to the correct option. Review: priority nursing interventions in the care of a client receiving morphine sulfate .Reference: Gahart, B., & Nazareno, A. (2010). Intravenous medications (26th ed., pp. 928, 930). St. Louis: Mosby. 16 / 96 A client with a left arm fracture complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. On further assessment, the nurse notes that the client experiences increased pain during passive motion, compared with active motion, of the left arm. On the basis of these assessment findings, which action should the nurse take first? A. Contacting the health care provider B. Reassessing the client in 30 minutes C. Checking to see whether it is time for more pain medication D. Encouraging the client to continue active range of motion exercises of the left arm The client with early acute compartment syndrome typically complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. The affected client also complains that pain during passive motion is greater than that during active motion. The nurse must notify the health care provider immediately. The other options are incorrect because they delay necessary interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the assessment data presented in the question. Recall that these signs indicate early acute compartment syndrome. Remember, if this is suspected, the health care provider needs to be notified. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they delay necessary intervention. Review: the complications associated with a fracture of an extremity and the associated priority nursing interventions .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 1181). St. Louis: Saunders. The client with early acute compartment syndrome typically complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. The affected client also complains that pain during passive motion is greater than that during active motion. The nurse must notify the health care provider immediately. The other options are incorrect because they delay necessary interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the assessment data presented in the question. Recall that these signs indicate early acute compartment syndrome. Remember, if this is suspected, the health care provider needs to be notified. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they delay necessary intervention. Review: the complications associated with a fracture of an extremity and the associated priority nursing interventions .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 1181). St. Louis: Saunders. 17 / 96 A nurse who works in a medical care unit is told that she must float to the intensive care unit because of a short-staffing problem on that unit. The nurse reports to the unit and is assigned to three clients. The nurse is angry with the assignment because she believes that the assignment is more difficult than the assignment delegated to other nurses on the unit and because the intensive care unit nurses are each assigned only one client. The nurse should most appropriately: A. Refuse to do the assignment B. Tell the nurse manager to call the nursing supervisor C. Ask the nurse manager of the intensive care unit to discuss the assignment D. Return to the medical care unit and discuss the assignment with the nurse manager on that unit A nurse who feels that the assignment is more difficult than the assignments delegated to other nurses on the unit would most appropriately discuss the assignment with the nurse manager of the intensive care unit. This will help the nurse identify the rationale for the assignment or determine whether the assignment is actually more difficult. A nurse would not refuse an assignment. The nurse would not return to the medical care unit, which would constitute client abandonment. Additionally, this action does not address the conflict directly. Telling the nurse manager to call the nursing supervisor is an aggressive action that does not address the conflict directly.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, dealing with conflict. Refusing to perform the assignment is unethical and could be grounds for dismissal. Leaving the nursing unit constitutes client abandonment and could also result in dismissal. From the remaining options, select the option in which the conflict is dealt with directly. Review: the appropriate methods of dealing with a conflict .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 163, 164). St. Louis: Mosby.Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 153, 154). St. Louis: Mosby. A nurse who feels that the assignment is more difficult than the assignments delegated to other nurses on the unit would most appropriately discuss the assignment with the nurse manager of the intensive care unit. This will help the nurse identify the rationale for the assignment or determine whether the assignment is actually more difficult. A nurse would not refuse an assignment. The nurse would not return to the medical care unit, which would constitute client abandonment. Additionally, this action does not address the conflict directly. Telling the nurse manager to call the nursing supervisor is an aggressive action that does not address the conflict directly.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, dealing with conflict. Refusing to perform the assignment is unethical and could be grounds for dismissal. Leaving the nursing unit constitutes client abandonment and could also result in dismissal. From the remaining options, select the option in which the conflict is dealt with directly. Review: the appropriate methods of dealing with a conflict .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 163, 164). St. Louis: Mosby.Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 153, 154). St. Louis: Mosby. 18 / 96 A client receives cefazolin sodium (Ancef) by way of the intravenous route. During the infusion, the client begins exhibiting signs of an allergic reaction. The client states that his skin is itchy, and the nurse notes that the skin is warm and flushed, with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The nurse immediately discontinues the medication, further assesses the client, contacts the physician, and begins to document the reaction in an incident report. The nurse most accurately documents which of the following? A. The client had an allergy to cefazolin sodium. B. The health care provider was notified because a rash developed while the client was receiving cefazolin sodium. C. The client is apparently allergic to cefazolin sodium, as indicated by warm, flushed skin and a rash on the arms, chest, and back. D. During an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained that his skin was itchy. The client’s skin was warm and flushed, with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was notified The nurse should document relevant information in an accurate, complete, and objective form. Noting the client had an allergy to cefazolin sodium does not identify objective data. Assuming that the client is allergic to cefazolin sodium because of warm and flushed skin makes an interpretation about the occurrence. Documenting that the health care provider was notified because the client developed a rash while receiving the medication identifies accurate data, but is incomplete.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, recalling that documentation should include relevant information in an accurate, complete, and objective form. This will direct you to the correct option. Also note the relationship of the data in the question and in the correct option. Review: the principles related to documentation .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 389). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 709). St. Louis: Mosby. The nurse should document relevant information in an accurate, complete, and objective form. Noting the client had an allergy to cefazolin sodium does not identify objective data. Assuming that the client is allergic to cefazolin sodium because of warm and flushed skin makes an interpretation about the occurrence. Documenting that the health care provider was notified because the client developed a rash while receiving the medication identifies accurate data, but is incomplete.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, recalling that documentation should include relevant information in an accurate, complete, and objective form. This will direct you to the correct option. Also note the relationship of the data in the question and in the correct option. Review: the principles related to documentation .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 389). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 709). St. Louis: Mosby. 19 / 96 A nurse leader in a medical-surgical unit overhears the nursing staff openly discussing a client and stating that the client is “uncooperative and a real pain to care for.” The nurse leader would most appropriately manage this issue by: A. Discouraging the judgmental comments B. Ignoring the comments made about the client C. Reporting the nurses’ comments to administration D. Leaving articles about judgmental opinions in the nurses’ report room Nurses must discuss clients in a professional manner and avoid using judgmental language such as “uncooperative” or “difficult.” When such comments and language are discouraged, fewer comments will be made. Ignoring the comments is an inappropriate option because the concern will not addressed. Leaving articles about judgmental opinions in the nurse’s report room indirectly addresses the issue. Additionally, the nurse manager cannot ensure that the nursing staff will read the articles. Likewise, reporting the nurses’ comments to administration does not directly address the issue. The best approach that the nurse manager can take is to directly discuss the issue with the staff members. This action is not identified in the options. Therefore, of the options presented, discouraging judgmental comments is the most appropriate way to manage this concern.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they do not directly address the staff’s unprofessional behavior. Review: methods of discouraging judgmental comments .References: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp 306, 307). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 242). St. Louis: Mosby. Nurses must discuss clients in a professional manner and avoid using judgmental language such as “uncooperative” or “difficult.” When such comments and language are discouraged, fewer comments will be made. Ignoring the comments is an inappropriate option because the concern will not addressed. Leaving articles about judgmental opinions in the nurse’s report room indirectly addresses the issue. Additionally, the nurse manager cannot ensure that the nursing staff will read the articles. Likewise, reporting the nurses’ comments to administration does not directly address the issue. The best approach that the nurse manager can take is to directly discuss the issue with the staff members. This action is not identified in the options. Therefore, of the options presented, discouraging judgmental comments is the most appropriate way to manage this concern.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they do not directly address the staff’s unprofessional behavior. Review: methods of discouraging judgmental comments .References: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp 306, 307). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 242). St. Louis: Mosby. 20 / 96 A nurse sees another nurse changing an intravenous (IV) solution because the wrong solution is infusing into the client. The nurse who changed the IV solution does not report the error. What should the nurse who observed the error do first? A. Call the client’s health care provider B. Document the error in the client’s chart C. Report the nurse who changed the IV solution D. Ask the nurse whether she intends to report the error The first thing the nurse who observed the error should do is ask the nurse whether she intends to report the error. As means of helping ensure client safety, all errors must be reported to the physician, but this is not the initial action. The client also needs to be assessed immediately. An incident report should be completed by the nurse who discovered the error (the nurse who changed the intravenous solution). The appropriate documentation also must be made in the client’s record by the nurse who discovered the error. If the nurse who discovered the error indicates that the error will not be reported, it may be necessary for the other nurse to contact the supervisor.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic words “do first.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve reporting the error. To select from the remaining options, think about the principles of dealing with conflict. This will direct you to the direct option. Review: nursing responsibilities when an error occurs .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405, 406). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 820). St. Louis: Mosby. The first thing the nurse who observed the error should do is ask the nurse whether she intends to report the error. As means of helping ensure client safety, all errors must be reported to the physician, but this is not the initial action. The client also needs to be assessed immediately. An incident report should be completed by the nurse who discovered the error (the nurse who changed the intravenous solution). The appropriate documentation also must be made in the client’s record by the nurse who discovered the error. If the nurse who discovered the error indicates that the error will not be reported, it may be necessary for the other nurse to contact the supervisor.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic words “do first.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve reporting the error. To select from the remaining options, think about the principles of dealing with conflict. This will direct you to the direct option. Review: nursing responsibilities when an error occurs .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405, 406). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 820). St. Louis: Mosby. 21 / 96 A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she has does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? A. Telling the client that it is her surgeon’s responsibility to explain the procedure B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes D. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client’s legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client’s part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Telling the client that she needs to ask questions before signing the consent for surgery is incorrect. Although the client should be thoroughly informed before signing consent, the client has the right to ask questions thereafter. It is the surgeon’s responsibility to explain the procedure, and, if the client wishes, she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure. Although these are correct statements, they are not the most appropriate and do not address the client’s concerns. Additionally, they do not address the legal ramifications associated with informed consent.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the strategic words “does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure” and recalling that the health care provider is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure to the client will direct you to the correct option. Review: the issues surrounding informed consent .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., pp. 252, 254). St. Louis: Saunders. Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client’s legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client’s part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Telling the client that she needs to ask questions before signing the consent for surgery is incorrect. Although the client should be thoroughly informed before signing consent, the client has the right to ask questions thereafter. It is the surgeon’s responsibility to explain the procedure, and, if the client wishes, she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure. Although these are correct statements, they are not the most appropriate and do not address the client’s concerns. Additionally, they do not address the legal ramifications associated with informed consent.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the strategic words “does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure” and recalling that the health care provider is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure to the client will direct you to the correct option. Review: the issues surrounding informed consent .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., pp. 252, 254). St. Louis: Saunders. 22 / 96 A nurse is preparing the client assignments for the day. One of the registered nurses on the team has just learned that she is pregnant. Which client does the nurse refrain from assigning to the pregnant team member? A. A client with a solid sealed cervical radiation implant B. A client with diarrhea for whom enteric precautions are in effect C. A client with metastatic cancer who is receiving a continuous infusion of intravenous morphine sulfate D. A client for whom contact precautions have been implemented and who requires frequent wound irrigations Brachytherapy involves the implantation of a sealed radiation source within the targeted tumor tissue. A client who is wearing a solid implant emits radiation as long as the implant is in place; however, the client’s excreta is not radioactive. Pregnant nurses should not care for such clients. There are no contraindications to having a pregnant nurse care for a client under enteric precautions, a client with cancer who is receiving a continuous infusion of intravenous therapy, or a client who requires frequent wound irrigation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “avoids.” This word indicates a negative event query and the need to select the client situation that could present a risk to a pregnant client. Thinking about the risks associated with each client listed in the options will direct you to the correct one. Review: the guidelines associated with caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 420). St. Louis: Saunders. Brachytherapy involves the implantation of a sealed radiation source within the targeted tumor tissue. A client who is wearing a solid implant emits radiation as long as the implant is in place; however, the client’s excreta is not radioactive. Pregnant nurses should not care for such clients. There are no contraindications to having a pregnant nurse care for a client under enteric precautions, a client with cancer who is receiving a continuous infusion of intravenous therapy, or a client who requires frequent wound irrigation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “avoids.” This word indicates a negative event query and the need to select the client situation that could present a risk to a pregnant client. Thinking about the risks associated with each client listed in the options will direct you to the correct one. Review: the guidelines associated with caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 420). St. Louis: Saunders. 23 / 96 A nursing staff member approaches a nurse manager and announces that another nurse is not using alcohol swabs to clean the intravenous port when administering intravenous push medications. What is the appropriate way for the nurse manager to handle this situation? A. Telling the nurse that it is inappropriate to report other nurses B. Providing an in-service educational session on aseptic technique for everyone on the nursing unit C. Informing the nurse who reported the occurrence that intravenous ports do not need to be cleaned with alcohol before medication administration D. Reviewing the skills checklist of the nurse who is not using aseptic technique to determine whether the nurse has ever performed this skill and had her technique validated Intravenous ports must be cleaned with alcohol (or another antiseptic as designated by agency policy) before access. The nurse manager should handle this problem directly with the nurse who is using incorrect technique by first reviewing the nurse’s skills checklist to determine whether this skill has ever been performed by the nurse and validated. There is no information in the question to indicate that an in-service educational session is needed for everyone on the nursing unit. As a part of professional responsibility to maintain quality care, nurses are required to report instances of clinical incompetence.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of the principles of ensuring quality care for clients. Remember that it is best for the nurse manager to deal directly with the employee who is exhibiting unacceptable behavior. Review: the principles of handling clinical incompetence.References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 531. 532). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 658, 660). St. Louis: Mosby. Intravenous ports must be cleaned with alcohol (or another antiseptic as designated by agency policy) before access. The nurse manager should handle this problem directly with the nurse who is using incorrect technique by first reviewing the nurse’s skills checklist to determine whether this skill has ever been performed by the nurse and validated. There is no information in the question to indicate that an in-service educational session is needed for everyone on the nursing unit. As a part of professional responsibility to maintain quality care, nurses are required to report instances of clinical incompetence.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of the principles of ensuring quality care for clients. Remember that it is best for the nurse manager to deal directly with the employee who is exhibiting unacceptable behavior. Review: the principles of handling clinical incompetence.References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 531. 532). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 658, 660). St. Louis: Mosby. 24 / 96 A nurse manager notes that an employee is constantly calling in sick. Which action should the nurse manager take initially to handle this problem? A. Reporting the employee to administration B. Documenting the employee’s behavior in the personnel file C. Telling the employee that she will be fired if she calls in sick again D. Reminding the employee of the employment standards of the agency When an employee demonstrates an unacceptable level of absenteeism, the nurse must first remind the employee of the employment standards of the agency. Sometimes an employee does not know or has forgotten the existing standards, and a reminder with no threats or discipline is all that is needed. When the oral reminder does not result in a change in behavior, the reminder should be placed in writing. If the written reminder fails, the employee should be granted a day of decision to determine whether to accept the standards for work attendance. Pay may be given for this day (depending on the agency protocol) so that it is not interpreted as punishment, and the employee must return to work with a written decision. If the employee decides not to adhere to standards, her employment with the agency is terminated. Reporting the employee to administration, documenting the employee’s behavior in her personnel file, and telling the employee that she will be fired if she calls in sick again are not appropriate initial actions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “initially.” Focusing on the data in the question and noting that there is no information to indicate that this employee has been approached about his or her behavior in the past will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for handling unacceptable behavior related to employment standards .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 447, 448). St. Louis: Mosby. When an employee demonstrates an unacceptable level of absenteeism, the nurse must first remind the employee of the employment standards of the agency. Sometimes an employee does not know or has forgotten the existing standards, and a reminder with no threats or discipline is all that is needed. When the oral reminder does not result in a change in behavior, the reminder should be placed in writing. If the written reminder fails, the employee should be granted a day of decision to determine whether to accept the standards for work attendance. Pay may be given for this day (depending on the agency protocol) so that it is not interpreted as punishment, and the employee must return to work with a written decision. If the employee decides not to adhere to standards, her employment with the agency is terminated. Reporting the employee to administration, documenting the employee’s behavior in her personnel file, and telling the employee that she will be fired if she calls in sick again are not appropriate initial actions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “initially.” Focusing on the data in the question and noting that there is no information to indicate that this employee has been approached about his or her behavior in the past will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for handling unacceptable behavior related to employment standards .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 447, 448). St. Louis: Mosby. 25 / 96 A health care provider repeatedly asks a nurse to write his verbal prescriptions in his clients’ charts after he makes his rounds. The nurse is uncomfortable with writing the prescriptions and explains this to the physician, but the health care provider tells the nurse that she will be reported if she does not write the prescriptions. How should the nurse manage this conflict? A. Fulfilling the physician’s request B. Discussing the situation with the nurse manager C. Reporting the health care provider to the chief of medicine at the hospital D. Stating to the physician, “I don’t really care whether you report me. I am not writing your prescriptions.” When a conflict arises, it is most appropriate to try resolving the conflict directly. In this situation, the nurse has tried to explain why she is uncomfortable with the physician’s request but has been unable to resolve the conflict. The nurse would then most appropriately use organizational channels of communication and discuss the issue with the nurse manager, who would then proceed to resolve the conflict. The nurse manager may attempt to discuss the situation with the health care provider or seek assistance from the nursing supervisor. Fulfilling the physician’s request and writing the prescriptions in the clients’ charts ignores the issue. Reporting the health care provider to the chief of medicine is inappropriate, because the nurse should use the appropriate organizational channels of communication to resolve the conflict. Stating, “I don’t care whether you report me. I am not writing your prescriptions” is an inappropriate statement and will result in further conflict between the nurse and physician.Test-Taking Strategy: First eliminate the option that ignores the subject. Next eliminate the option that will result in further conflict between the nurse and physician. To select from the remaining options, think about the appropriate use of the organizational channels of communication; this will direct you to the correct option. Review: the principles of managing conflict .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 153-155). St. Louis: Mosby. When a conflict arises, it is most appropriate to try resolving the conflict directly. In this situation, the nurse has tried to explain why she is uncomfortable with the physician’s request but has been unable to resolve the conflict. The nurse would then most appropriately use organizational channels of communication and discuss the issue with the nurse manager, who would then proceed to resolve the conflict. The nurse manager may attempt to discuss the situation with the health care provider or seek assistance from the nursing supervisor. Fulfilling the physician’s request and writing the prescriptions in the clients’ charts ignores the issue. Reporting the health care provider to the chief of medicine is inappropriate, because the nurse should use the appropriate organizational channels of communication to resolve the conflict. Stating, “I don’t care whether you report me. I am not writing your prescriptions” is an inappropriate statement and will result in further conflict between the nurse and physician.Test-Taking Strategy: First eliminate the option that ignores the subject. Next eliminate the option that will result in further conflict between the nurse and physician. To select from the remaining options, think about the appropriate use of the organizational channels of communication; this will direct you to the correct option. Review: the principles of managing conflict .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 153-155). St. Louis: Mosby. 26 / 96 A nurse who has been employed in a hospital for 8 weeks is consistently taking extended lunch breaks. The nurse’s behavior has caused problems with client care during lunch hours. What is the appropriate way for the nurse manager to deal with this situation? A. Ignoring the situation B. Asking other staff members to cover for the nurse C. Documenting the problem in the nurse’s personnel file D. Confronting the nurse to discuss the behavior and initiate problem-solving measures Taking extended lunch breaks is an unacceptable behavior, mainly because the behavior affects client care. The nurse manager must confront the nurse, discuss the behavior, and initiate problem-solving measures to ensure that the behavior does not continue. Ignoring the situation, asking other staff members to cover for the nurse, and documenting the problem in the nurse’s personnel file are all inappropriate because none of these actions will resolve the problem.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of the principles of dealing with conflict and unacceptable behavior. Remember that it is most appropriate to confront and address a problem when it occurs. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they avoid the problem. Review: the principles of dealing with conflict .References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 287). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 355). St. Louis: Mosby. Taking extended lunch breaks is an unacceptable behavior, mainly because the behavior affects client care. The nurse manager must confront the nurse, discuss the behavior, and initiate problem-solving measures to ensure that the behavior does not continue. Ignoring the situation, asking other staff members to cover for the nurse, and documenting the problem in the nurse’s personnel file are all inappropriate because none of these actions will resolve the problem.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of the principles of dealing with conflict and unacceptable behavior. Remember that it is most appropriate to confront and address a problem when it occurs. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they avoid the problem. Review: the principles of dealing with conflict .References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 287). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 355). St. Louis: Mosby. 27 / 96 A nurse manager arrives at work and is immediately faced with several activities that require his attention. Which activity will the nurse manager attend to first? A. Stocking the medication closet B. Client assignments for the day C. A phone message from a client’s wife D. A phone message from employee health services The nurse manager must attend to client assignments first, because client care is the priority. Also, the nursing staff need their assignments so that they may begin client assessments and start delivering client care. The nurse manager should next check the medication supply to ensure that needed medications are available. The nurse manager could also delegate this task to another registered nurse while client assignments are being planned. The nurse manager would next return the phone calls.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” and and prioritization skills. Remember that the client is the priority. Eliminate the options that are not directly related to immediate client needs. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: the principles of prioritization and time management .References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 243). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 308, 309). St. Louis: Mosby. The nurse manager must attend to client assignments first, because client care is the priority. Also, the nursing staff need their assignments so that they may begin client assessments and start delivering client care. The nurse manager should next check the medication supply to ensure that needed medications are available. The nurse manager could also delegate this task to another registered nurse while client assignments are being planned. The nurse manager would next return the phone calls.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” and and prioritization skills. Remember that the client is the priority. Eliminate the options that are not directly related to immediate client needs. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: the principles of prioritization and time management .References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 243). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 308, 309). St. Louis: Mosby. 28 / 96 A nurse manager asks a nurse to work overtime because of a short-staffing problem. The nurse has made plans to do her Christmas shopping after work and does not want to work overtime. What is the most assertive response by the nurse to her nurse manager? A. “I’m not working overtime today.” B. “You know how I hate to work overtime.” C. “I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this.” D. “I have plans after work and will not be able to work overtime.” The most assertive response in dealing with this conflict is the one that is direct and conveys a clear message in a positive manner. The nurse responds aggressively by stating, “I’m not working overtime today” or “You know how I hate to work overtime.” The statement “I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this” is a passive-aggressive response.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, the most assertive response. Note the relationship between the data in the question and the correct option. Review: assertive communication techniques .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 262). St. Louis: Saunders. The most assertive response in dealing with this conflict is the one that is direct and conveys a clear message in a positive manner. The nurse responds aggressively by stating, “I’m not working overtime today” or “You know how I hate to work overtime.” The statement “I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this” is a passive-aggressive response.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, the most assertive response. Note the relationship between the data in the question and the correct option. Review: assertive communication techniques .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 262). St. Louis: Saunders. 29 / 96 A nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following actions reflects the use of evidence-based practice in the care of the client? A. Keeping the door to the client’s room closed B. Using a surgical mask when entering the client’s room C. Placing the client in a semiprivate room with a cohort client D. Fitting the client for an N95 or HEPA (high-efficiency particulate air) mask to be worn at all times Evidence-based practice is an approach to client care in which the nurse integrates the client’s preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Pulmonary tuberculosis is a respiratory infection that is transmitted to others by way of the airborne route. The door to the client’s room must be kept closed to prevent the transmission of the infection via the airborne route. The remaining options do not reflect evidence-based practice. An N95 or HEPA respirator (not a surgical mask) must be worn by the nurse on entering the room. It is not necessary for the client to wear a mask. Airborne precautions require the use of a private room.Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully, focusing on the subject, evidence-based practice. Recall the definition of evidence-based practice and recall that tuberculosis is transmitted by way of the airborne route. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: the concept of evidence-based practice .References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 467 ). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 54-60, 662-663, 674). St. Louis: Mosby. Evidence-based practice is an approach to client care in which the nurse integrates the client’s preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Pulmonary tuberculosis is a respiratory infection that is transmitted to others by way of the airborne route. The door to the client’s room must be kept closed to prevent the transmission of the infection via the airborne route. The remaining options do not reflect evidence-based practice. An N95 or HEPA respirator (not a surgical mask) must be worn by the nurse on entering the room. It is not necessary for the client to wear a mask. Airborne precautions require the use of a private room.Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully, focusing on the subject, evidence-based practice. Recall the definition of evidence-based practice and recall that tuberculosis is transmitted by way of the airborne route. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: the concept of evidence-based practice .References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 467 ). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 54-60, 662-663, 674). St. Louis: Mosby. 30 / 96 Which of the following situations is an example of the use of evidence-based practice in the delivery of client care? A. Encouraging a client who has had a stroke to consume thin liquids and foods B. Blowing on a fingerstick site to dry it after cleaning the site with an alcohol swab C. Immediately picking up a dislodged radiation implant with gloved hands and placing it in a lead container D. Pouring 1 to 2 mL of sterile solution that will be used for wound cleansing into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before pouring the solution into a sterile basin Evidence-based practice is an approach to client care in which the nurse integrates the client’s preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Pouring 1 to 2 mL of sterile solution that will be used for wound cleansing into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before pouring the solution into the sterile basin reflects evidence-based practice because this action cleans the lip of the bottle, thus preventing the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. The remaining options do not reflect evidence-based practice. Encouraging a client with a stroke to consume thin liquids and foods could cause harm because of the risk for choking; instead, such a client should receive thickened liquids. A dislodged radiation implant should be picked up with the use of long-handled forceps, not gloved hands, to be placed in a lead container to minimize radiation exposure. Blowing on a fingerstick site to dry it after cleaning the site with an alcohol swab recontaminates the stick site.Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully, focusing on the subject, evidence-based practice. Recall the definition of evidence-based practice and note that the correct option prevents the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. Review: the concept of evidence-based practice .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 54-60, 674). St. Louis: Mosby. Evidence-based practice is an approach to client care in which the nurse integrates the client’s preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Pouring 1 to 2 mL of sterile solution that will be used for wound cleansing into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before pouring the solution into the sterile basin reflects evidence-based practice because this action cleans the lip of the bottle, thus preventing the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. The remaining options do not reflect evidence-based practice. Encouraging a client with a stroke to consume thin liquids and foods could cause harm because of the risk for choking; instead, such a client should receive thickened liquids. A dislodged radiation implant should be picked up with the use of long-handled forceps, not gloved hands, to be placed in a lead container to minimize radiation exposure. Blowing on a fingerstick site to dry it after cleaning the site with an alcohol swab recontaminates the stick site.Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully, focusing on the subject, evidence-based practice. Recall the definition of evidence-based practice and note that the correct option prevents the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. Review: the concept of evidence-based practice .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 54-60, 674). St. Louis: Mosby. 31 / 96 In which situation is the nurse upholding the ethical principle of fidelity? A. Allowing a client to decide when to receive daily hygiene care B. Inserting a 19-gauge intravenous catheter into a client requiring a blood transfusion C. Providing complete information regarding treatment options to a client with newly diagnosed cancer D. Contacting the health care provider about the client’s request to incorporate complementary therapies for pain into the treatment plan Fidelity is the keeping of promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Contacting the health care provider about the client’s request that complementary therapies be used to relieve pain is an example of fidelity. Respect for a person’s autonomy, or independence, involves respecting that person’s right to determine his or her own course of action. Allowing a client to decide when he or she would like to have daily hygiene care is an example of respecting a client’s autonomy. Beneficence is taking action to help others. Inserting a 19-gauge intravenous catheter into a client requiring a blood transfusion is an example of beneficence. Although insertion of an intravenous catheter might cause discomfort, the benefits of receiving the transfusion outweigh the temporary discomfort. Justice refers to fairness and equity; in the healthcare arena, this involves ensuring fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care, to all clients. Providing complete information regarding treatment options to each client with a cancer diagnosis is an example of justice.Test-Taking Strategy: and think about the definition of each item in the options. Note the relationship of the definition of fidelity and the correct option. Review: the principles of healthcare ethics .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 314). St. Louis: Mosby. Fidelity is the keeping of promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Contacting the health care provider about the client’s request that complementary therapies be used to relieve pain is an example of fidelity. Respect for a person’s autonomy, or independence, involves respecting that person’s right to determine his or her own course of action. Allowing a client to decide when he or she would like to have daily hygiene care is an example of respecting a client’s autonomy. Beneficence is taking action to help others. Inserting a 19-gauge intravenous catheter into a client requiring a blood transfusion is an example of beneficence. Although insertion of an intravenous catheter might cause discomfort, the benefits of receiving the transfusion outweigh the temporary discomfort. Justice refers to fairness and equity; in the healthcare arena, this involves ensuring fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care, to all clients. Providing complete information regarding treatment options to each client with a cancer diagnosis is an example of justice.Test-Taking Strategy: and think about the definition of each item in the options. Note the relationship of the definition of fidelity and the correct option. Review: the principles of healthcare ethics .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 314). St. Louis: Mosby. 32 / 96 A nurse educator describes the standards of care formulated by the American Nurses Association to a group of new nursing graduates hired by the hospital. Which of the following options are accurate descriptions of these standards of care? Select all that apply. A. Are specific guidelines B. Define professional practice C. Have some similarity to policies and procedures D. Are statements that relate only to the agency in which the nurse is employed E. Are authoritative statements that describe a common or acceptable level of client care or performance Standards of care are authoritative statements that describe a common or acceptable level of client care or performance. They bear some similarity to policies and procedures. Therefore standards of care define professional practice. The American Nurses Association has formulated general standards and guidelines for nursing practice. They are general in nature and apply across the nation.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, standards of care formulated by the American Nurses Association. Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they contain the words “specific” or “only.” Review: the standards of care set forth by the American Nurses Association .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 627, 628). St. Louis: Saunders. Standards of care are authoritative statements that describe a common or acceptable level of client care or performance. They bear some similarity to policies and procedures. Therefore standards of care define professional practice. The American Nurses Association has formulated general standards and guidelines for nursing practice. They are general in nature and apply across the nation.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, standards of care formulated by the American Nurses Association. Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they contain the words “specific” or “only.” Review: the standards of care set forth by the American Nurses Association .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 627, 628). St. Louis: Saunders. 33 / 96 A registered nurse is in charge of the emergency department (ED) during the night shift. A client arrives at the ED for treatment after a sexual assault. The nurse has never cared for anyone who has been raped. To determine the necessary actions in regard to this client’s injury, the nurse should: A. Ask a licensed practical nurse B. Call the nurse in charge of the day shift C. Ask the police officers who brought the client to the ED D. Check the unit policy for the protocol for the care of clients who have been sexually assaulted A policy or procedure is a designated plan or course of action to be taken in a specific situation. Written copies of all policies are usually placed in a policy manual that is available in each department or may be available online. Specific unit policies are sometimes referred to as protocols. The policy or protocol for a client who has been raped will describe the physical, psychosocial, and legal responsibilities of the nurse. Calling the nurse in charge during the day shift or asking an LPN or the police officers who brought the client into the ED is inappropriate. If the nurse needs additional information after reviewing the policy or protocol, it would be most appropriate to contact the agency nursing supervisor of the night shift.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, recalling the legal implications related to providing care. Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they suggest obtaining information from other individuals. Review: the purpose of organizational policies, procedures, or protocols .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 389, 394, 395). St. Louis: Saunders. A policy or procedure is a designated plan or course of action to be taken in a specific situation. Written copies of all policies are usually placed in a policy manual that is available in each department or may be available online. Specific unit policies are sometimes referred to as protocols. The policy or protocol for a client who has been raped will describe the physical, psychosocial, and legal responsibilities of the nurse. Calling the nurse in charge during the day shift or asking an LPN or the police officers who brought the client into the ED is inappropriate. If the nurse needs additional information after reviewing the policy or protocol, it would be most appropriate to contact the agency nursing supervisor of the night shift.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, recalling the legal implications related to providing care. Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they suggest obtaining information from other individuals. Review: the purpose of organizational policies, procedures, or protocols .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 389, 394, 395). St. Louis: Saunders. 34 / 96 A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe accountability. Which statement(s) by the student indicate(s) an accurate description of accountability? Select all that apply. A. “Accountability can be delegated.” B. “It carries legal implications for task performance.” C. “You are responsible for your own actions.” D. “It refers to the process of answering or being responsible for what occurs.” E. “You must answer for the care that you ask others to complete.” Accountability, the process of answering or being responsible for what occurs, carries legal implications for task performance. Accountability cannot be delegated; one is responsible for one’s own actions and must answer for the care given, as well as for the care one asks others to complete.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the definition of accountability. Recalling this definition will easily direct you to the correct options. Review: the definition of accountability .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 249, 250). St. Louis: Saunders. Accountability, the process of answering or being responsible for what occurs, carries legal implications for task performance. Accountability cannot be delegated; one is responsible for one’s own actions and must answer for the care given, as well as for the care one asks others to complete.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the definition of accountability. Recalling this definition will easily direct you to the correct options. Review: the definition of accountability .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 249, 250). St. Louis: Saunders. 35 / 96 A nurse employed in a community hospital as a nurse manager understands that in this position, the term authority most appropriately refers to: A. Being responsible for what staff members do B. Accepting the responsibility for the actions of others C. Carrying the legal responsibility for others’ performance of tasks D. The official power to see that an organizational decision is enforced The term authority refers to the official power of an individual to approve or command an action or to see that a decision is enforced. Being responsible for what staff members do, accepting responsibility for the action of others, and carrying legal responsibility for others are not related to the description of a position of authority.Test-Taking Strategy: and knowledge regarding the description of a position of authority. Note the relationship between the word “authority” in the question and “power” in the correct option. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they involve responsibility. Review: the description of authority .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 10). St. Louis: Mosby. The term authority refers to the official power of an individual to approve or command an action or to see that a decision is enforced. Being responsible for what staff members do, accepting responsibility for the action of others, and carrying legal responsibility for others are not related to the description of a position of authority.Test-Taking Strategy: and knowledge regarding the description of a position of authority. Note the relationship between the word “authority” in the question and “power” in the correct option. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they involve responsibility. Review: the description of authority .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 10). St. Louis: Mosby. 36 / 96 A nurse, newly employed by a home health agency, is told that the organization’s decision-making process is centralized. The nurse determines that this means that the authority to make decisions is vested in: A. Every employee B. A few individuals, such as the board of directors C. All nursing employees, pharmacists, and hospital physicians D. Many individuals, with decisions filtering down to the individual employee Organizations may be described as having a centralized or decentralized structure in regard to the decision-making process. An organization is depicted as centralized when the authority to make decisions is vested in a few individuals. Conversely, when the decision-making involves a number of individuals, with decisions filtering down to the individual employee, the organization is said to operate in a decentralized fashion.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that several people associated with the organization make decisions. Review: the differences between centralized and decentralized organizations .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 278-280). St. Louis: Mosby.Cognitive Ability: Understanding Organizations may be described as having a centralized or decentralized structure in regard to the decision-making process. An organization is depicted as centralized when the authority to make decisions is vested in a few individuals. Conversely, when the decision-making involves a number of individuals, with decisions filtering down to the individual employee, the organization is said to operate in a decentralized fashion.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that several people associated with the organization make decisions. Review: the differences between centralized and decentralized organizations .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 278-280). St. Louis: Mosby.Cognitive Ability: Understanding 37 / 96 A new nurse employed at a community hospital is reading the organization’s mission statement. The new nurse understands that this statement: A. Describes the benefits available to employees B. Outlines what the organization plans to accomplish C. Identifies the policies and procedures of the organization D. Defines the rules of the organization that the employees must follow All organizations have a purpose or reason for existing. This purpose is often expressed in the form of a mission statement. The mission statement outlines what the organization plans to accomplish. Sometimes mission statements incorporate statements of philosophy (beliefs), purpose, and goals or objectives into a single statement; other times the philosophy, purposes, and goals are addressed in addition to the mission statement. These statements serve as a benchmark against which an organization’s performance may be evaluated. The mission statement does not describe the benefits available to the client; this is usually done by the human resources department. The rules of the organization are identified in policies and procedures, which are usually maintained in manuals kept in the nursing units or online.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, a mission statement. Note the relationship between the definition of a mission statement and the correct option. Review: the description of an organization’s mission statement .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 225, 226). St. Louis: Mosby. All organizations have a purpose or reason for existing. This purpose is often expressed in the form of a mission statement. The mission statement outlines what the organization plans to accomplish. Sometimes mission statements incorporate statements of philosophy (beliefs), purpose, and goals or objectives into a single statement; other times the philosophy, purposes, and goals are addressed in addition to the mission statement. These statements serve as a benchmark against which an organization’s performance may be evaluated. The mission statement does not describe the benefits available to the client; this is usually done by the human resources department. The rules of the organization are identified in policies and procedures, which are usually maintained in manuals kept in the nursing units or online.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, a mission statement. Note the relationship between the definition of a mission statement and the correct option. Review: the description of an organization’s mission statement .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 225, 226). St. Louis: Mosby. 38 / 96 A nurse is assisting a new nursing graduate with organizational skills in delivering client care. The nurse determines that the new nursing graduate needs assistance with time management if he: A. Allows time for unexpected tasks B. Prioritizes client needs and daily tasks C. Gathers supplies before beginning a task D. Documents task completion and client information at the end of the day The nurse should document task completion and client information throughout the day. Allowing time for unexpected tasks, prioritizing needs and tasks, and gathering supplies before beginning a task are all components of time management.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “needs assistance.” These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect action by the nursing graduate. Read each option carefully and recall the guidelines for time management to answer the question. , review the principles of time management and documentation.References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 529). St. Louis: Mosby.Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 128-130). St. Louis: Saunders. The nurse should document task completion and client information throughout the day. Allowing time for unexpected tasks, prioritizing needs and tasks, and gathering supplies before beginning a task are all components of time management.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “needs assistance.” These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect action by the nursing graduate. Read each option carefully and recall the guidelines for time management to answer the question. , review the principles of time management and documentation.References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 529). St. Louis: Mosby.Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 128-130). St. Louis: Saunders. 39 / 96 A nurse is planning the client assignments for the shift. Which client should the nurse assign to the nursing assistant? A. A client who needs a blood transfusion B. A client with diarrhea on whom contact precautions have been imposed C. A client with angina who needs to be ambulated for the first time since admission D. A client with a draining abdominal wound that requires frequent dressing changes Assignment of tasks must be based the job description of the nursing assistant, the assistant’s level of clinical competence, and state law. Blood transfusions, dressing changes, and ambulation of a client with angina require the skill of a licensed nurse. A client under contact precautions is the most appropriate assignment for the nursing assistant because the nursing assistant is trained to provide hygiene care and to care for clients under specific precautions.Test-Taking Strategy: and knowledge regarding tasks that may be safely delegated to the nursing assistant. Read each client description and think about the needs of the client. Recalling that clients requiring invasive procedures or close monitoring must be assigned to a licensed nurse will assist you in answering correctly. Review: the principles of delegation and assignment-making .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405, 406). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 287). St. Louis: Mosby. Assignment of tasks must be based the job description of the nursing assistant, the assistant’s level of clinical competence, and state law. Blood transfusions, dressing changes, and ambulation of a client with angina require the skill of a licensed nurse. A client under contact precautions is the most appropriate assignment for the nursing assistant because the nursing assistant is trained to provide hygiene care and to care for clients under specific precautions.Test-Taking Strategy: and knowledge regarding tasks that may be safely delegated to the nursing assistant. Read each client description and think about the needs of the client. Recalling that clients requiring invasive procedures or close monitoring must be assigned to a licensed nurse will assist you in answering correctly. Review: the principles of delegation and assignment-making .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405, 406). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 287). St. Louis: Mosby. 40 / 96 A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first? A. A client scheduled for a colonoscopy B. A client preparing for discharge after surgery C. A client requiring a tube feeding through a gastrostomy tube D. A client with a tracheostomy who is receiving humidified oxygen by way of a tracheostomy mask Airway is always the priority, so the nurse would attend to the client who has a condition related to airway first. The other clients do not have conditions related to the airway and represent intermediate priorities.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to answer the question. The client with a tracheostomy is the only client with an airway problem. Remember that airway is always the first priority. Review: the guidelines for prioritization .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 510). St. Louis: Mosby.Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 128). St. Louis: Saunders. Airway is always the priority, so the nurse would attend to the client who has a condition related to airway first. The other clients do not have conditions related to the airway and represent intermediate priorities.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to answer the question. The client with a tracheostomy is the only client with an airway problem. Remember that airway is always the first priority. Review: the guidelines for prioritization .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 510). St. Louis: Mosby.Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 128). St. Louis: Saunders. 41 / 96 A nurse is planning client assignments for the day. Which of the following assignments is the least appropriate for the nursing assistant? A. Assisting a client with dysphagia in eating B. Providing hygiene to a client with dementia C. Ambulating a client with Parkinson’s disease D. Assisting a client with an above-the-knee amputation in showering The nurse must determine the most appropriate assignment on the basis of the skills of the staff member and the needs of the client. In this case, the least appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant would be assisting a client with dysphagia with eating because of the risk of complications such as choking and aspiration. The remaining three situations include no data to indicate that these tasks carry any unforeseen risk.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “least appropriate.” Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — and recall the principles of delegation and supervision of tasks in answering the question. Remember, delegation of work must be consistent with the individual’s level of expertise and licensure or lack of licensure. Review: the principles of assignments and delegation .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405-407). St. Louis: Mosby. The nurse must determine the most appropriate assignment on the basis of the skills of the staff member and the needs of the client. In this case, the least appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant would be assisting a client with dysphagia with eating because of the risk of complications such as choking and aspiration. The remaining three situations include no data to indicate that these tasks carry any unforeseen risk.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “least appropriate.” Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — and recall the principles of delegation and supervision of tasks in answering the question. Remember, delegation of work must be consistent with the individual’s level of expertise and licensure or lack of licensure. Review: the principles of assignments and delegation .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405-407). St. Louis: Mosby. 42 / 96 A client with diabetes mellitus who takes a daily dose of NPH insulin has a hard time drawing the insulin into a syringe because he has difficulty seeing the markings on the syringe. To which of the following services does the nurse suggest a referral? A. Social services B. Physical therapy C. Home care D. Occupational therapy Home care provides a variety of support services for the client and family, including assistance with the administration of insulin. For the client who has difficulty drawing insulin into a syringe, the home care nurse would prefill a week’s supply of syringes containing the required dose. These syringes would be placed in the client’s refrigerator for self-administration by the client. A social worker is trained to counsel clients in a variety of areas and may assist with the financial aspects of care. A physical therapist assists in examining, testing, and treating the physically disabled or handicapped through the use of exercises and other techniques. An occupational therapist assists a client who experiences impairment in performing activities of daily living such as feeding him- or herself with the use of an adaptive device.Test-Taking Strategy: and focus on the subject, the need for assistance with insulin administration. Recalling the functions and roles of the home care nurse and the healthcare workers in the other options will help you answer correctly. Review: the roles of various healthcare team members .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 96). St. Louis: Saunders. Home care provides a variety of support services for the client and family, including assistance with the administration of insulin. For the client who has difficulty drawing insulin into a syringe, the home care nurse would prefill a week’s supply of syringes containing the required dose. These syringes would be placed in the client’s refrigerator for self-administration by the client. A social worker is trained to counsel clients in a variety of areas and may assist with the financial aspects of care. A physical therapist assists in examining, testing, and treating the physically disabled or handicapped through the use of exercises and other techniques. An occupational therapist assists a client who experiences impairment in performing activities of daily living such as feeding him- or herself with the use of an adaptive device.Test-Taking Strategy: and focus on the subject, the need for assistance with insulin administration. Recalling the functions and roles of the home care nurse and the healthcare workers in the other options will help you answer correctly. Review: the roles of various healthcare team members .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 96). St. Louis: Saunders. 43 / 96 A case manager is reviewing notations made in clients’ records. Which note indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up? A. A client who has sustained a stroke dresses herself. B. A client exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy. C. Normal neurological findings are noted in a client with a cerebral aneurysm. D. A client with a spinal cord injury transfers himself from a bed to a wheelchair. A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating a client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. This nurse initiates a plan of nursing care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care and evaluates and updates the plan of care as needed. The case manager monitors the client for expected and unexpected outcomes and provides follow-up and revises the plan of care if an unexpected outcome is noted. A client who exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy, indicating a deterioration of the client’s condition, requires immediate follow-up. The descriptions in the other options are expected outcomes.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the role of the case manager and read each client description carefully. Next, focus on the subject, an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up. This will direct you to the description that is unexpected or unwanted. Signs of increased intracranial pressure are an immediate concern, indicating deterioration in the client’s condition. Review: the role of the nurse manager and expected and unexpected outcomes .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 369-370). St. Louis: Mosby.Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 468, 469). St. Louis: Saunders. A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating a client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. This nurse initiates a plan of nursing care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care and evaluates and updates the plan of care as needed. The case manager monitors the client for expected and unexpected outcomes and provides follow-up and revises the plan of care if an unexpected outcome is noted. A client who exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy, indicating a deterioration of the client’s condition, requires immediate follow-up. The descriptions in the other options are expected outcomes.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the role of the case manager and read each client description carefully. Next, focus on the subject, an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up. This will direct you to the description that is unexpected or unwanted. Signs of increased intracranial pressure are an immediate concern, indicating deterioration in the client’s condition. Review: the role of the nurse manager and expected and unexpected outcomes .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 369-370). St. Louis: Mosby.Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 468, 469). St. Louis: Saunders. 44 / 96 A client who had a stroke has left-side weakness and is having difficulty holding utensils while eating. To which of these services does the nurse suggest a referral? A. Home care B. Social services C. Physical therapy D. Occupational therapy An occupational therapist assists a client who experiences impairment in performing activities of daily living such as feeding him- or herself with the use of an adaptive device. Home care provides a variety of support services for the client and family, but the specific assistance needed for this client would be provided by the occupational therapist. A social worker is trained to counsel clients in a variety of areas and may assist with the financial aspects of care. A physical therapist assists in examining, testing, and treating the physically disabled or handicapped through the use of exercises and other techniques.Test-Taking Strategy: and focus on the subject, the need for assistance in eating. Recalling the functions and roles of the occupational therapist and the other healthcare workers in the options will help you answer correctly. Review: the roles of the various healthcare team members .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 96). St. Louis: Saunders. An occupational therapist assists a client who experiences impairment in performing activities of daily living such as feeding him- or herself with the use of an adaptive device. Home care provides a variety of support services for the client and family, but the specific assistance needed for this client would be provided by the occupational therapist. A social worker is trained to counsel clients in a variety of areas and may assist with the financial aspects of care. A physical therapist assists in examining, testing, and treating the physically disabled or handicapped through the use of exercises and other techniques.Test-Taking Strategy: and focus on the subject, the need for assistance in eating. Recalling the functions and roles of the occupational therapist and the other healthcare workers in the options will help you answer correctly. Review: the roles of the various healthcare team members .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 96). St. Louis: Saunders. 45 / 96 A registered nurse (RN) must determine how best to assign co–workers (another RN and one licensed practical nurse [LPN]) to provide care to a group of clients. Which of the following is the best assignment? A. The RN is assigned to care for a woman with newly diagnosed leukemia who has a newborn at home. B. The LPN is assigned to provide discharge teaching about dressing changes and medications to a 35-year-old man. C. The LPN is assigned to care for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus who will need to be taught how to self-administer insulin. D. The RN is assigned to care for a 75-year-old woman, hospitalized for dehydration, who is being discharged home today with no medications. To determine what may and may not be delegated to the various co-workers, the RN making the assignment must take into account several factors: the level of care required by each client, both immediately and in the future; the competencies possessed by the co-workers; and the legal limitations on the practice of those co-workers. Self–administration of insulin and discharge instructions on dressing changes and medications require teaching, a professional responsibility that the RN may not delegate to anyone except another RN. Although the RN might care for a client being discharged, the question tells you that an LPN is available. The RN would be best used to care for the client with more critical or complicated needs. Assigning an RN to a client who is being discharged with no medications is, therefore, incorrect. The client with newly diagnosed leukemia who has a newborn at home is likely to be in need of the skills of an RN in terms of both physiological and psychosocial needs, making this an appropriate assignment.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “best.” Eliminate the options in which the LPN is assigned to a client requiring teaching. To select from the remaining options, focus on each client and think about his or her actual and potential needs. The RN is best assigned to the client with physiological and psychosocial needs. Review: the guidelines for delegation and assignment–making .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 406-408, 418). St. Louis: Mosby.Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 243). St. Louis: Saunders. To determine what may and may not be delegated to the various co-workers, the RN making the assignment must take into account several factors: the level of care required by each client, both immediately and in the future; the competencies possessed by the co-workers; and the legal limitations on the practice of those co-workers. Self–administration of insulin and discharge instructions on dressing changes and medications require teaching, a professional responsibility that the RN may not delegate to anyone except another RN. Although the RN might care for a client being discharged, the question tells you that an LPN is available. The RN would be best used to care for the client with more critical or complicated needs. Assigning an RN to a client who is being discharged with no medications is, therefore, incorrect. The client with newly diagnosed leukemia who has a newborn at home is likely to be in need of the skills of an RN in terms of both physiological and psychosocial needs, making this an appropriate assignment.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “best.” Eliminate the options in which the LPN is assigned to a client requiring teaching. To select from the remaining options, focus on each client and think about his or her actual and potential needs. The RN is best assigned to the client with physiological and psychosocial needs. Review: the guidelines for delegation and assignment–making .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 406-408, 418). St. Louis: Mosby.Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 243). St. Louis: Saunders. 46 / 96 A nurse manager is planning client assignments for the day. Which of the following clients should the nurse assign to the nursing assistant (unlicensed assistive personnel)? A. A client scheduled for a cardiac stress test B. A client who had a mastectomy 2 days ago C. A client scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy D. A client with renal calculi whose urine must be strained The registered nurse is legally responsible for client assignments and must assign tasks on the basis of the guidelines of the state nursing practice act and the job descriptions set forth by the employing agency. The nursing assistant has been trained to collect and strain urine. The nurse manager would provide instructions to the nursing assistant regarding the task, but the task is within the role description of a nursing assistant. A client scheduled for a cardiac stress test requires preparation for the test, teaching, and postprocedure monitoring. A client scheduled for surgery will require preoperative preparation, including teaching. A client who underwent mastectomy 2 days earlier will need both physiological and psychosocial care, requiring the skills of a licensed nurse.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the question asks for the assignment to be delegated to the nursing assistant. When asked questions related to delegation, think about the role description of the employee and the needs of the client. For the nursing assistant, select the client who has needs that are noninvasive and do not require a high level skill, meaning that assessment, teaching, and monitoring are inappropriate tasks. Review: the guidelines related to delegation to a nursing assistant .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405-407). St. Louis: Mosby. The registered nurse is legally responsible for client assignments and must assign tasks on the basis of the guidelines of the state nursing practice act and the job descriptions set forth by the employing agency. The nursing assistant has been trained to collect and strain urine. The nurse manager would provide instructions to the nursing assistant regarding the task, but the task is within the role description of a nursing assistant. A client scheduled for a cardiac stress test requires preparation for the test, teaching, and postprocedure monitoring. A client scheduled for surgery will require preoperative preparation, including teaching. A client who underwent mastectomy 2 days earlier will need both physiological and psychosocial care, requiring the skills of a licensed nurse.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the question asks for the assignment to be delegated to the nursing assistant. When asked questions related to delegation, think about the role description of the employee and the needs of the client. For the nursing assistant, select the client who has needs that are noninvasive and do not require a high level skill, meaning that assessment, teaching, and monitoring are inappropriate tasks. Review: the guidelines related to delegation to a nursing assistant .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405-407). St. Louis: Mosby. 47 / 96 A nurse manager tells the nursing staff that they will need to comply with the mandatory overtime policy that the hospital has implemented. Later that day, the nurse manager overhears a nurse complaining about the policy and telling other nurses that she will not work the overtime if she has made other plans after her regular shift. What is the best approach for the nurse manager to use in dealing with the conflict? A. Ignoring the complaints B. Avoiding assigning the nurse mandatory overtime C. Confronting the nurse regarding her behavior regarding the overtime policy D. Providing a positive reward system for the nurse so that the nurse will agree to work the mandatory overtime : Confrontation is an important strategy for addressing resistance by a staff member who is complaining about an agency protocol. Face–to–face meetings to confront the issue at hand will allow verbalization of feelings and identification of problems and issues, and give the nurse manager the opportunity to develop strategies to solve the problem. Ignoring the complaints and avoiding assigning the nurse mandatory overtime are inappropriate strategies that do not address the problem. Providing a positive reward system might provide a temporary solution to the resistance but will not specifically address the problem.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “best” in the query of the question and focus on the subject, dealing with conflict. Eliminate the options that ignore the nurse’s complaints. To select from the remaining options, look for the option that specifically addresses the subject and provides problem-solving measures. , review the strategies associated with dealing with conflict.Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 68). St. Louis: Saunders. : Confrontation is an important strategy for addressing resistance by a staff member who is complaining about an agency protocol. Face–to–face meetings to confront the issue at hand will allow verbalization of feelings and identification of problems and issues, and give the nurse manager the opportunity to develop strategies to solve the problem. Ignoring the complaints and avoiding assigning the nurse mandatory overtime are inappropriate strategies that do not address the problem. Providing a positive reward system might provide a temporary solution to the resistance but will not specifically address the problem.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “best” in the query of the question and focus on the subject, dealing with conflict. Eliminate the options that ignore the nurse’s complaints. To select from the remaining options, look for the option that specifically addresses the subject and provides problem-solving measures. , review the strategies associated with dealing with conflict.Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 68). St. Louis: Saunders. 48 / 96 The nurse is preparing client assignments for the day. Which client should the nurse assign to a nursing assistant? A. A client scheduled for a liver biopsy B. An unconscious client who requires oral care C. A client who has just undergone cardiac catheterization D. A client who is getting up to ambulate for the first time after surgery The registered nurse is legally responsible for client assignments and must assign tasks on the basis of the guidelines of the state nursing practice act and the job descriptions set forth by the employing agency. Oral care may be delegated to a nursing assistant. The nurse would provide instructions to the nursing assistant regarding the task, how to adapt the procedure for the client at risk for aspiration, and the signs of complications that must be reported immediately (e.g., bleeding gums, excessive coughing). A client who has just undergone cardiac catheterization requires monitoring for complications, and a client scheduled for liver biopsy requires preparation for the test and client teaching. A client who is getting up to ambulate for the first time after surgery is at risk for orthostatic hypotension and should be assisted by a licensed nurse.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the question asks for the assignment to be delegated to the nursing assistant. When asked questions related to delegation, think about the role description of the employee and the needs of the client. For the nursing assistant, select the client who has needs that do not require a high skill level, meaning that assessment, teaching, and monitoring are not appropriate. Note that two of the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they identify clients who have undergone invasive procedures. Review: the guidelines related to delegation to a nursing assistant .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405-407). St. Louis: Mosby. The registered nurse is legally responsible for client assignments and must assign tasks on the basis of the guidelines of the state nursing practice act and the job descriptions set forth by the employing agency. Oral care may be delegated to a nursing assistant. The nurse would provide instructions to the nursing assistant regarding the task, how to adapt the procedure for the client at risk for aspiration, and the signs of complications that must be reported immediately (e.g., bleeding gums, excessive coughing). A client who has just undergone cardiac catheterization requires monitoring for complications, and a client scheduled for liver biopsy requires preparation for the test and client teaching. A client who is getting up to ambulate for the first time after surgery is at risk for orthostatic hypotension and should be assisted by a licensed nurse.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the question asks for the assignment to be delegated to the nursing assistant. When asked questions related to delegation, think about the role description of the employee and the needs of the client. For the nursing assistant, select the client who has needs that do not require a high skill level, meaning that assessment, teaching, and monitoring are not appropriate. Note that two of the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they identify clients who have undergone invasive procedures. Review: the guidelines related to delegation to a nursing assistant .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405-407). St. Louis: Mosby. 49 / 96 A graduate nurse hired to work in a medical unit of a hospital is attending an orientation session. The nurse educator, discussing care maps, asks the graduate nurse whether she understands how a care map is used. Which response indicates understanding? A. “The care map is developed by a nurse and identifies nursing diagnoses.” B. “The care map is a plan that is used only by the nurse to provide client care.” C. “The care map outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge.” D. “The care map is a standard plan, rather than an individualized one, that is developed strictly by a nurse and used for a client with a particular diagnosis.” The care map is a type of critical pathway that incorporates expected day-to-day client outcomes and those anticipated at discharge or at the end of a treatment phase. It outlines clinical assessments, treatments and procedures, dietary interventions, activity and exercise therapies, client education, and discharge planning. It may identify nursing diagnoses but is developed by members of all disciplines that normally care for the particular client type and is used by all members of the interdisciplinary team. Continuity of care can be achieved with the use of a care map.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they refer to the care map as a nursing tool only. Also note that the correct option is the umbrella option. Review: the purpose and use of the care map .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 304, 549). St. Louis: Mosby. The care map is a type of critical pathway that incorporates expected day-to-day client outcomes and those anticipated at discharge or at the end of a treatment phase. It outlines clinical assessments, treatments and procedures, dietary interventions, activity and exercise therapies, client education, and discharge planning. It may identify nursing diagnoses but is developed by members of all disciplines that normally care for the particular client type and is used by all members of the interdisciplinary team. Continuity of care can be achieved with the use of a care map.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they refer to the care map as a nursing tool only. Also note that the correct option is the umbrella option. Review: the purpose and use of the care map .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 304, 549). St. Louis: Mosby. 50 / 96 A registered nurse (RN) is watching as a new licensed practical nurse (LPN) administer an intramuscular (IM) injection in a client’s deltoid muscle. The RN determines that the LPN is performing the procedure correctly if the LPN: A. Administers the injection in the thigh B. Places the client in the Sims position C. Positions the client in a prone toe-in position D. Administers the injection 2 inches (5 cm) below the acromion process The RN is responsible for supervising certain procedures performed by an LPN to ensure that client safety is maintained. The deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm area. Administration of an injection into this muscle is done 2 inches (5 cm) below the acromion process (the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade). Therefore the injection is not given in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle). The Sims position is not the correct position for an injection into the deltoid muscle. A prone toe-in position is used for injection into the dorsogluteal site or gluteus medius muscle because it will promote internal rotation of the hips, which relaxes the muscle and makes the injection less painful.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “deltoid muscle.” Visualize each description in the options and use your knowledge of the anatomical locations of the various muscles to find the correct option. If you are unfamiliar with the administration of IM medications in the deltoid muscle, review the correct procedure.Reference: Perry, A., & Potter, P. (2010). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (7th ed., p. 600). St. Louis: Mosby. The RN is responsible for supervising certain procedures performed by an LPN to ensure that client safety is maintained. The deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm area. Administration of an injection into this muscle is done 2 inches (5 cm) below the acromion process (the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade). Therefore the injection is not given in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle). The Sims position is not the correct position for an injection into the deltoid muscle. A prone toe-in position is used for injection into the dorsogluteal site or gluteus medius muscle because it will promote internal rotation of the hips, which relaxes the muscle and makes the injection less painful.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “deltoid muscle.” Visualize each description in the options and use your knowledge of the anatomical locations of the various muscles to find the correct option. If you are unfamiliar with the administration of IM medications in the deltoid muscle, review the correct procedure.Reference: Perry, A., & Potter, P. (2010). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (7th ed., p. 600). St. Louis: Mosby. 51 / 96 A registered nurse (RN) is supervising a nursing assistant ambulating a client with right-sided weakness. The RN would conclude that the nursing assistant is performing the procedure incorrectly after observing that the nursing assistant: A. Stands behind the client B. Stands on the right side of the client C. Positions the free hand on the client’s shoulder Grasps the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client’s back D. A registered nurse (RN) is supervising a nursing assistant ambulating a client with right-sided weakness. The RN would conclude that the nursing assistant is performing the procedure incorrectly after observing that the nursing assistant: Stands behind the client Correct Stands on the right side of the client Positions the free hand on the client’s shoulder Grasps the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client’s back When walking with a client, the nurse should stand on the affected side and grasp the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client’s back. The nurse should position the free hand at the shoulder area so that the client may be pulled toward the nurse in the event that there is a forward fall. The client is instructed to look up and outward rather than at his or her feet.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “incorrectly.” This word indicates a negative event query and the need to select the unsafe action by the nursing assistant. Visualizing the action in each option will direct you to the unsafe and incorrect action. Review: the procedure for assisting ambulation of a client with weakness .Reference: Perry, A., & Potter, P. (2010). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (7th ed., pp. 250, 253). St. Louis: Mosby.When walking with a client, the nurse should stand on the affected side and grasp the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client’s back. The nurse should position the free hand at the shoulder area so that the client may be pulled toward the nurse in the event that there is a forward fall. The client is instructed to look up and outward rather than at his or her feet.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “incorrectly.” This word indicates a negative event query and the need to select the unsafe action by the nursing assistant. Visualizing the action in each option will direct you to the unsafe and incorrect action. Review: the procedure for assisting ambulation of a client with weakness .Reference: Perry, A., & Potter, P. (2010). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (7th ed., pp. 250, 253). St. Louis: Mosby.When walking with a client, the nurse should stand on the affected side and grasp the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client’s back. The nurse should position the free hand at the shoulder area so that the client may be pulled toward the nurse in the event that there is a forward fall. The client is instructed to look up and outward rather than at his or her feet.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “incorrectly.” This word indicates a negative event query and the need to select the unsafe action by the nursing assistant. Visualizing the action in each option will direct you to the unsafe and incorrect action. Review: the procedure for assisting ambulation of a client with weakness .Reference: Perry, A., & Potter, P. (2010). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (7th ed., pp. 250, 253). St. Louis: Mosby.When walking with a client, the nurse should stand on the affected side and grasp the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client’s back. The nurse should position the free hand at the shoulder area so that the client may be pulled toward the nurse in the event that there is a forward fall. The client is instructed to look up and outward rather than at his or her feet.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “incorrectly.” This word indicates a negative event query and the need to select the unsafe action by the nursing assistant. Visualizing the action in each option will direct you to the unsafe and incorrect action. Review: the procedure for assisting ambulation of a client with weakness .Reference: Perry, A., & Potter, P. (2010). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (7th ed., pp. 250, 253). St. Louis: Mosby.When walking with a client, the nurse should stand on the affected side and grasp the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client’s back. The nurse should position the free hand at the shoulder area so that the client may be pulled toward the nurse in the event that there is a forward fall. The client is instructed to look up and outward rather than at his or her feet.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “incorrectly.” This word indicates a negative event query and the need to select the unsafe action by the nursing assistant. Visualizing the action in each option will direct you to the unsafe and incorrect action. Review: the procedure for assisting ambulation of a client with weakness .Reference: Perry, A., & Potter, P. (2010). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (7th ed., pp. 250, 253). St. Louis: Mosby.When walking with a client, the nurse should stand on the affected side and grasp the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client’s back. The nurse should position the free hand at the shoulder area so that the client may be pulled toward the nurse in the event that there is a forward fall. The client is instructed to look up and outward rather than at his or her feet.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “incorrectly.” This word indicates a negative event query and the need to select the unsafe action by the nursing assistant. Visualizing the action in each option will direct you to the unsafe and incorrect action. Review: the procedure for assisting ambulation of a client with weakness .Reference: Perry, A., & Potter, P. (2010). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (7th ed., pp. 250, 253). St. Louis: Mosby.When walking with a client, the nurse should stand on the affected side and grasp the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client’s back. The nurse should position the free hand at the shoulder area so that the client may be pulled toward the nurse in the event that there is a forward fall. The client is instructed to look up and outward rather than at his or her feet.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “incorrectly.” This word indicates a negative event query and the need to select the unsafe action by the nursing assistant. Visualizing the action in each option will direct you to the unsafe and incorrect action. Review: the procedure for assisting ambulation of a client with weakness .Reference: Perry, A., & Potter, P. (2010). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (7th ed., pp. 250, 253). St. Louis: Mosby. When walking with a client, the nurse should stand on the affected side and grasp the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client’s back. The nurse should position the free hand at the shoulder area so that the client may be pulled toward the nurse in the event that there is a forward fall. The client is instructed to look up and outward rather than at his or her feet.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “incorrectly.” This word indicates a negative event query and the need to select the unsafe action by the nursing assistant. Visualizing the action in each option will direct you to the unsafe and incorrect action. Review: the procedure for assisting ambulation of a client with weakness .Reference: Perry, A., & Potter, P. (2010). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (7th ed., pp. 250, 253). St. Louis: Mosby. 52 / 96 A nurse planning care for her assigned clients understands that the purpose of the hospital’s standards of care is to: A. Identify methods of treatment B. Provide direction for the practice of nursing C. Provide direction for care on the basis of the client’s diagnosis D. Identify new care methods on the basis of current medical research The purpose of standards of care is to provide a broad direction for the overall practice of nursing that applies to all nursing situations, across specialty areas, across the country. Standards of care include the provision of competent care on the basis of current practice. Methods of treatment are individualized to the care of a specific client. Providing direction of care on the basis of the client’s diagnosis is a matter of medical interventions. New care methods are a matter of research.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, standards of care. Note the relationship of the subject and the information in the correct option. The correct option is also the umbrella option. Review: the purpose of standards of care .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 143). St. Louis: Mosby. The purpose of standards of care is to provide a broad direction for the overall practice of nursing that applies to all nursing situations, across specialty areas, across the country. Standards of care include the provision of competent care on the basis of current practice. Methods of treatment are individualized to the care of a specific client. Providing direction of care on the basis of the client’s diagnosis is a matter of medical interventions. New care methods are a matter of research.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, standards of care. Note the relationship of the subject and the information in the correct option. The correct option is also the umbrella option. Review: the purpose of standards of care .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 143). St. Louis: Mosby. 53 / 96 A case manager is serving on a community task force on violence in schools. The members of the task force are planning to develop interventions to help prevent violence. According to the nursing process, the first activity that the nurse would suggest to the task force is: A. Teaching schoolchildren about the dangers of school violence B. Looking at what other communities are doing about school violence C. Distributing fliers that identify the causes of school violence to families in the community D. Conducting a community survey to assess community perceptions regarding school violence An assessment activity is always the first step in the nursing process. Conducting a community survey on school violence addresses assessment of community perceptions. Teaching schoolchildren about the dangers of violence and distributing fliers that identify the cause of school violence are implementation measures. Looking at what other communities are doing is part of the analysis of a variety of assessment data but is not specific to the subject of the question.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. Eliminate the options that are implementation actions. To select from the remaining options, note the word “assess” in the correct option. Review: the various roles of the nurse and the process of assessment .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 350, 351). St. Louis: Mosby.Maurer, F., & Smith, C. (2009). Community/public health nursing practices: Health for families and populations (4th ed., pp. 772, 773). Philadelphia: Saunders. An assessment activity is always the first step in the nursing process. Conducting a community survey on school violence addresses assessment of community perceptions. Teaching schoolchildren about the dangers of violence and distributing fliers that identify the cause of school violence are implementation measures. Looking at what other communities are doing is part of the analysis of a variety of assessment data but is not specific to the subject of the question.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. Eliminate the options that are implementation actions. To select from the remaining options, note the word “assess” in the correct option. Review: the various roles of the nurse and the process of assessment .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 350, 351). St. Louis: Mosby.Maurer, F., & Smith, C. (2009). Community/public health nursing practices: Health for families and populations (4th ed., pp. 772, 773). Philadelphia: Saunders. 54 / 96 A case manager is reviewing the records of the clients in the nursing unit. Which note(s) in a client’s record indicate an unexpected outcome and the need for follow-up? Select all that apply. A. A client with a central venous catheter has a temperature of 100.6° F (38.1°C). B. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is self-administering insulin. C. A client who has just undergone surgery has a urine output of more than 30 mL/hr. D. A client who has just undergone surgery is getting relief from the prescribed pain medication. E. A client is performing his own colostomy irrigations. A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating a client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. This nurse initiates a plan of nursing care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care and evaluates and updates the plan of care as needed. The case manager monitors the client for expected and unexpected outcomes and provides follow-up and revises the plan of care if an unexpected outcome is noted. A temperature of 100.6° F (38.1°C) in a client with a central venous catheter is an unexpected and unwanted outcome requiring the need for follow-up, because it may indicate the development of an infection. The other options all represent expected outcomes.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the role of the case manager and read each client description carefully. Next, focus on the subject, an unexpected outcome and the need for follow-up. This will direct you to the outcome that is unexpected or unwanted. An increased temperature is a concern because it is a sign of infection. Review: the role of the nurse manager and information on these expected and unexpected outcomes .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 468, 469). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 397). St. Louis: Mosby. A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating a client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. This nurse initiates a plan of nursing care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care and evaluates and updates the plan of care as needed. The case manager monitors the client for expected and unexpected outcomes and provides follow-up and revises the plan of care if an unexpected outcome is noted. A temperature of 100.6° F (38.1°C) in a client with a central venous catheter is an unexpected and unwanted outcome requiring the need for follow-up, because it may indicate the development of an infection. The other options all represent expected outcomes.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the role of the case manager and read each client description carefully. Next, focus on the subject, an unexpected outcome and the need for follow-up. This will direct you to the outcome that is unexpected or unwanted. An increased temperature is a concern because it is a sign of infection. Review: the role of the nurse manager and information on these expected and unexpected outcomes .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 468, 469). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 397). St. Louis: Mosby. 55 / 96 A registered nurse (RN) has received the assignment for the day shift. Once the RN has made initial rounds and checked all of the assigned clients, which client will she plan to care for first? A. A client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 pm B. A client scheduled for physical therapy at 11 am C. A client in skeletal traction who has just received pain medication D. A client who is able to perform activities of daily living independently For the client assignment presented, the RN would plan to care for the client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 pm first. Several items need to be addressed before surgery, including client preparation (physical and emotional) and health care provider prescriptions, all of which will take time. Also, many times the operating room will make late changes in the schedule, depending on room and health care provider availability, and will request an earlier surgical time. Therefore it is best to ensure that this client is prepared. It is best to wait for pain medication to take effect before providing care to a client. The needs of the client who is independent and the client scheduled for physical therapy later in the morning are not high priorities.Test-Taking Strategy: and principles related to prioritization. Focus on the subject, the client for whom the RN will care first. Noting that an assigned client is scheduled for surgery and recalling the many needs of a client about to undergo surgery will direct you to the correct option. Review: the principles of prioritizing .References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 128). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 374, 375). St. Louis: Mosby. For the client assignment presented, the RN would plan to care for the client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 pm first. Several items need to be addressed before surgery, including client preparation (physical and emotional) and health care provider prescriptions, all of which will take time. Also, many times the operating room will make late changes in the schedule, depending on room and health care provider availability, and will request an earlier surgical time. Therefore it is best to ensure that this client is prepared. It is best to wait for pain medication to take effect before providing care to a client. The needs of the client who is independent and the client scheduled for physical therapy later in the morning are not high priorities.Test-Taking Strategy: and principles related to prioritization. Focus on the subject, the client for whom the RN will care first. Noting that an assigned client is scheduled for surgery and recalling the many needs of a client about to undergo surgery will direct you to the correct option. Review: the principles of prioritizing .References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 128). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 374, 375). St. Louis: Mosby. 56 / 96 A registered nurse (RN) is planning assignments for five clients on the nursing unit. The team includes a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and a nursing assistant. Which clients should the nurse assign to the LPN? Select all that apply. A. A client who is confused and requires assistance with a shower B. A client requiring a bed bath and frequent ambulation with a cane C. A client who must be accompanied to physical therapy twice during the shift D. A client with a colostomy who requires reinforcement regarding the procedure for irrigation E. A client with diabetes mellitus who requires the administration of regular insulin in accordance with a sliding dosage scale every 4 hours When delegating nursing assignments, the nurse must consider the skills and educational level of the nursing staff. The nursing assistant may be assigned the tasks of caring for a confused client, assisting with a shower or a bed bath, ambulating a client with a cane, and accompanying a client to physical therapy. The LPN is educated to reinforce teaching regarding the colostomy irrigation (the RN is responsible for the initial teaching) and administering regular insulin in accordance with a sliding scale.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the client assignment for the LPN. to eliminate the clients whose needs are noninvasive, because a nursing assistant may perform these tasks. This will help you identify the clients who may be assigned to the LPN. , review the principles of delegation and assignment–making.Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 244-246, 250). St. Louis: Saunders. When delegating nursing assignments, the nurse must consider the skills and educational level of the nursing staff. The nursing assistant may be assigned the tasks of caring for a confused client, assisting with a shower or a bed bath, ambulating a client with a cane, and accompanying a client to physical therapy. The LPN is educated to reinforce teaching regarding the colostomy irrigation (the RN is responsible for the initial teaching) and administering regular insulin in accordance with a sliding scale.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the client assignment for the LPN. to eliminate the clients whose needs are noninvasive, because a nursing assistant may perform these tasks. This will help you identify the clients who may be assigned to the LPN. , review the principles of delegation and assignment–making.Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 244-246, 250). St. Louis: Saunders. 57 / 96 A registered nurse (RN) is planning client assignments for the day. Which clients should the nurse assign to a nursing assistant (unlicensed assistive personnel)? Select all that apply. A. A client with a permanent tracheostomy B. A client requiring a gastrostomy tube dressing change C. A client who requires transport to the radiology department in a wheelchair D. A client with a Foley catheter for whom a 24-hour urine collection is in progress E. A client who underwent surgery an hour earlier and has a nasogastric tube and a Foley catheter The nurse must base assignments on the basis of the skills of the staff member and the needs of the client. The nursing assistant is capable of caring for the client with a Foley catheter for whom a 24-hour urine collection is in progress and the client who requires transport to the radiology department in a wheelchair. The nursing assistant is skilled in such tasks. The client who has just undergone surgery will require specific monitoring in addition to recording of vital signs. Dressing changes and tracheostomy care are not performed by unlicensed personnel.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, assignments for the nursing assistant. Think about the skills that the nursing assistant can perform and remember that the nursing assistant may perform tasks that are noninvasive. Review: the principles of delegation and assignment–making .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 244-246, 250). St. Louis: Saunders. The nurse must base assignments on the basis of the skills of the staff member and the needs of the client. The nursing assistant is capable of caring for the client with a Foley catheter for whom a 24-hour urine collection is in progress and the client who requires transport to the radiology department in a wheelchair. The nursing assistant is skilled in such tasks. The client who has just undergone surgery will require specific monitoring in addition to recording of vital signs. Dressing changes and tracheostomy care are not performed by unlicensed personnel.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, assignments for the nursing assistant. Think about the skills that the nursing assistant can perform and remember that the nursing assistant may perform tasks that are noninvasive. Review: the principles of delegation and assignment–making .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 244-246, 250). St. Louis: Saunders. 58 / 96 A nurse manager has announced a change to computerized documentation of nursing care. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) on the team, resistant to the change, is not taking an active part in facilitating implementation of the new procedure. Which of the following strategies would be the best approach to dealing with the conflict? A. Ignoring the resistance B. Telling the LPN that his noncompliance will be documented in his personnel record C. Confronting the LPN and encouraging him to express his feelings regarding the change D. Telling the LPN that a registered nurse will perform all of the computer documentation if he will document all intake and output and vital signs Confrontation is an important strategy in dealing with resistance. Face–to–face meetings to confront the issue at hand allow verbalization of feelings, identification of problems and issues, and development of strategies to solve the problem. Ignoring the resistance does not address the problem. Providing a temporary solution to the resistance by having the registered nurse do all of the computer work and having the LPN perform only specific documentation will not specifically address the concern. Telling the LPN that the noncompliance will be documented in his personnel record may produce additional resistance.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the best approach to dealing with a conflict. and eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they represent direct avoidance of the conflict. , review the best approaches to with dealing with conflict.References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 287). St. Louis: Saunders.Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 326, 327). St. Louis: Mosby. Confrontation is an important strategy in dealing with resistance. Face–to–face meetings to confront the issue at hand allow verbalization of feelings, identification of problems and issues, and development of strategies to solve the problem. Ignoring the resistance does not address the problem. Providing a temporary solution to the resistance by having the registered nurse do all of the computer work and having the LPN perform only specific documentation will not specifically address the concern. Telling the LPN that the noncompliance will be documented in his personnel record may produce additional resistance.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the best approach to dealing with a conflict. and eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they represent direct avoidance of the conflict. , review the best approaches to with dealing with conflict.References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 287). St. Louis: Saunders.Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 326, 327). St. Louis: Mosby. 59 / 96 The nurse reviewing a client’s record sees that the following medications are prescribed. Which medication should the nurse plan to administer first?Client Medications1. Atorvastatin (Lipitor) 10 mg orally2. Zolpidem (Ambien) 5 mg orally daily3. Ferrous sulfate (Feosol) 1 tablet orally4. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) 137 mg orally A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 For adequate absorption, levothyroxine must be administered with water on an empty stomach as soon as the client awakens and at least 1 hour apart from other fluids (e.g., coffee or tea), food, and other medications. Therefore this medication should be administered first. Atorvastatin (Lipitor), an HMG–CoA reductase inhibitor used to lower cholesterol, is administered at bedtime because cholesterol synthesis is increased during the night. Zolpidem, a benzodiazepine-like medication used to enhance sleep, is administered at bedtime. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement that is administered with water between meals.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Think about the classification of each medication to determine its action. This will help you answer correctly. Also note that atorvastatin and zolpidem are comparable or alike in that they are administered at bedtime. Next, recalling the action of levothyroxine will direct you to this option. Review: the medications in the options and their method of administration .References: Lehne, R. (2010). Pharmacology for nursing care (7th ed., pp. 380, 570, 694). St. Louis: Saunders.Hodgson, B., & Kizior, R. (2009). Saunders nursing drug handbook 2009 (p. 476). St. Louis: Saunders. For adequate absorption, levothyroxine must be administered with water on an empty stomach as soon as the client awakens and at least 1 hour apart from other fluids (e.g., coffee or tea), food, and other medications. Therefore this medication should be administered first. Atorvastatin (Lipitor), an HMG–CoA reductase inhibitor used to lower cholesterol, is administered at bedtime because cholesterol synthesis is increased during the night. Zolpidem, a benzodiazepine-like medication used to enhance sleep, is administered at bedtime. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement that is administered with water between meals.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Think about the classification of each medication to determine its action. This will help you answer correctly. Also note that atorvastatin and zolpidem are comparable or alike in that they are administered at bedtime. Next, recalling the action of levothyroxine will direct you to this option. Review: the medications in the options and their method of administration .References: Lehne, R. (2010). Pharmacology for nursing care (7th ed., pp. 380, 570, 694). St. Louis: Saunders.Hodgson, B., & Kizior, R. (2009). Saunders nursing drug handbook 2009 (p. 476). St. Louis: Saunders. 60 / 96 A case manager is reviewing progress notes in a client’s medical record. Which notation indicates the need for follow-up?S/NoClient ConditionNotation1.Client 1Status post–mastectomy:18 hoursFive milliliters of bloody drainage was emptied from the Jackson–Pratt drain.2.Client 2Heart FailureCrackles were heard in the lower lung lobes bilaterally on auscultation.3.Client 3Status post–appendectomy: 24 hoursThe surgical dressing is clean and dry.4.Client 4Diabetes mellitus Blood glucose level is is124 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L). A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating a client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. This nurse initiates a nursing plan of care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care, evaluating and updating the plan of care as needed. The case manager monitors the client for expected and unexpected outcomes and provides follow-up and revises the plan of care if an unexpected outcome is noted. Crackles heard in the lower lobes of the lungs in a client with heart failure are an unexpected and unwanted outcome requiring follow-up because they could indicate the development of pulmonary edema. The notations made for the other clients listed represent expected outcomes. Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the role of the case manager and read each notation carefully. Next, focus on the subject, the need for follow-up. This will direct you to the notation that represents an unexpected or unwanted outcome. Crackles heard in the lower lobes of the lungs on auscultation are a matter of concern. Review: the role of the nurse manager and the expected and unexpected findings for the client conditions noted in the options . Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 468-469). St. Louis: Saunders. Cognitive Ability: Evaluating Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Evaluation Content Area: Leadership/Management A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating a client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. This nurse initiates a nursing plan of care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care, evaluating and updating the plan of care as needed. The case manager monitors the client for expected and unexpected outcomes and provides follow-up and revises the plan of care if an unexpected outcome is noted. Crackles heard in the lower lobes of the lungs in a client with heart failure are an unexpected and unwanted outcome requiring follow-up because they could indicate the development of pulmonary edema. The notations made for the other clients listed represent expected outcomes. Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the role of the case manager and read each notation carefully. Next, focus on the subject, the need for follow-up. This will direct you to the notation that represents an unexpected or unwanted outcome. Crackles heard in the lower lobes of the lungs on auscultation are a matter of concern. Review: the role of the nurse manager and the expected and unexpected findings for the client conditions noted in the options . Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 468-469). St. Louis: Saunders. Cognitive Ability: Evaluating Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Evaluation Content Area: Leadership/Management 61 / 96 A nurse has delegated several nursing tasks to staff members. The nurse’s primary responsibility after delegation of the tasks is: A. Documenting completion of each task B. Assigning any tasks that were not completed to the next nursing shift C. Allowing each staff member to make judgments when performing the tasks D. Following up with each staff member regarding the performance of the task and the outcomes related to implementation of the task. The ultimate responsibility for a task lies with the person who delegated it. Therefore it is the nurse’s primary responsibility to follow up with each staff member regarding the performance of the task and the outcomes related to implementation of the task. Not all staff members have the education, knowledge, and ability to make judgments about the tasks being performed. The nurse would document that the task was completed, but this would not be done until follow–up had been conducted and outcomes identified. It is not appropriate to assign the tasks that have not been completed to the next nursing shift; this action does not ensure that client needs will be met and also increases the workload for the next shift.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic words “primary responsibility.” Recalling that the ultimate responsibility for a task lies with the person who delegated it will direct you to the correct option. Review: the guidelines for delegation .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 309-311). St. Louis: Mosby. The ultimate responsibility for a task lies with the person who delegated it. Therefore it is the nurse’s primary responsibility to follow up with each staff member regarding the performance of the task and the outcomes related to implementation of the task. Not all staff members have the education, knowledge, and ability to make judgments about the tasks being performed. The nurse would document that the task was completed, but this would not be done until follow–up had been conducted and outcomes identified. It is not appropriate to assign the tasks that have not been completed to the next nursing shift; this action does not ensure that client needs will be met and also increases the workload for the next shift.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic words “primary responsibility.” Recalling that the ultimate responsibility for a task lies with the person who delegated it will direct you to the correct option. Review: the guidelines for delegation .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 309-311). St. Louis: Mosby. 62 / 96 A nurse working the 7 am–to–3 pm shift is reviewing the records of her assigned clients. Which client should the nurse assess first? A. A client scheduled for hemodialysis at 10 am B. A client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 am C. A client scheduled for contrast computed tomography (CT) at noon D. A client scheduled for hydrotherapy for treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 am A client scheduled for hemodialysis has needs that must be met before the procedure. The nurse must ensure that the client is physically and emotionally ready for the treatment, which may take as long as 5 hours. Before the treatment, the nurse must assess the client, including looking for fluid overload by checking the client’s weight and lung sounds. The nurse must also assess the client’s predialysis vital signs and the results of laboratory tests for comparison in the postdialysis period. Although the clients described in the other options have needs, they are not immediate. A client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 am may require reinforcement of information about the procedure and will need to increase fluid intake before the procedure. A client scheduled for hydrotherapy for treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 am may require pain medication, but the medication should be administered approximately 30 minutes before the hydrotherapy. A client scheduled for contrast CT at noon may require reinforcement of information about the procedure and may need to drink a special contrast preparation just before the procedure.Test-Taking Strategy: Use Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory and think about the needs of each client and what pretesting or preprocedure preparation involves. Although all of the clients have physiological needs, the client scheduled for hemodialysis has the priority need, that being the risk of fluid overload. Review: the principles of prioritizing .References: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 374, 375). St. Louis: Mosby. A client scheduled for hemodialysis has needs that must be met before the procedure. The nurse must ensure that the client is physically and emotionally ready for the treatment, which may take as long as 5 hours. Before the treatment, the nurse must assess the client, including looking for fluid overload by checking the client’s weight and lung sounds. The nurse must also assess the client’s predialysis vital signs and the results of laboratory tests for comparison in the postdialysis period. Although the clients described in the other options have needs, they are not immediate. A client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 am may require reinforcement of information about the procedure and will need to increase fluid intake before the procedure. A client scheduled for hydrotherapy for treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 am may require pain medication, but the medication should be administered approximately 30 minutes before the hydrotherapy. A client scheduled for contrast CT at noon may require reinforcement of information about the procedure and may need to drink a special contrast preparation just before the procedure.Test-Taking Strategy: Use Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory and think about the needs of each client and what pretesting or preprocedure preparation involves. Although all of the clients have physiological needs, the client scheduled for hemodialysis has the priority need, that being the risk of fluid overload. Review: the principles of prioritizing .References: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 374, 375). St. Louis: Mosby. 63 / 96 A nurse is providing a change-of-shift report on his assigned clients, using an audiotape. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include in the report about each assigned client? Select all that apply. A. Family history B. Client needs and priorities of care C. Current diagnosis and any secondary diagnoses D. Results of laboratory studies conducted that day E. Client response to treatments implemented that day F. The steps used to perform the procedure for changing the client’s sterile dressing at the gastrostomy tube site A change-of-shift report ensures continuity of care among nurses caring for a client and informs the nurse on the next shift about the client’s needs and priorities for care. It may be given written, orally, by audiotape, or while the nurses are walking rounds at a client’s bedside. The report should describe the client’s health status, current and secondary diagnoses, results of laboratory or diagnostic studies done that day, and the client’s response to treatments implemented that day. The client’s family history does not need to be described in a change-of shift report, and doing so would take time. If such information is needed by the oncoming nurse, it may be obtained from the client’s medical record. There is no useful reason for describing a routine procedure; this would also take time, and the information is available in the agency procedure manual.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, what to include in the change-of-shift report. Read each option carefully and eliminate family history, because it is not directly related to the client’s current status. Next eliminate the option that involves describing the steps in performing a procedure, because this is routine information. Also note that the correct options are client focused. Review: the components of a change-of-shift report .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 400-402). St. Louis: Mosby. A change-of-shift report ensures continuity of care among nurses caring for a client and informs the nurse on the next shift about the client’s needs and priorities for care. It may be given written, orally, by audiotape, or while the nurses are walking rounds at a client’s bedside. The report should describe the client’s health status, current and secondary diagnoses, results of laboratory or diagnostic studies done that day, and the client’s response to treatments implemented that day. The client’s family history does not need to be described in a change-of shift report, and doing so would take time. If such information is needed by the oncoming nurse, it may be obtained from the client’s medical record. There is no useful reason for describing a routine procedure; this would also take time, and the information is available in the agency procedure manual.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, what to include in the change-of-shift report. Read each option carefully and eliminate family history, because it is not directly related to the client’s current status. Next eliminate the option that involves describing the steps in performing a procedure, because this is routine information. Also note that the correct options are client focused. Review: the components of a change-of-shift report .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 400-402). St. Louis: Mosby. 64 / 96 A registered nurse (RN) in charge of a long-term care facility who is working with a nursing assistant on the night shift prepares to take her break. To ensure client safety during her break, which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. A. Conducting client rounds before taking the break B. Taking the break in the staff lounge located on the nursing unit C. Asking the nursing assistant to monitor a client’s tube feeding and to contact the nurse when the feeding bag is empty D. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse’s break if a client’s pain medication is not effective E. Informing the nursing assistant that she is leaving the nursing unit to get a cup of coffee from a vending machine in the lobby F. Asking the nursing assistant to administer a medication placed at the client’s bedside if the client awakens The RN is responsible for ensuring client safety at all times and must not leave the nursing unit for any reason during the shift. The nurse’s break should be taken in a designated area located on the nursing unit. Before taking the break, the nurse should check all clients to ensure that they are safe and comfortable and that their needs have been met. A nursing assistant should never be asked to perform any activity that he or she is not trained for. This includes such activities as administering medications; assessing, monitoring, or evaluating the client; and making decisions about contacting a physician.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the roles and responsibilities of the RN and the tasks or activities that the nursing assistant may legally perform and focus on the subject, safety. Remember that the registered nurse is responsible for administering medications; assessing, monitoring, and evaluating the client; and making decisions about contacting a physician. Review: the role of the RN and the tasks and activities that may be delegated to a nursing assistant.References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 242, 243). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 400-402). St. Louis: Mosby. The RN is responsible for ensuring client safety at all times and must not leave the nursing unit for any reason during the shift. The nurse’s break should be taken in a designated area located on the nursing unit. Before taking the break, the nurse should check all clients to ensure that they are safe and comfortable and that their needs have been met. A nursing assistant should never be asked to perform any activity that he or she is not trained for. This includes such activities as administering medications; assessing, monitoring, or evaluating the client; and making decisions about contacting a physician.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the roles and responsibilities of the RN and the tasks or activities that the nursing assistant may legally perform and focus on the subject, safety. Remember that the registered nurse is responsible for administering medications; assessing, monitoring, and evaluating the client; and making decisions about contacting a physician. Review: the role of the RN and the tasks and activities that may be delegated to a nursing assistant.References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 242, 243). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 400-402). St. Louis: Mosby. 65 / 96 A registered nurse (RN) who has a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and a nursing assistant on the nursing team is planning client assignments for the day. Which of the following clients should the RN assign to the LPN? A. A client on bedrest who needs assistance with feeding B. A client who must be turned and repositioned every 2 hours C. A client receiving oxygen who requires frequent pulse oximetry monitoring and respiratory treatments D. A client with retinal detachment who is wearing eye patches and requires assistance with hygiene measures When a nurse delegates aspects of a client’s care to another staff member, he or she is responsible for appropriately assigning tasks on the basis of the educational level and competency of the staff member. A client receiving oxygen who requires pulse oximetry monitoring and respiratory treatments should be assigned to the LPN, because this staff member can perform these tasks and is competent to note changes in the client’s condition. Feeding a client, turning and repositioning a client, and assisting with hygiene measures, all noninvasive interventions, may be assigned to a nursing assistant.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject of the question, assignment of tasks to an LPN. Think about the activities that the LPN is able to perform. Next, eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they are noninvasive procedures. Review: the principles of delegating tasks .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 406, 407). St. Louis: Mosby. 66 / 96 A registered nurse (RN) is planning client assignments for the day. Which of the following clients should the RN assign to the nursing assistant? A. A client who requires periodic suctioning B. A client who needs a colostomy irrigation C. A client who needs frequent ambulation with a walker D. A client who has undergone an arteriogram and requires close monitoring When a nurse delegates aspects of a client’s care to another staff member, he or she is responsible for appropriately assigning tasks on the basis of the educational level and competency of the staff member. Noninvasive interventions such as ambulating a client with a walker may be assigned to a nursing assistant. A client who requires suctioning or one who needs a colostomy irrigation should be assigned to a licensed practical nurse (LPN) because these staff members can perform certain invasive procedures. The client who has undergone an arteriogram should be assigned to either an LPN or an RN because these personnel have the knowledge and education to detect changes in the client’s status that require attention.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject of the question, assignment to a nursing assistant. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve invasive procedures. To select from the remaining options, think about the education that a nursing assistant receives. The nursing assistant is trained to ambulate a client with an assistive device but does not have the knowledge and education to detect changes in a client’s status. Review: the guidelines for delegation of tasks.Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 406, 407). St. Louis: Mosby. When a nurse delegates aspects of a client’s care to another staff member, he or she is responsible for appropriately assigning tasks on the basis of the educational level and competency of the staff member. Noninvasive interventions such as ambulating a client with a walker may be assigned to a nursing assistant. A client who requires suctioning or one who needs a colostomy irrigation should be assigned to a licensed practical nurse (LPN) because these staff members can perform certain invasive procedures. The client who has undergone an arteriogram should be assigned to either an LPN or an RN because these personnel have the knowledge and education to detect changes in the client’s status that require attention.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject of the question, assignment to a nursing assistant. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve invasive procedures. To select from the remaining options, think about the education that a nursing assistant receives. The nursing assistant is trained to ambulate a client with an assistive device but does not have the knowledge and education to detect changes in a client’s status. Review: the guidelines for delegation of tasks.Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 406, 407). St. Louis: Mosby. 67 / 96 A client admitted to the hospital has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order in his medical record. The nurse understands that: A. The DNR order may not be changed once it is in effect B. The DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy C. The only people who may change the DNR order are members of the client’s immediate family D. The DNR order, as written on admission, must remain in effect for the duration of the client’s hospitalization If the client’s condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client’s hospitalization. The client’s request regarding DNR status is the priority.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that use the closed-ended words “may not” and “only.” To select from the remaining options, recall that a DNR status may be changed at any time. Review: the ethical and legal issues regarding DNR orders .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 177). St. Louis: Mosby. If the client’s condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client’s hospitalization. The client’s request regarding DNR status is the priority.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that use the closed-ended words “may not” and “only.” To select from the remaining options, recall that a DNR status may be changed at any time. Review: the ethical and legal issues regarding DNR orders .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 177). St. Louis: Mosby. 68 / 96 A man who is visiting his wife in a long-term care facility for people with Alzheimer’s disease collapses and is transported to a hospital. The client remains unconscious, and testing reveals that he has cancer that has metastasized to bone, brain, and liver. The nursing staff at the wife’s care facility report to the hospital health care provider that the client has no other family members and that his wife is mentally incompetent. What information regarding do-not-resuscitate (DNR) orders does the nurse remember? A. That a DNR order may be written by a client’s health care provider B. That everything possible must be done if the client stops breathing C. That medications only may be given to the client if the client stops breathing D. That life support measures will have to be implemented if the client stops breathing In a situation in which a client has no family members who can provide permission for treatment, the health care provider may write a DNR order if he or she is reasonably and medically certain that resuscitation would be futile. Therefore the other options are inaccurate.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question and note that the client is terminally ill and has no family members other than a wife who is mentally incompetent. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that resuscitation measures will be instituted. Next eliminate the option containing the closed-ended word “only.” Review: the ethical and legal issues related to DNR orders .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 177). St. Louis: Mosby. In a situation in which a client has no family members who can provide permission for treatment, the health care provider may write a DNR order if he or she is reasonably and medically certain that resuscitation would be futile. Therefore the other options are inaccurate.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question and note that the client is terminally ill and has no family members other than a wife who is mentally incompetent. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that resuscitation measures will be instituted. Next eliminate the option containing the closed-ended word “only.” Review: the ethical and legal issues related to DNR orders .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 177). St. Louis: Mosby. 69 / 96 A 51-year-old client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease) is admitted to the hospital because his condition is deteriorating. The client tells the nurse that he wants a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The nurse should tell the client that: A. Consent must be obtained from the family B. The health care provider makes the final decision about a DNR request C. The DNR request should be discussed with the physician, who will write the order D. Oral consent is sufficient and that his request will be honored by all healthcare providers A client may request a DNR order after being given the appropriate information by the physician. Therefore, if a client requests a DNR order the nurse should contact the health care provider so that the health care provider may discuss the request with the client. A DNR order should be written, not verbal. The pertinent agency and state guidelines must be followed with regard to when a verbal DNR order is acceptable. Therefore the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of the issues related to DNR orders. Eliminate the options that contain the closed-ended words “must” and “all.” Next, recall that the client has the right to request a DNR order, which will direct you to the correct option from those remaining. Review: the issues related to DNR orders .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., p. 497). St. Louis: Mosby. A client may request a DNR order after being given the appropriate information by the physician. Therefore, if a client requests a DNR order the nurse should contact the health care provider so that the health care provider may discuss the request with the client. A DNR order should be written, not verbal. The pertinent agency and state guidelines must be followed with regard to when a verbal DNR order is acceptable. Therefore the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of the issues related to DNR orders. Eliminate the options that contain the closed-ended words “must” and “all.” Next, recall that the client has the right to request a DNR order, which will direct you to the correct option from those remaining. Review: the issues related to DNR orders .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., p. 497). St. Louis: Mosby. 70 / 96 A health care provider informs a nurse that the husband of an unconscious client with terminal cancer will not grant permission for a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The health care provider tells the nurse to perform a “slow code” and let the client “rest in peace” if she stops breathing. How should the nurse respond? A. Telling the health care provider that “slow codes” are not acceptable B. Telling the health care provider that the client would probably want to die in peace C. Telling the health care provider that all of the nurses on the unit agree with this plan D. Telling the health care provider that if the client stops breathing, the health care provider will be called before any other actions are taken The nurse may not violate a family’s request regarding the client’s treatment plan. A “slow code” is not acceptable, and the nurse should state this to the physician. The definition of a “slow code” varies among healthcare facilities and personnel and could be interpreted as not performing resuscitative procedures as quickly as a competent person would. Resuscitative procedures that are performed more slowly than recommended by the American Heart Association are below the standard of care and could therefore serve as the basis for a lawsuit. The other options are therefore inappropriate.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question — specifically, that the spouse will not grant permission for a DNR order. Recalling the procedures for CPR and the ethical/legal guidelines for a DNR order will direct you to the correct option. Review: the nurse’s responsibility regarding DNR orders .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 113). St. Louis: Saunders. The nurse may not violate a family’s request regarding the client’s treatment plan. A “slow code” is not acceptable, and the nurse should state this to the physician. The definition of a “slow code” varies among healthcare facilities and personnel and could be interpreted as not performing resuscitative procedures as quickly as a competent person would. Resuscitative procedures that are performed more slowly than recommended by the American Heart Association are below the standard of care and could therefore serve as the basis for a lawsuit. The other options are therefore inappropriate.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question — specifically, that the spouse will not grant permission for a DNR order. Recalling the procedures for CPR and the ethical/legal guidelines for a DNR order will direct you to the correct option. Review: the nurse’s responsibility regarding DNR orders .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 113). St. Louis: Saunders. 71 / 96 A nurse on the night shift is making client rounds. When the nurse checks a client who is 97 years old and has successfully been treated for heart failure, he notes that the client is not breathing. If the client does not have a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order, the nurse should: A. Call the client’s health care provider B. Contact the nursing supervisor for directions C. Administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) D. Administer oxygen to the client and call the health care provider CPR is an emergency treatment that is provided without client consent unless a DNR order is part of the client’s record. Calling the nursing supervisor for directions, administering oxygen to the client, and calling the health care provider are all inappropriate actions that would delay necessary treatment.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they delay necessary treatment. Review: procedures related to CPR and DNR orders .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 177). St. Louis: Mosby.Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 497-498). St. Louis: Mosby. CPR is an emergency treatment that is provided without client consent unless a DNR order is part of the client’s record. Calling the nursing supervisor for directions, administering oxygen to the client, and calling the health care provider are all inappropriate actions that would delay necessary treatment.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they delay necessary treatment. Review: procedures related to CPR and DNR orders .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 177). St. Louis: Mosby.Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 497-498). St. Louis: Mosby. 72 / 96 A nurse is taking a morning break with the unit secretary in the nurses’ lounge. The unit secretary says to the nurse, “I read in Mr. Gage’s medical record that he has gonorrhea.” How should the nurse respond to the secretary? A. “Oh, really? I didn’t see that!” B. “We can’t discuss a client’s medical condition.” C. “Yes, that’s why we’ve imposed contact precautions.” D. “Yes, he does, but be sure not to discuss this with anyone else.” A client’s medical condition is confidential and should never be discussed with anyone other than the client and the client’s healthcare provider. Therefore the nurse must tell the unit secretary that the client’s condition is not to be discussed. The statements “Yes, he does, but be sure not to discuss this with anyone else” and “Yes, that’s why we’ve imposed contact precautions” both confirm the client’s disease and are therefore inappropriate. Responding, “Oh, really? I didn’t see that!” promotes further discussion of the client’s condition and is inappropriate.Test-Taking Strategy: and recall the issues surrounding confidentiality. This will help you eliminate the option that promotes further discussion of the client’s condition. Next, eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they confirm the client’s illness. Review: the issues surrounding confidentiality .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 156, 157). St. Louis: Saunders. A client’s medical condition is confidential and should never be discussed with anyone other than the client and the client’s healthcare provider. Therefore the nurse must tell the unit secretary that the client’s condition is not to be discussed. The statements “Yes, he does, but be sure not to discuss this with anyone else” and “Yes, that’s why we’ve imposed contact precautions” both confirm the client’s disease and are therefore inappropriate. Responding, “Oh, really? I didn’t see that!” promotes further discussion of the client’s condition and is inappropriate.Test-Taking Strategy: and recall the issues surrounding confidentiality. This will help you eliminate the option that promotes further discussion of the client’s condition. Next, eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they confirm the client’s illness. Review: the issues surrounding confidentiality .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 156, 157). St. Louis: Saunders. 73 / 96 A married couple is attending a hospital program about in vitro fertilization. During the program, a crew from a local television station arrives to film the proceedings because the station is publicizing a series on hospital services. The nurse conducting the program should: A. Allow the television crew to videotape the program B. Explain to the television crew that videotaping is not allowed C. Ask the television crew to interview the individuals attending the program individually D. Allow the television crew to videotape the program as long as they do not publicize that the program is about in vitro fertilization Privacy is a client’s right to be free from unwanted intrusion into his or her private affairs. Videotaping constitutes an invasion of a client’s privacy, and written permission is required from the client for an action such as photographing or videotaping. Therefore the nurse must explain to the television crew that videotaping is not allowed. The other options are incorrect and constitute invasions of client privacy.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client privacy. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they represent invasions of client privacy. Review: violations of client privacy .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 331). St. Louis: Mosby. Privacy is a client’s right to be free from unwanted intrusion into his or her private affairs. Videotaping constitutes an invasion of a client’s privacy, and written permission is required from the client for an action such as photographing or videotaping. Therefore the nurse must explain to the television crew that videotaping is not allowed. The other options are incorrect and constitute invasions of client privacy.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client privacy. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they represent invasions of client privacy. Review: violations of client privacy .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 331). St. Louis: Mosby. 74 / 96 A client with cancer is transported to the radiology department for a bone scan to determine whether the cancer has metastasized to bone. While the client is in the radiology department, the client’s wife arrives for a visit and asks what test is being performed on the client. What should the nurse tell the wife? A. A bone scan is being performed. B. She will have to discuss the prescribed test with the client. C. The radiology department is not clear as to which test has been prescribed. D. She can read the client’s medical record to determine what the health care provider prescribed. Unless a client consents, a nurse may not disclose confidential information to anyone else. Therefore the appropriate response is to tell the client’s wife that she will have to discuss the test with the client. Likewise, a client’s medical record is confidential and cannot be given to the wife for reading. Telling the client’s wife that the radiology department is unclear as to what test has been prescribed is inappropriate. The nurse must not place the responsibility or accountability for a prescribed test on another department.Test-Taking Strategy: Focusing on the subject, confidentiality, and recalling the issues surrounding confidentiality will direct you to the correct option. Review: the issues surrounding confidentiality .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 315). St. Louis: Mosby. Unless a client consents, a nurse may not disclose confidential information to anyone else. Therefore the appropriate response is to tell the client’s wife that she will have to discuss the test with the client. Likewise, a client’s medical record is confidential and cannot be given to the wife for reading. Telling the client’s wife that the radiology department is unclear as to what test has been prescribed is inappropriate. The nurse must not place the responsibility or accountability for a prescribed test on another department.Test-Taking Strategy: Focusing on the subject, confidentiality, and recalling the issues surrounding confidentiality will direct you to the correct option. Review: the issues surrounding confidentiality .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 315). St. Louis: Mosby. 75 / 96 A nursing student is assigned to care for a client who requires a total bed bath. When the student explains to the client that she is going to gather supplies to administer the bath, the client states, “I don’t want a bath. I’ve been up all night, and I’m clean enough.” The student reports the client’s refusal to the nurse in charge. Which action by the nurse in charge is appropriate? A. Telling the nursing student to allow the client to rest B. Telling the nursing student to give the client the bath anyway C. Telling the client that the health care provider will be informed of the refusal of care D. Telling the nursing student to persuade the client to have a bath so that the evening shift staff will not have to do it The client has the right to refuse a treatment or procedure, and if the client does refuse, the nurse must respect the client’s decision. Therefore the nurse would allow the client to rest. Persuading the client to have a bath and giving the bath anyway are both inappropriate and represent violations of the client’s rights. Telling the client that the health care provider will be informed of the refusal of care is a threatening action on the nurse’s part.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of client rights. Eliminate the options that present a threat to the client or indicate that the bath will be given regardless of the client’s wishes. Review: client rights .References: Black, J., & Hawks, J. (2009). Medical-surgical nursing: Clinical management for positive outcomes (8th ed., p. 79). St. Louis: Saunders.Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 176-181). St. Louis: Mosby. The client has the right to refuse a treatment or procedure, and if the client does refuse, the nurse must respect the client’s decision. Therefore the nurse would allow the client to rest. Persuading the client to have a bath and giving the bath anyway are both inappropriate and represent violations of the client’s rights. Telling the client that the health care provider will be informed of the refusal of care is a threatening action on the nurse’s part.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of client rights. Eliminate the options that present a threat to the client or indicate that the bath will be given regardless of the client’s wishes. Review: client rights .References: Black, J., & Hawks, J. (2009). Medical-surgical nursing: Clinical management for positive outcomes (8th ed., p. 79). St. Louis: Saunders.Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 176-181). St. Louis: Mosby. 76 / 96 The nurse enters a client’s room to administer a medication that has been prescribed by the health care provider. The client asks the nurse about the medication. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? A. “It’s to help get rid of the swelling in your feet.” B. “You need to discuss this medication with your physician.” C. “I know that it’s for fluid buildup, and I think you’ve taken it before.” D. “It’s called furosemide (Lasix), and it will promote urination and rid your body of the excess fluid. It can cause an alteration in electrolyte levels, so we’ll need to increase the potassium in your diet.” A client has the right to be informed of the medication name, purpose, action, and potential undesirable effects of a prescribed medication. The nurse should provide adequate information to the client. Therefore, the appropriate response is the one that is thorough and complete. Referring the client to the health care provider places the client’s question on hold. The remaining options are incomplete.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “appropriate.” Eliminate the option that refers the client to the physician, because it places the client’s question on hold. To select from the remaining choices, find the option that is most complete and thorough. Review: client rights in regard to the provision of information about medication .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 709). St. Louis: Mosby. A client has the right to be informed of the medication name, purpose, action, and potential undesirable effects of a prescribed medication. The nurse should provide adequate information to the client. Therefore, the appropriate response is the one that is thorough and complete. Referring the client to the health care provider places the client’s question on hold. The remaining options are incomplete.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “appropriate.” Eliminate the option that refers the client to the physician, because it places the client’s question on hold. To select from the remaining choices, find the option that is most complete and thorough. Review: client rights in regard to the provision of information about medication .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 709). St. Louis: Mosby. 77 / 96 A client asks the nurse about the procedure for becoming an organ donor. What should the nurse tell the client? A. That anatomical gifts should be made in writing and signed by the client B. To speak with the chaplain about the psychosocial aspects of becoming a donor C. That this decision must be made by the next of kin at the time of the client’s death D. To let the health care provider know about the request so that it may be documented in the client’s record An individual who is at least 18 years old may make an anatomical gift of all or part of the human body. The gift must be made in writing and signed by the donor. If the client cannot sign, the document must be signed by another individual and two witnesses. The health care provider is informed of the client’s wishes and the client may wish to speak to a chaplain, but the specific procedure requires a written document signed by the client. The family of a deceased client may be asked about organ donation, but this is not the procedure when a living person wishes to become a donor.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a client requesting information about organ donation. Eliminate the option using the closed-ended word “must.” To select from the remaining options, remember that an anatomical gift must be made in writing and signed by the client. Review: the procedure for organ donation .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 498, 499). St. Louis: Mosby. An individual who is at least 18 years old may make an anatomical gift of all or part of the human body. The gift must be made in writing and signed by the donor. If the client cannot sign, the document must be signed by another individual and two witnesses. The health care provider is informed of the client’s wishes and the client may wish to speak to a chaplain, but the specific procedure requires a written document signed by the client. The family of a deceased client may be asked about organ donation, but this is not the procedure when a living person wishes to become a donor.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a client requesting information about organ donation. Eliminate the option using the closed-ended word “must.” To select from the remaining options, remember that an anatomical gift must be made in writing and signed by the client. Review: the procedure for organ donation .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 498, 499). St. Louis: Mosby. 78 / 96 The charge nurse on the 11 pm–to–7 am shift is gathering the nursing staff together to listen to the 3-to-11 pm intershift report. The charge nurse notes that a staff member has an odor of alcohol on her breath, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait and suspects alcohol intoxication. Which is the most appropriate action for the charge nurse to take? A. Send the staff member home B. Ask the staff member how much alcohol she has consumed C. Tell the staff member that she is not allowed to administer medications D. Ask the staff member to rest in the nurses’ lounge until the effects of the alcohol wear off When a staff member reports to work in a state of alcohol intoxication, the nurse notes the signs objectively and asks a second person to validate these observations. The nurse also contacts the nursing supervisor. An odor of alcohol, slurred speech, unsteady gait, and errors in judgment are symptoms of intoxication. Client safety is the primary concern. The intoxicated nurse is removed from the situation, confronted briefly and firmly about the behavior, and sent home to rest and recuperate. The incident is recorded and the nurse describes the observations, states the action taken, indicates future plans, and has the staff member sign and date the memo of the recorded incident after returning to work. Refusal to sign and date the memo should be noted by the charge nurse and a witness. Neither asking the staff member to rest in the nurses’ lounge until the effects of the alcohol wear off nor telling the staff member that he or she will not be allowed to administer medications removes the staff member from the client care area, jeopardizing the client’s safety. Asking the staff member how much alcohol she has consumed is confrontational and irrelevant.Test-Taking Strategy: Keep in mind that client safety is the priority. Asking the staff member how much alcohol she has consumed is irrelevant, so eliminate this option. Next eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they do not involve removal of the staff member from the client care area. Review: nursing responsibilities when substance abuse is suspected in a staff member .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 445, 446). St. Louis: Mosby. When a staff member reports to work in a state of alcohol intoxication, the nurse notes the signs objectively and asks a second person to validate these observations. The nurse also contacts the nursing supervisor. An odor of alcohol, slurred speech, unsteady gait, and errors in judgment are symptoms of intoxication. Client safety is the primary concern. The intoxicated nurse is removed from the situation, confronted briefly and firmly about the behavior, and sent home to rest and recuperate. The incident is recorded and the nurse describes the observations, states the action taken, indicates future plans, and has the staff member sign and date the memo of the recorded incident after returning to work. Refusal to sign and date the memo should be noted by the charge nurse and a witness. Neither asking the staff member to rest in the nurses’ lounge until the effects of the alcohol wear off nor telling the staff member that he or she will not be allowed to administer medications removes the staff member from the client care area, jeopardizing the client’s safety. Asking the staff member how much alcohol she has consumed is confrontational and irrelevant.Test-Taking Strategy: Keep in mind that client safety is the priority. Asking the staff member how much alcohol she has consumed is irrelevant, so eliminate this option. Next eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they do not involve removal of the staff member from the client care area. Review: nursing responsibilities when substance abuse is suspected in a staff member .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 445, 446). St. Louis: Mosby. 79 / 96 The nurse calls a health care provider to question a prescription written for a higher-than-normal dosage of morphine sulfate. The health care provider changes the prescription to a dosage within the normal range, and the nurse documents the new telephone prescription in accordance with the agency’s guidelines in the client’s record. Which other statement does the nurse document in the nursing notes? A. The health care provider was called to clarify the prescription for morphine sulfate. B. The health care provider made an error in the written prescription for morphine sulfate. C. The health care provider was called to correct an error in the dosage of morphine sulfate. D. An incorrect dosage of morphine sulfate was prescribed and the health care provider was notified. The nurse needs to document a factual, descriptive, and objective statement that does not include words indicating that an individual made an error or performed an incorrect action or procedure. If a health care provider’s prescription must be questioned, the nurse should record that clarification regarding the prescription was sought.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the health care provider made an error in writing a prescription. These options contain the words “error” or “incorrect.” Review: the principles of documentation.Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 388-390). St. Louis: Mosby. The nurse needs to document a factual, descriptive, and objective statement that does not include words indicating that an individual made an error or performed an incorrect action or procedure. If a health care provider’s prescription must be questioned, the nurse should record that clarification regarding the prescription was sought.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the health care provider made an error in writing a prescription. These options contain the words “error” or “incorrect.” Review: the principles of documentation.Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 388-390). St. Louis: Mosby. 80 / 96 The nurse discovers that another nurse has administered an enema to a client even though the client told the nurse that he did not want one. Which action is the most appropriate for the nurse to take? A. Contact the client’s health care provider B. Report the incident to the nursing supervisor C. Tell the client that the nurse did the right thing in giving the enema D. Confront the nurse who gave the enema and tell the nurse that she is going to be charged with battery Battery is any intentional touching of a client without the client’s consent. Such contact may be harmful to the client or it may merely be offensive to the client’s dignity. If a nurse discovers that battery of a client has occurred, the nurse should report the situation to the nursing supervisor. Telling the client that the nurse did the right thing in giving the enema is incorrect, because the other nurse has violated the client’s rights. Confronting the nurse and telling her that she is going to be charged with battery would likely result in unnecessary conflict. Although the health care provider may need to be notified, the nurse should first report the situation to the nursing supervisor.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate.” Next, focus on the subject, client rights. Recalling that any situation that constitutes a violation of a client’s rights needs to be reported and remembering the organizational channels of reporting will direct you to the correct option. Review: the issues surrounding violation of client rights and nursing responsibilities when a client’s rights have been violated .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 172, 173). St. Louis: Mosby. Battery is any intentional touching of a client without the client’s consent. Such contact may be harmful to the client or it may merely be offensive to the client’s dignity. If a nurse discovers that battery of a client has occurred, the nurse should report the situation to the nursing supervisor. Telling the client that the nurse did the right thing in giving the enema is incorrect, because the other nurse has violated the client’s rights. Confronting the nurse and telling her that she is going to be charged with battery would likely result in unnecessary conflict. Although the health care provider may need to be notified, the nurse should first report the situation to the nursing supervisor.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate.” Next, focus on the subject, client rights. Recalling that any situation that constitutes a violation of a client’s rights needs to be reported and remembering the organizational channels of reporting will direct you to the correct option. Review: the issues surrounding violation of client rights and nursing responsibilities when a client’s rights have been violated .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 172, 173). St. Louis: Mosby. 81 / 96 The nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, “The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don’t take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.” Which statement accurately describes the nurse’s response to the client? A. The nurse could be charged with battery. B. The nurse could be charged with assault. C. The nurse is justified in administering the medication by way of the intramuscular route, because the client has a communicable disease. D. The nurse will be justified in administering the medication by the intramuscular route once a prescription has been obtained from the physician. Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client’s consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client’s consent.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and the nurse’s statement. Note that the nurse threatens the client. Next, recall the definition of assault, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: violations of client rights .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 172, 173). St. Louis: Mosby. Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client’s consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client’s consent.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and the nurse’s statement. Note that the nurse threatens the client. Next, recall the definition of assault, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: violations of client rights .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 172, 173). St. Louis: Mosby. 82 / 96 A client scheduled for surgery tells the nurse that he signed an informed consent for the surgical procedure but was never told about the risks of the surgery. The nurse serves as the client’s advocate by taking which action? A. Reassuring the client that the risks are minimal B. Calling the surgeon and asking that the risks be explained to the client C. Noting in the client’s record that the client was not told about the risks of the surgery D. Writing a note on the front of the client’s record so that the surgeon will see it when the client arrives in the operating room A nurse serves as a client advocate by protecting the right of the client to be informed and to participate in decisions regarding care. The only option that ensures that the client will be informed of the risks of the surgery is contacting the surgeon and asking that the risks be explained to the client. Telling the client that the risks are minimal is false reassurance. Putting a note on the client’s chart or documenting that the client was not informed about the risks does ensure that the client will be informed.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the guidelines and principles of obtaining informed consent. Focusing on the words “never told about the risks of the surgery” will direct you to the correct option, the only option that ensures that the client will be told about the risks. Review: the role of a nurse as a client advocate .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 179). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 352-357). St. Louis: Mosby. A nurse serves as a client advocate by protecting the right of the client to be informed and to participate in decisions regarding care. The only option that ensures that the client will be informed of the risks of the surgery is contacting the surgeon and asking that the risks be explained to the client. Telling the client that the risks are minimal is false reassurance. Putting a note on the client’s chart or documenting that the client was not informed about the risks does ensure that the client will be informed.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the guidelines and principles of obtaining informed consent. Focusing on the words “never told about the risks of the surgery” will direct you to the correct option, the only option that ensures that the client will be told about the risks. Review: the role of a nurse as a client advocate .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 179). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 352-357). St. Louis: Mosby. 83 / 96 A nurse is assisting a health care provider in assessing a hospitalized client. During the assessment, the health care provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The health care provider leaves the client’s bedside after giving the nurse a verbal prescription to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the appropriate nursing action in this situation? A. Calling the nursing supervisor to obtain permission to accept the verbal prescription B. Changing the solution and rate of the IV fluid per the physician’s verbal prescription C. Asking the health care provider to write the prescription in the client’s record before leaving the nursing unit D. Telling the health care provider that the prescription will not be implemented until it is documented in the client’s record The health care provider should write all prescriptions. Verbal prescriptions are not recommended, because they increase the risk for error. If a verbal prescription is necessary, such as during an emergency, it should be written and signed by the health care provider as soon as possible, usually within 24 hours. The nurse must follow agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions. The appropriate nursing action would be to ask the health care provider to write the prescription in the client’s record before leaving the nursing unit. Changing the solution in keeping with the verbal prescription and contacting the supervisor to obtain permission to accept the verbal prescription each imply that the nurse accepts the verbal prescription. Telling the health care provider that the prescription will not be implemented until it is documented in the client’s record delays necessary treatment.Test-Taking Strategy: and note the strategic word “appropriate.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they imply acceptance of the verbal prescription by the nurse. To select from the remaining options, recall the guidelines and principles for implementing health care provider prescriptions. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: nursing responsibilities related to verbal prescriptions .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 699, 700). St. Louis: Mosby. The health care provider should write all prescriptions. Verbal prescriptions are not recommended, because they increase the risk for error. If a verbal prescription is necessary, such as during an emergency, it should be written and signed by the health care provider as soon as possible, usually within 24 hours. The nurse must follow agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions. The appropriate nursing action would be to ask the health care provider to write the prescription in the client’s record before leaving the nursing unit. Changing the solution in keeping with the verbal prescription and contacting the supervisor to obtain permission to accept the verbal prescription each imply that the nurse accepts the verbal prescription. Telling the health care provider that the prescription will not be implemented until it is documented in the client’s record delays necessary treatment.Test-Taking Strategy: and note the strategic word “appropriate.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they imply acceptance of the verbal prescription by the nurse. To select from the remaining options, recall the guidelines and principles for implementing health care provider prescriptions. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: nursing responsibilities related to verbal prescriptions .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 699, 700). St. Louis: Mosby. 84 / 96 The nurse calls a health care provider to report that a client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is exhibiting dyspnea and worsening of wheezing. The health care provider, who is in a hurry because of a situation in the emergency department, gives the nurse a telephone prescription for furosemide (Lasix) but does not specify the route of administration. What is the appropriate action on the part of the nurse? A. Calling the health care provider who gave the telephone prescription to clarify the prescription B. Calling the nursing supervisor for assistance in determining the route of administration C. Administering the medication intravenously, because this route is generally used for clients with CHF D. Administering the medication orally and clarifying the prescription once the health care provider has finished caring for the client in the emergency department Telephone prescriptions involve a health care provider’s dictating a prescribed therapy over the telephone to the nurse. The nurse must clarify the prescription by repeating the prescription clearly and precisely to the physician. The nurse then writes the prescription on the physician’s prescription sheet. Under no circumstances should the nurse try to interpret an unclear prescription or administer a medication by a route that has not been expressly prescribed. The nurse must call the health care provider who gave the telephone prescription and clarify the prescription.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the nurse should administer the medication without clarifying the physician’s prescription. Review: the procedures for accepting telephone prescriptions .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 699, 700). St. Louis: Mosby. Telephone prescriptions involve a health care provider’s dictating a prescribed therapy over the telephone to the nurse. The nurse must clarify the prescription by repeating the prescription clearly and precisely to the physician. The nurse then writes the prescription on the physician’s prescription sheet. Under no circumstances should the nurse try to interpret an unclear prescription or administer a medication by a route that has not been expressly prescribed. The nurse must call the health care provider who gave the telephone prescription and clarify the prescription.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the nurse should administer the medication without clarifying the physician’s prescription. Review: the procedures for accepting telephone prescriptions .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 699, 700). St. Louis: Mosby. 85 / 96 The nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client’s lung has reexpanded and notifies the health care provider. The health care provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to asks that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Call the nursing supervisor B. Explain the procedure to the client, then remove the chest tube C. Inform the health care provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure D. Obtain petrolatum-impregnated gauze and ask another nurse to assist in removing the chest tube Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a health care provider. Therefore the nurse would first inform the health care provider that this is not a nursing procedure. If the health care provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agency’s policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse (a nurse with a master’s degree in a specialized area of nursing) to remove a chest tube. However, there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the nurse would remove the chest tube. To select from the remaining options, note the strategic word “first.” The nurse should discuss the prescription with the physician. Review: nursing responsibilities with regard to removal of a chest tube .Reference: Black, J., & Hawks, J. (2009). Medical-surgical nursing: Clinical management for positive outcomes (8th ed., p. 1624). St. Louis: Saunders. Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a health care provider. Therefore the nurse would first inform the health care provider that this is not a nursing procedure. If the health care provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agency’s policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse (a nurse with a master’s degree in a specialized area of nursing) to remove a chest tube. However, there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the nurse would remove the chest tube. To select from the remaining options, note the strategic word “first.” The nurse should discuss the prescription with the physician. Review: nursing responsibilities with regard to removal of a chest tube .Reference: Black, J., & Hawks, J. (2009). Medical-surgical nursing: Clinical management for positive outcomes (8th ed., p. 1624). St. Louis: Saunders. 86 / 96 A health care provider writes a medication prescription in a client’s record. While transcribing the prescription, the nurse notes that the prescribed dose is three times higher than the recommended dose. The nurse calls the health care provider, who states that this is the dose that the client takes at home and that it is acceptable for this client’s condition. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take? A. Contacting the nursing supervisor B. Continuing to transcribe the prescription C. Asking the nurse assigned to care for the client to administer the medication D. Verifying the prescribed dose with the client before administering the medication A nurse must follow a physician’s prescription unless he or she believes that the prescription is in error or that it would harm the client. If a prescription is found to be incorrect or harmful, further clarification from the health care provider is necessary. If the health care provider confirms the prescription and the nurse still believes that it is inappropriate, the nurse should contact the nursing supervisor. The nurse should not continue transcribing the prescription or ask another nurse to implement the prescription. The nurse might ask the client about the medication and the dose taken at home but would not administer the medication.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the medication would be administered. Review: the nurse’s responsibilities in regard to a physician’s prescriptions .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 709). St. Louis: Mosby. A nurse must follow a physician’s prescription unless he or she believes that the prescription is in error or that it would harm the client. If a prescription is found to be incorrect or harmful, further clarification from the health care provider is necessary. If the health care provider confirms the prescription and the nurse still believes that it is inappropriate, the nurse should contact the nursing supervisor. The nurse should not continue transcribing the prescription or ask another nurse to implement the prescription. The nurse might ask the client about the medication and the dose taken at home but would not administer the medication.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the medication would be administered. Review: the nurse’s responsibilities in regard to a physician’s prescriptions .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 709). St. Louis: Mosby. 87 / 96 The nurse preparing a client to go to the radiology department for a chest x-ray notes that the client is wearing a religious medal on a chain around the neck. The client, a Catholic, expresses a concern about removing the medal. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take? A. Asking the client to remove the medal until the x-ray has been completed B. Assisting the client in pinning the medal and chain to the waistband of the client’s pajama bottoms C. Asking the client to place the medal in the top drawer of the bedside stand just before leaving for the radiology department D. Telling the client that the medal and chain will be kept at the nurses’ station for safekeeping while the client is undergoing the x-ray A client undergoing a chest x-ray must remove all metal objects to help prevent artifacts on the x-ray. If the client expresses concern about removing the medal, the nurse should help the client pin the medal and chain to the hospital gown or in another area where it will not appear on the x-ray image. The nurse should also alert staff in the radiology department that this has been done. If the client is expressing concern about removing the medal, asking the client to remove it or leave it with the nurse or in the bedside stand is inappropriate. Each of these actions also increases the likelihood that the medal and chain will be lost.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the client is expressing concern about removing the religious medal. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client should remove the medal. Also note that the correct option is the only option that addresses the client’s concern. Review: care of clients’ valuablesReference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 1387). St. Louis: Mosby. A client undergoing a chest x-ray must remove all metal objects to help prevent artifacts on the x-ray. If the client expresses concern about removing the medal, the nurse should help the client pin the medal and chain to the hospital gown or in another area where it will not appear on the x-ray image. The nurse should also alert staff in the radiology department that this has been done. If the client is expressing concern about removing the medal, asking the client to remove it or leave it with the nurse or in the bedside stand is inappropriate. Each of these actions also increases the likelihood that the medal and chain will be lost.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the client is expressing concern about removing the religious medal. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client should remove the medal. Also note that the correct option is the only option that addresses the client’s concern. Review: care of clients’ valuablesReference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 1387). St. Louis: Mosby. 88 / 96 The nurse providing preoperative care to a client who is scheduled for a left mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection notes that the client is wearing a wedding band on her left ring finger. Which action should the nurse take? A. Tape the wedding band in place B. Explain to the client why the wedding band must be removed C. Ask the client to sign a release to free the hospital of responsibility if the wedding band is lost during surgery D. Ask the client to sign a release to free the hospital of responsibility if the wedding band is lost during surgery In most situations a wedding band may be taped in place and worn during a surgical procedure. However, if the possibility exists that the client will experience swelling of the hand or fingers, the wedding band should be removed. On admission to a healthcare facility, the client is asked to sign a form that frees the agency from responsibility if a client’s valuable is lost. After mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, the client is at risk for lymphedema, which results in swelling of the arm and hand on the affected side. Therefore the appropriate nursing action is to ask the client to remove the wedding band and explain why.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client may wear the wedding band during the surgical procedure. Next, recall the complications associated with mastectomy, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: preoperative procedures for a client’s valuables .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 1387). St. Louis: Mosby. In most situations a wedding band may be taped in place and worn during a surgical procedure. However, if the possibility exists that the client will experience swelling of the hand or fingers, the wedding band should be removed. On admission to a healthcare facility, the client is asked to sign a form that frees the agency from responsibility if a client’s valuable is lost. After mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, the client is at risk for lymphedema, which results in swelling of the arm and hand on the affected side. Therefore the appropriate nursing action is to ask the client to remove the wedding band and explain why.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client may wear the wedding band during the surgical procedure. Next, recall the complications associated with mastectomy, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: preoperative procedures for a client’s valuables .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 1387). St. Louis: Mosby. 89 / 96 The nurse preparing a client for a bronchoscopy notes that the client is wearing a gold necklace. What should the nurse do to safeguard the client’s necklace? A. Ask the client whether the necklace is gold B. Ask the client for permission to lock the necklace in the hospital safe C. Ask the client to remove the necklace and place it in the top drawer of the bedside table D. Ask the client to sign a release to free the hospital of responsibility if the necklace is damaged or lost during the procedure When a client has valuables, the nurse should give them to a family member or secure them for safekeeping. Most health care institutions require that a client sign a release form that frees the institution of responsibility if a valuable item (e.g., jewelry, money) is lost, but this does not safeguard the client’s necklace. Valuables may be locked in a designated location such as the hospital’s safe. Removing the necklace and putting it in a drawer does not safeguard it. Asking the client whether the necklace is gold is inappropriate and unrelated to the subject.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, safeguarding the client’s necklace. Focusing on the subject and noting the word “lock” in the correct option will help you answer correctly. Review: the procedures for safeguarding a client’s valuables .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 1387). St. Louis: Mosby. When a client has valuables, the nurse should give them to a family member or secure them for safekeeping. Most health care institutions require that a client sign a release form that frees the institution of responsibility if a valuable item (e.g., jewelry, money) is lost, but this does not safeguard the client’s necklace. Valuables may be locked in a designated location such as the hospital’s safe. Removing the necklace and putting it in a drawer does not safeguard it. Asking the client whether the necklace is gold is inappropriate and unrelated to the subject.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, safeguarding the client’s necklace. Focusing on the subject and noting the word “lock” in the correct option will help you answer correctly. Review: the procedures for safeguarding a client’s valuables .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 1387). St. Louis: Mosby. 90 / 96 The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit? A. Checking the documentation written by a new nursing graduate on her assigned clients at the end of the shift B. Checking the crash cart to ensure that all needed supplies are readily available should an emergency arise C. Reviewing neurological assessment checklists for all clients on the unit to ensure that these assessments are being conducted as prescribed D. Obtaining the assigned medical record from the hospital’s medical record room to review documentation made during a client’s hospital stay Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, is focused on processes or systems that significantly contribute to client safety and effective client care outcomes. Criteria are used to assess outcomes of care and determine the need for changes improve the quality of care. In a retrospective, or “looking back,” audit, the medical record is inspected after the client’s discharge for documentation of compliance with standards. In a concurrent, or “at the same time,” audit, the nursing staff’s compliance with predetermined standards and criteria is assessed as the nurses are providing care during the client’s stay. In this type of audit, a peer review approach in which members of the nursing staff are involved in data collection may be implemented. Obtaining the a client’s medical record from the medical record room for the purpose of reviewing documentation made during the client’s hospital stay is an example of a retrospective audit. The incorrect options are examples of concurrent audits.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a retrospective audit. Note the relationship of the word “retrospective” in the question and the description in the correct option. Review: the procedures for quality improvement and retrospective and concurrent audits if you have difficulty with this question.Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 64, 65). St. Louis: Mosby. Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, is focused on processes or systems that significantly contribute to client safety and effective client care outcomes. Criteria are used to assess outcomes of care and determine the need for changes improve the quality of care. In a retrospective, or “looking back,” audit, the medical record is inspected after the client’s discharge for documentation of compliance with standards. In a concurrent, or “at the same time,” audit, the nursing staff’s compliance with predetermined standards and criteria is assessed as the nurses are providing care during the client’s stay. In this type of audit, a peer review approach in which members of the nursing staff are involved in data collection may be implemented. Obtaining the a client’s medical record from the medical record room for the purpose of reviewing documentation made during the client’s hospital stay is an example of a retrospective audit. The incorrect options are examples of concurrent audits.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a retrospective audit. Note the relationship of the word “retrospective” in the question and the description in the correct option. Review: the procedures for quality improvement and retrospective and concurrent audits if you have difficulty with this question.Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 64, 65). St. Louis: Mosby. 91 / 96 The registered nurse has accepted a new position as case manager in a hospital. Which responsibilities are part of the nurse’s new role? Select all that apply. A. Evaluating and updating the plan of care as needed B. Prescribing treatments specific to the client’s needs C. Assessing the client’s needs for home supplies and equipment D. Coordinating consultations and referrals to facilitate discharge E. Establishing a safe and cost-effective plan of care with the client A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating the client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. Specific responsibilities of the case manager include establishing a safe and cost-effective plan of care with the client, coordinating consultations and referrals, and facilitating discharge; initiating a plan of nursing care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care and evaluating and updating the plan of care as needed; ensuring that the plan of care is tailored to the client’s needs, taking into account the client’s diagnosis, self-care ability, and prescribed treatments; assessing the client’s need for equipment such as oxygen or wound care supplies and exploring available resources to provide the client with these supplies; providing resources that will assist the client in maintaining independence as much as possible; and providing the client with information on discharge procedures and the plan of care. The nurse does not prescribe treatments.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the responsibilities of the case manager. Note the word “prescribing” in the incorrect option. It is not within the role of the nurse to prescribe. Review: the responsibilities of the case manager if you have difficulty with this question.Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 21). St. Louis: Mosby. A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating the client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. Specific responsibilities of the case manager include establishing a safe and cost-effective plan of care with the client, coordinating consultations and referrals, and facilitating discharge; initiating a plan of nursing care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care and evaluating and updating the plan of care as needed; ensuring that the plan of care is tailored to the client’s needs, taking into account the client’s diagnosis, self-care ability, and prescribed treatments; assessing the client’s need for equipment such as oxygen or wound care supplies and exploring available resources to provide the client with these supplies; providing resources that will assist the client in maintaining independence as much as possible; and providing the client with information on discharge procedures and the plan of care. The nurse does not prescribe treatments.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the responsibilities of the case manager. Note the word “prescribing” in the incorrect option. It is not within the role of the nurse to prescribe. Review: the responsibilities of the case manager if you have difficulty with this question.Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 21). St. Louis: Mosby. 92 / 96 Which action exemplifies the use of evidence-based practice in the delivery of client care? A. Donning sterile gloves to change an abdominal wound dressing B. Encouraging a client to take an herbal substance to treat his insomnia C. Advising a client to agree to the treatment recommended by her health care provider D. Taking a rectal temperature from a client for whom bleeding precautions have been instituted Evidence-based practice is an approach to client care in which the nurse integrates the client’s preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Donning sterile gloves to change an abdominal wound dressing reflects evidence-based practice, because it prevents the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. The remaining options do not reflect evidence-based practice. Taking an herbal substance could be harmful to some clients. It is nontherapeutic for a nurse to advise a client to agree to a treatment. Because of the risk of injury to the rectal mucosa, rectal temperature-taking is avoided in the client for whom bleeding precautions have been instituted.Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully, focusing on the subject, evidence-based practice. Recall the definition of evidence-based practice and note the words “sterile gloves” in the correct option. Review: the situations that reflect evidence-based practice .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 54-60). St. Louis: Mosby. Evidence-based practice is an approach to client care in which the nurse integrates the client’s preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Donning sterile gloves to change an abdominal wound dressing reflects evidence-based practice, because it prevents the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. The remaining options do not reflect evidence-based practice. Taking an herbal substance could be harmful to some clients. It is nontherapeutic for a nurse to advise a client to agree to a treatment. Because of the risk of injury to the rectal mucosa, rectal temperature-taking is avoided in the client for whom bleeding precautions have been instituted.Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully, focusing on the subject, evidence-based practice. Recall the definition of evidence-based practice and note the words “sterile gloves” in the correct option. Review: the situations that reflect evidence-based practice .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 54-60). St. Louis: Mosby. 93 / 96 The nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)enter a client’s room to provide care and find the client lying on the floor. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Ask the nursing assistant to complete an incident report B. Check the client’s level of consciousness and vital signs C. Ask the nursing assistant to assist in getting the client back to bed D. Contact the unit secretary on the intercom and ask that the client’s health care provider be called When a client sustains a fall, the nurse must first assess the client. The nurse should check the client’s level of consciousness and vital signs and look for any bruises or injuries sustained in the fall. If the nurse determines that the client has not sustained any injuries and that it is safe to move the client, the nurse should ask the UAP to assist in getting the client into bed. The nurse should then contact the health care provider and file an incident report.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. The correct option is the only one that addresses assessment. Remember to always assess the client first if a client sustains a fall. Review: client injuries and procedures for filing incident reports .References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 180). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 403). St. Louis: Mosby. When a client sustains a fall, the nurse must first assess the client. The nurse should check the client’s level of consciousness and vital signs and look for any bruises or injuries sustained in the fall. If the nurse determines that the client has not sustained any injuries and that it is safe to move the client, the nurse should ask the UAP to assist in getting the client into bed. The nurse should then contact the health care provider and file an incident report.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. The correct option is the only one that addresses assessment. Remember to always assess the client first if a client sustains a fall. Review: client injuries and procedures for filing incident reports .References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 180). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 403). St. Louis: Mosby. 94 / 96 The nursing instructor asks a student to name an example of false imprisonment. Which situation reflects a violation of this client right? A. Performing a procedure without consent B. Telling the client that he or she may not leave the hospital C. Threatening to give a client a medication against his or her will D. Observing the provision of care to the client without the client’s permission Telling a client that he or she may not leave the hospital constitutes false imprisonment. Performing a procedure without consent is an example of battery. Threatening to give a client a medication against his or her will is assault. Invasion of privacy takes place with unreasonable intrusion into an individual’s private affairs. Observing the provision of care to a client without the client’s permission is an example of invasion of privacy.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, an example of false imprisonment. Note the relationship of the subject and the words in the correct option. Review: the concept of false imprisonment.References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 175, 176). St. Louis: Mosby.Zerwekh, J., & Claborn, J. (2009). Nursing today: Transition and trends (6th ed., p. 424). Telling a client that he or she may not leave the hospital constitutes false imprisonment. Performing a procedure without consent is an example of battery. Threatening to give a client a medication against his or her will is assault. Invasion of privacy takes place with unreasonable intrusion into an individual’s private affairs. Observing the provision of care to a client without the client’s permission is an example of invasion of privacy.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, an example of false imprisonment. Note the relationship of the subject and the words in the correct option. Review: the concept of false imprisonment.References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 175, 176). St. Louis: Mosby.Zerwekh, J., & Claborn, J. (2009). Nursing today: Transition and trends (6th ed., p. 424). 95 / 96 Which action by the nurse represents the ethical principle of beneficence? A. The nurse upholds a client’s decision to refuse chemotherapy for lung cancer. B. The nurse follows a plan of care designed to relieve pain in a client with cancer C. The nurse administers an immunization to a child even though it may cause discomfort. D. The nurse provides equal amounts of care to all assigned clients on the basis of illness acuity. Beneficence is taking action to help others. Although administration of a child’s immunization might cause discomfort, the benefits of protection from disease outweigh the temporary discomfort. Fidelity is keeping promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Autonomy is a person’s independence. Respecting another’s autonomy means that you are agreeing to respect that person’s right to determine his or her course of action. Justice refers to fairness and equity, including fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care for all clients.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, beneficence. Recalling that beneficence refers to taking action to help others will direct you to the correct option. Review: the principles of healthcare ethics .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 314). St. Louis: Mosby. Beneficence is taking action to help others. Although administration of a child’s immunization might cause discomfort, the benefits of protection from disease outweigh the temporary discomfort. Fidelity is keeping promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Autonomy is a person’s independence. Respecting another’s autonomy means that you are agreeing to respect that person’s right to determine his or her course of action. Justice refers to fairness and equity, including fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care for all clients.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, beneficence. Recalling that beneficence refers to taking action to help others will direct you to the correct option. Review: the principles of healthcare ethics .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 314). St. Louis: Mosby. 96 / 96 A client with leukemia is being considered for a bone marrow transplant. The healthcare team is discussing the risks and benefits of this treatment and other possible treatments with the goal of inflicting the least possible harm on the client. Which principle of healthcare ethics is the team practicing? A. Justice B. Fidelity C. Autonomy D. Nonmaleficence Nonmaleficence is the avoidance of hurt or harm. Remember that in healthcare ethics, ethical practice involves not only the will to do good but also the equal commitment to do no harm. Healthcare professionals try to balance the risks and benefits of a plan of care while striving to do the least possible harm. Justice refers to fairness and equity and ensuring fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care for all clients. Fidelity is the keeping of promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Autonomy refers to a person’s independence and represents an agreement to respect another’s right to determine his or her course of action.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject – the ethical principle being utilized. Recall the definition of each item in the options. Note the relationship of the words “least possible harm” in the question and the definition of nonmaleficence. Review: principles of healthcare ethics.Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 314). St. Louis: Mosby. Nonmaleficence is the avoidance of hurt or harm. Remember that in healthcare ethics, ethical practice involves not only the will to do good but also the equal commitment to do no harm. Healthcare professionals try to balance the risks and benefits of a plan of care while striving to do the least possible harm. Justice refers to fairness and equity and ensuring fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care for all clients. Fidelity is the keeping of promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Autonomy refers to a person’s independence and represents an agreement to respect another’s right to determine his or her course of action.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject – the ethical principle being utilized. Recall the definition of each item in the options. Note the relationship of the words “least possible harm” in the question and the definition of nonmaleficence. Review: principles of healthcare ethics.Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 314). St. Louis: Mosby. Your score is 0% Please rate this Quiz Send feedback
Nclex Content Review Class One – Week Two
Week Two Assessment
1 / 96
If the tube becomes disconnected, it is best to immediately reattach it to the drainage system or to submerge the end in a bottle of sterile water or saline solution to reestablish a water seal. The health care provider must be notified, but this is not the first action. The client would not be instructed to inhale, because this would cause atmospheric air to enter the pleural space. In most situations, clamping of chest tubes is contraindicated. When the client has a residual air leak or pneumothorax, clamping the chest tube may precipitate a tension pneumothorax, because the air has no escape route.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “first.” Thinking about the principles related to a chest tube drainage system will direct you to the correct option. Remember that if the tube is disconnected the water seal must be reestablished. Review: the immediate nursing actions related to the complications associated with a closed chest tube drainage system .Reference: Black, J., & Hawks, J. (2009). Medical-surgical nursing: Clinical management for positive outcomes (8th ed., p. 1624). St. Louis: Saunders.
2 / 96
The nurse should monitor the client’s heart rate and pulse oximetry during suctioning to assess the client’s tolerance of the procedure. Oxygen desaturation to below 90% indicates hypoxemia. If hypoxia occurs during suctioning, the nurse must terminate the procedure and oxygenate the client with 100% oxygen. Although the nurse would monitor the client’s pulse oximetry, an improvement would not be expected until the client is reoxygenated. It is not necessary to contact the health care provider or the respiratory therapist at this time.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to answer the question. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: the complications associated with suctioning and the appropriate nursing interventions .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 584). St. Louis: Saunders
3 / 96
A client who complains of severe pain may need realignment or may have traction weights that are too heavy. The nurse would first realign the client and then, if this is ineffective, call the physician. Asking the client to wiggle her toes serves no useful purpose. The nurse never removes traction weights unless this has been specifically prescribed by the physician. The client should be medicated only after an effort has been made to determine and treat the cause of her pain.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Recall the causes of pain in a client with skeletal traction and remember that the nurse first determines and treats the cause. Review: care of the client in traction .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 1190). St. Louis: Saunders.
4 / 96
A nurse practice act regulates the licensure and practice of nursing. Nurse practice acts describe in general terms what constitutes nursing practice. Actions that are considered unprofessional conduct are usually identified. Guidelines for procedures and policies are formulated by the specific healthcare agency. The healthcare policies of the state in question are not identified in a nurse practice act.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the relationship between the words “nurse practice act” in the question and “role of the professional nurse” in the correct option. Review: the purpose of the nurse practice act .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 8, 9). St. Louis: Mosby.
5 / 96
Quality documentation and reporting have five important characteristics: factual, accurate, complete, current, and organized. Using an accurate measurement of intake is correct. The use of the word “seems” indicates that the nurse did not know the facts. Using the word “well” is also incorrect, because it does not provide an accurate observation. Likewise, using the word “large” does not provide an accurate measurement.Test-Taking Strategy: Recall the characteristics of quality documentation and reporting. Also note that the correct option is the only one that is specific. Review: the guidelines for documentation .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 388). St. Louis: Mosby.
6 / 96
Common negligent acts include medication errors that result in injury to the client; intravenous therapy errors resulting in infiltrations or phlebitis; burns caused by equipment, bathing, or spills of hot liquids and foods; falls resulting in an injury; failure to use aseptic technique where required; failure to give report or giving an incomplete report to an oncoming shift; failure to adequately monitor a client’s condition; and failure to notify a health care provider of a significant change in a client’s condition. Using clean gloves is a negligent act. The nurse would use sterile gloves to change a dressing over broken skin.Test-Taking Strategy: and focus on the subject, a negligent act. Read each option carefully; note the word “clean” in the correct option. Review: the concept of negligence .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 332). St. Louis: Mosby.
7 / 96
In an emergency situation, if it is impossible to obtain consent from the client or an authorized person, the procedure required to benefit the client or save his or her life may be undertaken without informed consent. In such cases the law assumes that the client would wish to be treated. Contacting the hospital clergy to provide the informed consent and having the nurse sign on behalf of the client with another nurse to witness the signature are both incorrect. Also, having the client undergo mechanical ventilation until his parents can be contacted will delay treatment of a life-threatening injury.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the strategic words “life-threatening injuries” will direct you to the correct option. Review: the issues regarding informed consent .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 332, 333). St. Louis: Mosby.
8 / 96
Informed consent is a person’s agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is needed if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, he or she may sign the informed consent in the following situations: if the client is an emancipated minor; if the client is seeking birth control services or is pregnant; if the client is seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, drug or substance abuse, or psychiatric services; or if a court order or other legal authorization has been obtained.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the consent form must be signed by another individual. To select from the remaining options, recall that a consent form is required for treatment. Review: the issues related to informed consent .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 63, 333). St. Louis: Mosby.
9 / 96
The medication prescription must include the medication name, dose, route of administration, time, and frequency of the administration. The nurse would contact the health care provider and ask about the route of the medication. The nurse would not prepare the medication or administer it without first checking with the physician. A stat prescription must be administered immediately. Therefore it is inappropriate to plan to have the nurse on the next shift administer the medication.Test-Taking Strategy: Read the prescription and think about the procedure for fulfilling a prescription. This will reveal that the route of administration is not specified. Review: components of a medication prescription .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 713). St. Louis: Mosby.
10 / 96
Staff empowerment fosters the growth of others and facilitates their development so that they are less dependent on their leader. Staff do not have the power to reprimand and punish or make decisions regarding scheduling or the nursing unit.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the definition of the term empowerment and Note the relationship of this definition and its relationship to the information in the correct option. Review: the description of empowerment .References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 261, 262). St. Louis: Saunders.Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., p. 123). St. Louis: Mosby.
11 / 96
An organizational chart depicts and communicates how activities are arranged, how authority relationships are defined, and how communication channels are established. Understanding the organization’s reason for existence, geographical area, and the beliefs and values of the organization are all components of the organization’s mission statement.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of the components of an organizational chart to answer this question. Note the relationship of the words “organizational” in the question and “lines of authority” in the correct option. Review: the purpose of an organizational chart .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 415, 427). St. Louis: Saunders.
12 / 96
The client who has sustained circumferential burns to the extremities is at risk for altered peripheral circulation. The priority assessment is to check the peripheral pulses to ensure that circulation is adequate. Although the heart rate and BP would also be assessed, the priority with a circumferential extremity burn is the assessment of peripheral pulses.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike first (heart rate and radial pulse rate). To select from the remaining options, focus on the strategic words “first” and “circumferential burns of both legs.” or are unfamiliar with the priority assessment in a client who has sustained a circumferential burn of an extremity, review this content.Reference: Black, J., & Hawks, J. (2009). Medical-surgical nursing: Clinical management for positive outcomes (8th ed., p. 1252). St. Louis: Saunders.
13 / 96
Power is the ability to influence others to achieve goals. Expert power results from knowledge and skills that one possesses that is needed by others. Reward power is based on the ability to be able to grant rewards and favors. Coercive power is based on fear and the ability to punish. Referent power results from followers’ desire to identify with a powerful person.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and note that a consultation is being sought from another healthcare team member in the care of a client. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: the types of power and the purpose of consultations .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 263). St. Louis: Saunders.
14 / 96
To help prevent aspiration, the nurse checks the placement of the tube by aspirating gastric contents and measuring the pH. Checking when a feeding or medication was last given and checking the client’s apical pulse are not directly related to the subject of the question.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation. To help prevent the complication of aspiration when administering medications to a client with an NG tube, the nurse must first assess accurate placement of the tube. Review: the principles of administering medications through an NG tube .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 1276). St. Louis: Saunders.
15 / 96
Morphine sulfate depresses respiration, so the nurse must monitor the client’s respiratory status closely. Although the incorrect options may be components of the assessment, checking respiratory status is the priority nursing action.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “first.” Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to guide you to the correct option. Review: priority nursing interventions in the care of a client receiving morphine sulfate .Reference: Gahart, B., & Nazareno, A. (2010). Intravenous medications (26th ed., pp. 928, 930). St. Louis: Mosby.
16 / 96
The client with early acute compartment syndrome typically complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. The affected client also complains that pain during passive motion is greater than that during active motion. The nurse must notify the health care provider immediately. The other options are incorrect because they delay necessary interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the assessment data presented in the question. Recall that these signs indicate early acute compartment syndrome. Remember, if this is suspected, the health care provider needs to be notified. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they delay necessary intervention. Review: the complications associated with a fracture of an extremity and the associated priority nursing interventions .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 1181). St. Louis: Saunders.
17 / 96
A nurse who feels that the assignment is more difficult than the assignments delegated to other nurses on the unit would most appropriately discuss the assignment with the nurse manager of the intensive care unit. This will help the nurse identify the rationale for the assignment or determine whether the assignment is actually more difficult. A nurse would not refuse an assignment. The nurse would not return to the medical care unit, which would constitute client abandonment. Additionally, this action does not address the conflict directly. Telling the nurse manager to call the nursing supervisor is an aggressive action that does not address the conflict directly.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, dealing with conflict. Refusing to perform the assignment is unethical and could be grounds for dismissal. Leaving the nursing unit constitutes client abandonment and could also result in dismissal. From the remaining options, select the option in which the conflict is dealt with directly. Review: the appropriate methods of dealing with a conflict .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 163, 164). St. Louis: Mosby.Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 153, 154). St. Louis: Mosby.
18 / 96
The nurse should document relevant information in an accurate, complete, and objective form. Noting the client had an allergy to cefazolin sodium does not identify objective data. Assuming that the client is allergic to cefazolin sodium because of warm and flushed skin makes an interpretation about the occurrence. Documenting that the health care provider was notified because the client developed a rash while receiving the medication identifies accurate data, but is incomplete.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, recalling that documentation should include relevant information in an accurate, complete, and objective form. This will direct you to the correct option. Also note the relationship of the data in the question and in the correct option. Review: the principles related to documentation .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 389). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 709). St. Louis: Mosby.
19 / 96
Nurses must discuss clients in a professional manner and avoid using judgmental language such as “uncooperative” or “difficult.” When such comments and language are discouraged, fewer comments will be made. Ignoring the comments is an inappropriate option because the concern will not addressed. Leaving articles about judgmental opinions in the nurse’s report room indirectly addresses the issue. Additionally, the nurse manager cannot ensure that the nursing staff will read the articles. Likewise, reporting the nurses’ comments to administration does not directly address the issue. The best approach that the nurse manager can take is to directly discuss the issue with the staff members. This action is not identified in the options. Therefore, of the options presented, discouraging judgmental comments is the most appropriate way to manage this concern.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they do not directly address the staff’s unprofessional behavior. Review: methods of discouraging judgmental comments .References: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp 306, 307). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 242). St. Louis: Mosby.
20 / 96
The first thing the nurse who observed the error should do is ask the nurse whether she intends to report the error. As means of helping ensure client safety, all errors must be reported to the physician, but this is not the initial action. The client also needs to be assessed immediately. An incident report should be completed by the nurse who discovered the error (the nurse who changed the intravenous solution). The appropriate documentation also must be made in the client’s record by the nurse who discovered the error. If the nurse who discovered the error indicates that the error will not be reported, it may be necessary for the other nurse to contact the supervisor.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic words “do first.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve reporting the error. To select from the remaining options, think about the principles of dealing with conflict. This will direct you to the direct option. Review: nursing responsibilities when an error occurs .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405, 406). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 820). St. Louis: Mosby.
21 / 96
Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client’s legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client’s part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Telling the client that she needs to ask questions before signing the consent for surgery is incorrect. Although the client should be thoroughly informed before signing consent, the client has the right to ask questions thereafter. It is the surgeon’s responsibility to explain the procedure, and, if the client wishes, she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure. Although these are correct statements, they are not the most appropriate and do not address the client’s concerns. Additionally, they do not address the legal ramifications associated with informed consent.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the strategic words “does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure” and recalling that the health care provider is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure to the client will direct you to the correct option. Review: the issues surrounding informed consent .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., pp. 252, 254). St. Louis: Saunders.
22 / 96
Brachytherapy involves the implantation of a sealed radiation source within the targeted tumor tissue. A client who is wearing a solid implant emits radiation as long as the implant is in place; however, the client’s excreta is not radioactive. Pregnant nurses should not care for such clients. There are no contraindications to having a pregnant nurse care for a client under enteric precautions, a client with cancer who is receiving a continuous infusion of intravenous therapy, or a client who requires frequent wound irrigation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “avoids.” This word indicates a negative event query and the need to select the client situation that could present a risk to a pregnant client. Thinking about the risks associated with each client listed in the options will direct you to the correct one. Review: the guidelines associated with caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 420). St. Louis: Saunders.
23 / 96
Intravenous ports must be cleaned with alcohol (or another antiseptic as designated by agency policy) before access. The nurse manager should handle this problem directly with the nurse who is using incorrect technique by first reviewing the nurse’s skills checklist to determine whether this skill has ever been performed by the nurse and validated. There is no information in the question to indicate that an in-service educational session is needed for everyone on the nursing unit. As a part of professional responsibility to maintain quality care, nurses are required to report instances of clinical incompetence.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of the principles of ensuring quality care for clients. Remember that it is best for the nurse manager to deal directly with the employee who is exhibiting unacceptable behavior. Review: the principles of handling clinical incompetence.References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 531. 532). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 658, 660). St. Louis: Mosby.
24 / 96
When an employee demonstrates an unacceptable level of absenteeism, the nurse must first remind the employee of the employment standards of the agency. Sometimes an employee does not know or has forgotten the existing standards, and a reminder with no threats or discipline is all that is needed. When the oral reminder does not result in a change in behavior, the reminder should be placed in writing. If the written reminder fails, the employee should be granted a day of decision to determine whether to accept the standards for work attendance. Pay may be given for this day (depending on the agency protocol) so that it is not interpreted as punishment, and the employee must return to work with a written decision. If the employee decides not to adhere to standards, her employment with the agency is terminated. Reporting the employee to administration, documenting the employee’s behavior in her personnel file, and telling the employee that she will be fired if she calls in sick again are not appropriate initial actions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “initially.” Focusing on the data in the question and noting that there is no information to indicate that this employee has been approached about his or her behavior in the past will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for handling unacceptable behavior related to employment standards .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 447, 448). St. Louis: Mosby.
25 / 96
When a conflict arises, it is most appropriate to try resolving the conflict directly. In this situation, the nurse has tried to explain why she is uncomfortable with the physician’s request but has been unable to resolve the conflict. The nurse would then most appropriately use organizational channels of communication and discuss the issue with the nurse manager, who would then proceed to resolve the conflict. The nurse manager may attempt to discuss the situation with the health care provider or seek assistance from the nursing supervisor. Fulfilling the physician’s request and writing the prescriptions in the clients’ charts ignores the issue. Reporting the health care provider to the chief of medicine is inappropriate, because the nurse should use the appropriate organizational channels of communication to resolve the conflict. Stating, “I don’t care whether you report me. I am not writing your prescriptions” is an inappropriate statement and will result in further conflict between the nurse and physician.Test-Taking Strategy: First eliminate the option that ignores the subject. Next eliminate the option that will result in further conflict between the nurse and physician. To select from the remaining options, think about the appropriate use of the organizational channels of communication; this will direct you to the correct option. Review: the principles of managing conflict .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 153-155). St. Louis: Mosby.
26 / 96
Taking extended lunch breaks is an unacceptable behavior, mainly because the behavior affects client care. The nurse manager must confront the nurse, discuss the behavior, and initiate problem-solving measures to ensure that the behavior does not continue. Ignoring the situation, asking other staff members to cover for the nurse, and documenting the problem in the nurse’s personnel file are all inappropriate because none of these actions will resolve the problem.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of the principles of dealing with conflict and unacceptable behavior. Remember that it is most appropriate to confront and address a problem when it occurs. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they avoid the problem. Review: the principles of dealing with conflict .References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 287). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 355). St. Louis: Mosby.
27 / 96
The nurse manager must attend to client assignments first, because client care is the priority. Also, the nursing staff need their assignments so that they may begin client assessments and start delivering client care. The nurse manager should next check the medication supply to ensure that needed medications are available. The nurse manager could also delegate this task to another registered nurse while client assignments are being planned. The nurse manager would next return the phone calls.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” and and prioritization skills. Remember that the client is the priority. Eliminate the options that are not directly related to immediate client needs. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: the principles of prioritization and time management .References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 243). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 308, 309). St. Louis: Mosby.
28 / 96
The most assertive response in dealing with this conflict is the one that is direct and conveys a clear message in a positive manner. The nurse responds aggressively by stating, “I’m not working overtime today” or “You know how I hate to work overtime.” The statement “I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this” is a passive-aggressive response.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, the most assertive response. Note the relationship between the data in the question and the correct option. Review: assertive communication techniques .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 262). St. Louis: Saunders.
29 / 96
Evidence-based practice is an approach to client care in which the nurse integrates the client’s preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Pulmonary tuberculosis is a respiratory infection that is transmitted to others by way of the airborne route. The door to the client’s room must be kept closed to prevent the transmission of the infection via the airborne route. The remaining options do not reflect evidence-based practice. An N95 or HEPA respirator (not a surgical mask) must be worn by the nurse on entering the room. It is not necessary for the client to wear a mask. Airborne precautions require the use of a private room.Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully, focusing on the subject, evidence-based practice. Recall the definition of evidence-based practice and recall that tuberculosis is transmitted by way of the airborne route. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: the concept of evidence-based practice .References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 467 ). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 54-60, 662-663, 674). St. Louis: Mosby.
30 / 96
Evidence-based practice is an approach to client care in which the nurse integrates the client’s preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Pouring 1 to 2 mL of sterile solution that will be used for wound cleansing into a plastic-lined waste receptacle before pouring the solution into the sterile basin reflects evidence-based practice because this action cleans the lip of the bottle, thus preventing the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. The remaining options do not reflect evidence-based practice. Encouraging a client with a stroke to consume thin liquids and foods could cause harm because of the risk for choking; instead, such a client should receive thickened liquids. A dislodged radiation implant should be picked up with the use of long-handled forceps, not gloved hands, to be placed in a lead container to minimize radiation exposure. Blowing on a fingerstick site to dry it after cleaning the site with an alcohol swab recontaminates the stick site.Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully, focusing on the subject, evidence-based practice. Recall the definition of evidence-based practice and note that the correct option prevents the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. Review: the concept of evidence-based practice .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 54-60, 674). St. Louis: Mosby.
31 / 96
Fidelity is the keeping of promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Contacting the health care provider about the client’s request that complementary therapies be used to relieve pain is an example of fidelity. Respect for a person’s autonomy, or independence, involves respecting that person’s right to determine his or her own course of action. Allowing a client to decide when he or she would like to have daily hygiene care is an example of respecting a client’s autonomy. Beneficence is taking action to help others. Inserting a 19-gauge intravenous catheter into a client requiring a blood transfusion is an example of beneficence. Although insertion of an intravenous catheter might cause discomfort, the benefits of receiving the transfusion outweigh the temporary discomfort. Justice refers to fairness and equity; in the healthcare arena, this involves ensuring fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care, to all clients. Providing complete information regarding treatment options to each client with a cancer diagnosis is an example of justice.Test-Taking Strategy: and think about the definition of each item in the options. Note the relationship of the definition of fidelity and the correct option. Review: the principles of healthcare ethics .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 314). St. Louis: Mosby.
32 / 96
Standards of care are authoritative statements that describe a common or acceptable level of client care or performance. They bear some similarity to policies and procedures. Therefore standards of care define professional practice. The American Nurses Association has formulated general standards and guidelines for nursing practice. They are general in nature and apply across the nation.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, standards of care formulated by the American Nurses Association. Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they contain the words “specific” or “only.” Review: the standards of care set forth by the American Nurses Association .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 627, 628). St. Louis: Saunders.
33 / 96
A policy or procedure is a designated plan or course of action to be taken in a specific situation. Written copies of all policies are usually placed in a policy manual that is available in each department or may be available online. Specific unit policies are sometimes referred to as protocols. The policy or protocol for a client who has been raped will describe the physical, psychosocial, and legal responsibilities of the nurse. Calling the nurse in charge during the day shift or asking an LPN or the police officers who brought the client into the ED is inappropriate. If the nurse needs additional information after reviewing the policy or protocol, it would be most appropriate to contact the agency nursing supervisor of the night shift.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, recalling the legal implications related to providing care. Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they suggest obtaining information from other individuals. Review: the purpose of organizational policies, procedures, or protocols .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 389, 394, 395). St. Louis: Saunders.
34 / 96
Accountability, the process of answering or being responsible for what occurs, carries legal implications for task performance. Accountability cannot be delegated; one is responsible for one’s own actions and must answer for the care given, as well as for the care one asks others to complete.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the definition of accountability. Recalling this definition will easily direct you to the correct options. Review: the definition of accountability .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 249, 250). St. Louis: Saunders.
35 / 96
The term authority refers to the official power of an individual to approve or command an action or to see that a decision is enforced. Being responsible for what staff members do, accepting responsibility for the action of others, and carrying legal responsibility for others are not related to the description of a position of authority.Test-Taking Strategy: and knowledge regarding the description of a position of authority. Note the relationship between the word “authority” in the question and “power” in the correct option. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they involve responsibility. Review: the description of authority .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 10). St. Louis: Mosby.
36 / 96
Organizations may be described as having a centralized or decentralized structure in regard to the decision-making process. An organization is depicted as centralized when the authority to make decisions is vested in a few individuals. Conversely, when the decision-making involves a number of individuals, with decisions filtering down to the individual employee, the organization is said to operate in a decentralized fashion.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that several people associated with the organization make decisions. Review: the differences between centralized and decentralized organizations .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 278-280). St. Louis: Mosby.Cognitive Ability: Understanding
37 / 96
All organizations have a purpose or reason for existing. This purpose is often expressed in the form of a mission statement. The mission statement outlines what the organization plans to accomplish. Sometimes mission statements incorporate statements of philosophy (beliefs), purpose, and goals or objectives into a single statement; other times the philosophy, purposes, and goals are addressed in addition to the mission statement. These statements serve as a benchmark against which an organization’s performance may be evaluated. The mission statement does not describe the benefits available to the client; this is usually done by the human resources department. The rules of the organization are identified in policies and procedures, which are usually maintained in manuals kept in the nursing units or online.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, a mission statement. Note the relationship between the definition of a mission statement and the correct option. Review: the description of an organization’s mission statement .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 225, 226). St. Louis: Mosby.
38 / 96
The nurse should document task completion and client information throughout the day. Allowing time for unexpected tasks, prioritizing needs and tasks, and gathering supplies before beginning a task are all components of time management.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “needs assistance.” These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect action by the nursing graduate. Read each option carefully and recall the guidelines for time management to answer the question. , review the principles of time management and documentation.References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 529). St. Louis: Mosby.Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 128-130). St. Louis: Saunders.
39 / 96
Assignment of tasks must be based the job description of the nursing assistant, the assistant’s level of clinical competence, and state law. Blood transfusions, dressing changes, and ambulation of a client with angina require the skill of a licensed nurse. A client under contact precautions is the most appropriate assignment for the nursing assistant because the nursing assistant is trained to provide hygiene care and to care for clients under specific precautions.Test-Taking Strategy: and knowledge regarding tasks that may be safely delegated to the nursing assistant. Read each client description and think about the needs of the client. Recalling that clients requiring invasive procedures or close monitoring must be assigned to a licensed nurse will assist you in answering correctly. Review: the principles of delegation and assignment-making .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405, 406). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 287). St. Louis: Mosby.
40 / 96
Airway is always the priority, so the nurse would attend to the client who has a condition related to airway first. The other clients do not have conditions related to the airway and represent intermediate priorities.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to answer the question. The client with a tracheostomy is the only client with an airway problem. Remember that airway is always the first priority. Review: the guidelines for prioritization .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 510). St. Louis: Mosby.Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 128). St. Louis: Saunders.
41 / 96
The nurse must determine the most appropriate assignment on the basis of the skills of the staff member and the needs of the client. In this case, the least appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant would be assisting a client with dysphagia with eating because of the risk of complications such as choking and aspiration. The remaining three situations include no data to indicate that these tasks carry any unforeseen risk.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “least appropriate.” Use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — and recall the principles of delegation and supervision of tasks in answering the question. Remember, delegation of work must be consistent with the individual’s level of expertise and licensure or lack of licensure. Review: the principles of assignments and delegation .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405-407). St. Louis: Mosby.
42 / 96
Home care provides a variety of support services for the client and family, including assistance with the administration of insulin. For the client who has difficulty drawing insulin into a syringe, the home care nurse would prefill a week’s supply of syringes containing the required dose. These syringes would be placed in the client’s refrigerator for self-administration by the client. A social worker is trained to counsel clients in a variety of areas and may assist with the financial aspects of care. A physical therapist assists in examining, testing, and treating the physically disabled or handicapped through the use of exercises and other techniques. An occupational therapist assists a client who experiences impairment in performing activities of daily living such as feeding him- or herself with the use of an adaptive device.Test-Taking Strategy: and focus on the subject, the need for assistance with insulin administration. Recalling the functions and roles of the home care nurse and the healthcare workers in the other options will help you answer correctly. Review: the roles of various healthcare team members .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 96). St. Louis: Saunders.
43 / 96
A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating a client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. This nurse initiates a plan of nursing care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care and evaluates and updates the plan of care as needed. The case manager monitors the client for expected and unexpected outcomes and provides follow-up and revises the plan of care if an unexpected outcome is noted. A client who exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy, indicating a deterioration of the client’s condition, requires immediate follow-up. The descriptions in the other options are expected outcomes.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the role of the case manager and read each client description carefully. Next, focus on the subject, an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up. This will direct you to the description that is unexpected or unwanted. Signs of increased intracranial pressure are an immediate concern, indicating deterioration in the client’s condition. Review: the role of the nurse manager and expected and unexpected outcomes .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 369-370). St. Louis: Mosby.Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 468, 469). St. Louis: Saunders.
44 / 96
An occupational therapist assists a client who experiences impairment in performing activities of daily living such as feeding him- or herself with the use of an adaptive device. Home care provides a variety of support services for the client and family, but the specific assistance needed for this client would be provided by the occupational therapist. A social worker is trained to counsel clients in a variety of areas and may assist with the financial aspects of care. A physical therapist assists in examining, testing, and treating the physically disabled or handicapped through the use of exercises and other techniques.Test-Taking Strategy: and focus on the subject, the need for assistance in eating. Recalling the functions and roles of the occupational therapist and the other healthcare workers in the options will help you answer correctly. Review: the roles of the various healthcare team members .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 96). St. Louis: Saunders.
45 / 96
To determine what may and may not be delegated to the various co-workers, the RN making the assignment must take into account several factors: the level of care required by each client, both immediately and in the future; the competencies possessed by the co-workers; and the legal limitations on the practice of those co-workers. Self–administration of insulin and discharge instructions on dressing changes and medications require teaching, a professional responsibility that the RN may not delegate to anyone except another RN. Although the RN might care for a client being discharged, the question tells you that an LPN is available. The RN would be best used to care for the client with more critical or complicated needs. Assigning an RN to a client who is being discharged with no medications is, therefore, incorrect. The client with newly diagnosed leukemia who has a newborn at home is likely to be in need of the skills of an RN in terms of both physiological and psychosocial needs, making this an appropriate assignment.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic word “best.” Eliminate the options in which the LPN is assigned to a client requiring teaching. To select from the remaining options, focus on each client and think about his or her actual and potential needs. The RN is best assigned to the client with physiological and psychosocial needs. Review: the guidelines for delegation and assignment–making .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 406-408, 418). St. Louis: Mosby.Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 243). St. Louis: Saunders.
46 / 96
The registered nurse is legally responsible for client assignments and must assign tasks on the basis of the guidelines of the state nursing practice act and the job descriptions set forth by the employing agency. The nursing assistant has been trained to collect and strain urine. The nurse manager would provide instructions to the nursing assistant regarding the task, but the task is within the role description of a nursing assistant. A client scheduled for a cardiac stress test requires preparation for the test, teaching, and postprocedure monitoring. A client scheduled for surgery will require preoperative preparation, including teaching. A client who underwent mastectomy 2 days earlier will need both physiological and psychosocial care, requiring the skills of a licensed nurse.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the question asks for the assignment to be delegated to the nursing assistant. When asked questions related to delegation, think about the role description of the employee and the needs of the client. For the nursing assistant, select the client who has needs that are noninvasive and do not require a high level skill, meaning that assessment, teaching, and monitoring are inappropriate tasks. Review: the guidelines related to delegation to a nursing assistant .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405-407). St. Louis: Mosby.
47 / 96
: Confrontation is an important strategy for addressing resistance by a staff member who is complaining about an agency protocol. Face–to–face meetings to confront the issue at hand will allow verbalization of feelings and identification of problems and issues, and give the nurse manager the opportunity to develop strategies to solve the problem. Ignoring the complaints and avoiding assigning the nurse mandatory overtime are inappropriate strategies that do not address the problem. Providing a positive reward system might provide a temporary solution to the resistance but will not specifically address the problem.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “best” in the query of the question and focus on the subject, dealing with conflict. Eliminate the options that ignore the nurse’s complaints. To select from the remaining options, look for the option that specifically addresses the subject and provides problem-solving measures. , review the strategies associated with dealing with conflict.Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 68). St. Louis: Saunders.
48 / 96
The registered nurse is legally responsible for client assignments and must assign tasks on the basis of the guidelines of the state nursing practice act and the job descriptions set forth by the employing agency. Oral care may be delegated to a nursing assistant. The nurse would provide instructions to the nursing assistant regarding the task, how to adapt the procedure for the client at risk for aspiration, and the signs of complications that must be reported immediately (e.g., bleeding gums, excessive coughing). A client who has just undergone cardiac catheterization requires monitoring for complications, and a client scheduled for liver biopsy requires preparation for the test and client teaching. A client who is getting up to ambulate for the first time after surgery is at risk for orthostatic hypotension and should be assisted by a licensed nurse.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the question asks for the assignment to be delegated to the nursing assistant. When asked questions related to delegation, think about the role description of the employee and the needs of the client. For the nursing assistant, select the client who has needs that do not require a high skill level, meaning that assessment, teaching, and monitoring are not appropriate. Note that two of the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they identify clients who have undergone invasive procedures. Review: the guidelines related to delegation to a nursing assistant .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 405-407). St. Louis: Mosby.
49 / 96
The care map is a type of critical pathway that incorporates expected day-to-day client outcomes and those anticipated at discharge or at the end of a treatment phase. It outlines clinical assessments, treatments and procedures, dietary interventions, activity and exercise therapies, client education, and discharge planning. It may identify nursing diagnoses but is developed by members of all disciplines that normally care for the particular client type and is used by all members of the interdisciplinary team. Continuity of care can be achieved with the use of a care map.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they refer to the care map as a nursing tool only. Also note that the correct option is the umbrella option. Review: the purpose and use of the care map .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 304, 549). St. Louis: Mosby.
50 / 96
The RN is responsible for supervising certain procedures performed by an LPN to ensure that client safety is maintained. The deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm area. Administration of an injection into this muscle is done 2 inches (5 cm) below the acromion process (the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade). Therefore the injection is not given in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle). The Sims position is not the correct position for an injection into the deltoid muscle. A prone toe-in position is used for injection into the dorsogluteal site or gluteus medius muscle because it will promote internal rotation of the hips, which relaxes the muscle and makes the injection less painful.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “deltoid muscle.” Visualize each description in the options and use your knowledge of the anatomical locations of the various muscles to find the correct option. If you are unfamiliar with the administration of IM medications in the deltoid muscle, review the correct procedure.Reference: Perry, A., & Potter, P. (2010). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (7th ed., p. 600). St. Louis: Mosby.
51 / 96
When walking with a client, the nurse should stand on the affected side and grasp the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client’s back. The nurse should position the free hand at the shoulder area so that the client may be pulled toward the nurse in the event that there is a forward fall. The client is instructed to look up and outward rather than at his or her feet.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “incorrectly.” This word indicates a negative event query and the need to select the unsafe action by the nursing assistant. Visualizing the action in each option will direct you to the unsafe and incorrect action. Review: the procedure for assisting ambulation of a client with weakness .Reference: Perry, A., & Potter, P. (2010). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (7th ed., pp. 250, 253). St. Louis: Mosby.
52 / 96
The purpose of standards of care is to provide a broad direction for the overall practice of nursing that applies to all nursing situations, across specialty areas, across the country. Standards of care include the provision of competent care on the basis of current practice. Methods of treatment are individualized to the care of a specific client. Providing direction of care on the basis of the client’s diagnosis is a matter of medical interventions. New care methods are a matter of research.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, standards of care. Note the relationship of the subject and the information in the correct option. The correct option is also the umbrella option. Review: the purpose of standards of care .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 143). St. Louis: Mosby.
53 / 96
An assessment activity is always the first step in the nursing process. Conducting a community survey on school violence addresses assessment of community perceptions. Teaching schoolchildren about the dangers of violence and distributing fliers that identify the cause of school violence are implementation measures. Looking at what other communities are doing is part of the analysis of a variety of assessment data but is not specific to the subject of the question.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. Eliminate the options that are implementation actions. To select from the remaining options, note the word “assess” in the correct option. Review: the various roles of the nurse and the process of assessment .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 350, 351). St. Louis: Mosby.Maurer, F., & Smith, C. (2009). Community/public health nursing practices: Health for families and populations (4th ed., pp. 772, 773). Philadelphia: Saunders.
54 / 96
A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating a client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. This nurse initiates a plan of nursing care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care and evaluates and updates the plan of care as needed. The case manager monitors the client for expected and unexpected outcomes and provides follow-up and revises the plan of care if an unexpected outcome is noted. A temperature of 100.6° F (38.1°C) in a client with a central venous catheter is an unexpected and unwanted outcome requiring the need for follow-up, because it may indicate the development of an infection. The other options all represent expected outcomes.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the role of the case manager and read each client description carefully. Next, focus on the subject, an unexpected outcome and the need for follow-up. This will direct you to the outcome that is unexpected or unwanted. An increased temperature is a concern because it is a sign of infection. Review: the role of the nurse manager and information on these expected and unexpected outcomes .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 468, 469). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 397). St. Louis: Mosby.
55 / 96
For the client assignment presented, the RN would plan to care for the client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 pm first. Several items need to be addressed before surgery, including client preparation (physical and emotional) and health care provider prescriptions, all of which will take time. Also, many times the operating room will make late changes in the schedule, depending on room and health care provider availability, and will request an earlier surgical time. Therefore it is best to ensure that this client is prepared. It is best to wait for pain medication to take effect before providing care to a client. The needs of the client who is independent and the client scheduled for physical therapy later in the morning are not high priorities.Test-Taking Strategy: and principles related to prioritization. Focus on the subject, the client for whom the RN will care first. Noting that an assigned client is scheduled for surgery and recalling the many needs of a client about to undergo surgery will direct you to the correct option. Review: the principles of prioritizing .References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 128). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 374, 375). St. Louis: Mosby.
56 / 96
When delegating nursing assignments, the nurse must consider the skills and educational level of the nursing staff. The nursing assistant may be assigned the tasks of caring for a confused client, assisting with a shower or a bed bath, ambulating a client with a cane, and accompanying a client to physical therapy. The LPN is educated to reinforce teaching regarding the colostomy irrigation (the RN is responsible for the initial teaching) and administering regular insulin in accordance with a sliding scale.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the client assignment for the LPN. to eliminate the clients whose needs are noninvasive, because a nursing assistant may perform these tasks. This will help you identify the clients who may be assigned to the LPN. , review the principles of delegation and assignment–making.Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 244-246, 250). St. Louis: Saunders.
57 / 96
The nurse must base assignments on the basis of the skills of the staff member and the needs of the client. The nursing assistant is capable of caring for the client with a Foley catheter for whom a 24-hour urine collection is in progress and the client who requires transport to the radiology department in a wheelchair. The nursing assistant is skilled in such tasks. The client who has just undergone surgery will require specific monitoring in addition to recording of vital signs. Dressing changes and tracheostomy care are not performed by unlicensed personnel.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, assignments for the nursing assistant. Think about the skills that the nursing assistant can perform and remember that the nursing assistant may perform tasks that are noninvasive. Review: the principles of delegation and assignment–making .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 244-246, 250). St. Louis: Saunders.
58 / 96
Confrontation is an important strategy in dealing with resistance. Face–to–face meetings to confront the issue at hand allow verbalization of feelings, identification of problems and issues, and development of strategies to solve the problem. Ignoring the resistance does not address the problem. Providing a temporary solution to the resistance by having the registered nurse do all of the computer work and having the LPN perform only specific documentation will not specifically address the concern. Telling the LPN that the noncompliance will be documented in his personnel record may produce additional resistance.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the best approach to dealing with a conflict. and eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they represent direct avoidance of the conflict. , review the best approaches to with dealing with conflict.References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., p. 287). St. Louis: Saunders.Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 326, 327). St. Louis: Mosby.
59 / 96
The nurse reviewing a client’s record sees that the following medications are prescribed. Which medication should the nurse plan to administer first?Client Medications1. Atorvastatin (Lipitor) 10 mg orally2. Zolpidem (Ambien) 5 mg orally daily3. Ferrous sulfate (Feosol) 1 tablet orally4. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) 137 mg orally
For adequate absorption, levothyroxine must be administered with water on an empty stomach as soon as the client awakens and at least 1 hour apart from other fluids (e.g., coffee or tea), food, and other medications. Therefore this medication should be administered first. Atorvastatin (Lipitor), an HMG–CoA reductase inhibitor used to lower cholesterol, is administered at bedtime because cholesterol synthesis is increased during the night. Zolpidem, a benzodiazepine-like medication used to enhance sleep, is administered at bedtime. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement that is administered with water between meals.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Think about the classification of each medication to determine its action. This will help you answer correctly. Also note that atorvastatin and zolpidem are comparable or alike in that they are administered at bedtime. Next, recalling the action of levothyroxine will direct you to this option. Review: the medications in the options and their method of administration .References: Lehne, R. (2010). Pharmacology for nursing care (7th ed., pp. 380, 570, 694). St. Louis: Saunders.Hodgson, B., & Kizior, R. (2009). Saunders nursing drug handbook 2009 (p. 476). St. Louis: Saunders.
60 / 96
A case manager is reviewing progress notes in a client’s medical record. Which notation indicates the need for follow-up?
A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating a client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. This nurse initiates a nursing plan of care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care, evaluating and updating the plan of care as needed. The case manager monitors the client for expected and unexpected outcomes and provides follow-up and revises the plan of care if an unexpected outcome is noted. Crackles heard in the lower lobes of the lungs in a client with heart failure are an unexpected and unwanted outcome requiring follow-up because they could indicate the development of pulmonary edema. The notations made for the other clients listed represent expected outcomes. Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the role of the case manager and read each notation carefully. Next, focus on the subject, the need for follow-up. This will direct you to the notation that represents an unexpected or unwanted outcome. Crackles heard in the lower lobes of the lungs on auscultation are a matter of concern. Review: the role of the nurse manager and the expected and unexpected findings for the client conditions noted in the options . Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 468-469). St. Louis: Saunders. Cognitive Ability: Evaluating Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment Integrated Process: Nursing Process/Evaluation Content Area: Leadership/Management
61 / 96
The ultimate responsibility for a task lies with the person who delegated it. Therefore it is the nurse’s primary responsibility to follow up with each staff member regarding the performance of the task and the outcomes related to implementation of the task. Not all staff members have the education, knowledge, and ability to make judgments about the tasks being performed. The nurse would document that the task was completed, but this would not be done until follow–up had been conducted and outcomes identified. It is not appropriate to assign the tasks that have not been completed to the next nursing shift; this action does not ensure that client needs will be met and also increases the workload for the next shift.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic words “primary responsibility.” Recalling that the ultimate responsibility for a task lies with the person who delegated it will direct you to the correct option. Review: the guidelines for delegation .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 309-311). St. Louis: Mosby.
62 / 96
A client scheduled for hemodialysis has needs that must be met before the procedure. The nurse must ensure that the client is physically and emotionally ready for the treatment, which may take as long as 5 hours. Before the treatment, the nurse must assess the client, including looking for fluid overload by checking the client’s weight and lung sounds. The nurse must also assess the client’s predialysis vital signs and the results of laboratory tests for comparison in the postdialysis period. Although the clients described in the other options have needs, they are not immediate. A client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 am may require reinforcement of information about the procedure and will need to increase fluid intake before the procedure. A client scheduled for hydrotherapy for treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 am may require pain medication, but the medication should be administered approximately 30 minutes before the hydrotherapy. A client scheduled for contrast CT at noon may require reinforcement of information about the procedure and may need to drink a special contrast preparation just before the procedure.Test-Taking Strategy: Use Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory and think about the needs of each client and what pretesting or preprocedure preparation involves. Although all of the clients have physiological needs, the client scheduled for hemodialysis has the priority need, that being the risk of fluid overload. Review: the principles of prioritizing .References: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 374, 375). St. Louis: Mosby.
63 / 96
A change-of-shift report ensures continuity of care among nurses caring for a client and informs the nurse on the next shift about the client’s needs and priorities for care. It may be given written, orally, by audiotape, or while the nurses are walking rounds at a client’s bedside. The report should describe the client’s health status, current and secondary diagnoses, results of laboratory or diagnostic studies done that day, and the client’s response to treatments implemented that day. The client’s family history does not need to be described in a change-of shift report, and doing so would take time. If such information is needed by the oncoming nurse, it may be obtained from the client’s medical record. There is no useful reason for describing a routine procedure; this would also take time, and the information is available in the agency procedure manual.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, what to include in the change-of-shift report. Read each option carefully and eliminate family history, because it is not directly related to the client’s current status. Next eliminate the option that involves describing the steps in performing a procedure, because this is routine information. Also note that the correct options are client focused. Review: the components of a change-of-shift report .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 400-402). St. Louis: Mosby.
64 / 96
The RN is responsible for ensuring client safety at all times and must not leave the nursing unit for any reason during the shift. The nurse’s break should be taken in a designated area located on the nursing unit. Before taking the break, the nurse should check all clients to ensure that they are safe and comfortable and that their needs have been met. A nursing assistant should never be asked to perform any activity that he or she is not trained for. This includes such activities as administering medications; assessing, monitoring, or evaluating the client; and making decisions about contacting a physician.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the roles and responsibilities of the RN and the tasks or activities that the nursing assistant may legally perform and focus on the subject, safety. Remember that the registered nurse is responsible for administering medications; assessing, monitoring, and evaluating the client; and making decisions about contacting a physician. Review: the role of the RN and the tasks and activities that may be delegated to a nursing assistant.References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 242, 243). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 400-402). St. Louis: Mosby.
65 / 96
When a nurse delegates aspects of a client’s care to another staff member, he or she is responsible for appropriately assigning tasks on the basis of the educational level and competency of the staff member. A client receiving oxygen who requires pulse oximetry monitoring and respiratory treatments should be assigned to the LPN, because this staff member can perform these tasks and is competent to note changes in the client’s condition. Feeding a client, turning and repositioning a client, and assisting with hygiene measures, all noninvasive interventions, may be assigned to a nursing assistant.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject of the question, assignment of tasks to an LPN. Think about the activities that the LPN is able to perform. Next, eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they are noninvasive procedures. Review: the principles of delegating tasks .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 406, 407). St. Louis: Mosby.
66 / 96
When a nurse delegates aspects of a client’s care to another staff member, he or she is responsible for appropriately assigning tasks on the basis of the educational level and competency of the staff member. Noninvasive interventions such as ambulating a client with a walker may be assigned to a nursing assistant. A client who requires suctioning or one who needs a colostomy irrigation should be assigned to a licensed practical nurse (LPN) because these staff members can perform certain invasive procedures. The client who has undergone an arteriogram should be assigned to either an LPN or an RN because these personnel have the knowledge and education to detect changes in the client’s status that require attention.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject of the question, assignment to a nursing assistant. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve invasive procedures. To select from the remaining options, think about the education that a nursing assistant receives. The nursing assistant is trained to ambulate a client with an assistive device but does not have the knowledge and education to detect changes in a client’s status. Review: the guidelines for delegation of tasks.Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 406, 407). St. Louis: Mosby.
67 / 96
If the client’s condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client’s hospitalization. The client’s request regarding DNR status is the priority.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that use the closed-ended words “may not” and “only.” To select from the remaining options, recall that a DNR status may be changed at any time. Review: the ethical and legal issues regarding DNR orders .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 177). St. Louis: Mosby.
68 / 96
In a situation in which a client has no family members who can provide permission for treatment, the health care provider may write a DNR order if he or she is reasonably and medically certain that resuscitation would be futile. Therefore the other options are inaccurate.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question and note that the client is terminally ill and has no family members other than a wife who is mentally incompetent. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that resuscitation measures will be instituted. Next eliminate the option containing the closed-ended word “only.” Review: the ethical and legal issues related to DNR orders .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 177). St. Louis: Mosby.
69 / 96
A client may request a DNR order after being given the appropriate information by the physician. Therefore, if a client requests a DNR order the nurse should contact the health care provider so that the health care provider may discuss the request with the client. A DNR order should be written, not verbal. The pertinent agency and state guidelines must be followed with regard to when a verbal DNR order is acceptable. Therefore the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of the issues related to DNR orders. Eliminate the options that contain the closed-ended words “must” and “all.” Next, recall that the client has the right to request a DNR order, which will direct you to the correct option from those remaining. Review: the issues related to DNR orders .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., p. 497). St. Louis: Mosby.
70 / 96
The nurse may not violate a family’s request regarding the client’s treatment plan. A “slow code” is not acceptable, and the nurse should state this to the physician. The definition of a “slow code” varies among healthcare facilities and personnel and could be interpreted as not performing resuscitative procedures as quickly as a competent person would. Resuscitative procedures that are performed more slowly than recommended by the American Heart Association are below the standard of care and could therefore serve as the basis for a lawsuit. The other options are therefore inappropriate.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question — specifically, that the spouse will not grant permission for a DNR order. Recalling the procedures for CPR and the ethical/legal guidelines for a DNR order will direct you to the correct option. Review: the nurse’s responsibility regarding DNR orders .Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 113). St. Louis: Saunders.
71 / 96
CPR is an emergency treatment that is provided without client consent unless a DNR order is part of the client’s record. Calling the nursing supervisor for directions, administering oxygen to the client, and calling the health care provider are all inappropriate actions that would delay necessary treatment.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they delay necessary treatment. Review: procedures related to CPR and DNR orders .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 177). St. Louis: Mosby.Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 497-498). St. Louis: Mosby.
72 / 96
A client’s medical condition is confidential and should never be discussed with anyone other than the client and the client’s healthcare provider. Therefore the nurse must tell the unit secretary that the client’s condition is not to be discussed. The statements “Yes, he does, but be sure not to discuss this with anyone else” and “Yes, that’s why we’ve imposed contact precautions” both confirm the client’s disease and are therefore inappropriate. Responding, “Oh, really? I didn’t see that!” promotes further discussion of the client’s condition and is inappropriate.Test-Taking Strategy: and recall the issues surrounding confidentiality. This will help you eliminate the option that promotes further discussion of the client’s condition. Next, eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they confirm the client’s illness. Review: the issues surrounding confidentiality .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 156, 157). St. Louis: Saunders.
73 / 96
Privacy is a client’s right to be free from unwanted intrusion into his or her private affairs. Videotaping constitutes an invasion of a client’s privacy, and written permission is required from the client for an action such as photographing or videotaping. Therefore the nurse must explain to the television crew that videotaping is not allowed. The other options are incorrect and constitute invasions of client privacy.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client privacy. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they represent invasions of client privacy. Review: violations of client privacy .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 331). St. Louis: Mosby.
74 / 96
Unless a client consents, a nurse may not disclose confidential information to anyone else. Therefore the appropriate response is to tell the client’s wife that she will have to discuss the test with the client. Likewise, a client’s medical record is confidential and cannot be given to the wife for reading. Telling the client’s wife that the radiology department is unclear as to what test has been prescribed is inappropriate. The nurse must not place the responsibility or accountability for a prescribed test on another department.Test-Taking Strategy: Focusing on the subject, confidentiality, and recalling the issues surrounding confidentiality will direct you to the correct option. Review: the issues surrounding confidentiality .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 315). St. Louis: Mosby.
75 / 96
The client has the right to refuse a treatment or procedure, and if the client does refuse, the nurse must respect the client’s decision. Therefore the nurse would allow the client to rest. Persuading the client to have a bath and giving the bath anyway are both inappropriate and represent violations of the client’s rights. Telling the client that the health care provider will be informed of the refusal of care is a threatening action on the nurse’s part.Test-Taking Strategy: and your knowledge of client rights. Eliminate the options that present a threat to the client or indicate that the bath will be given regardless of the client’s wishes. Review: client rights .References: Black, J., & Hawks, J. (2009). Medical-surgical nursing: Clinical management for positive outcomes (8th ed., p. 79). St. Louis: Saunders.Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 176-181). St. Louis: Mosby.
76 / 96
A client has the right to be informed of the medication name, purpose, action, and potential undesirable effects of a prescribed medication. The nurse should provide adequate information to the client. Therefore, the appropriate response is the one that is thorough and complete. Referring the client to the health care provider places the client’s question on hold. The remaining options are incomplete.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “appropriate.” Eliminate the option that refers the client to the physician, because it places the client’s question on hold. To select from the remaining choices, find the option that is most complete and thorough. Review: client rights in regard to the provision of information about medication .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 709). St. Louis: Mosby.
77 / 96
An individual who is at least 18 years old may make an anatomical gift of all or part of the human body. The gift must be made in writing and signed by the donor. If the client cannot sign, the document must be signed by another individual and two witnesses. The health care provider is informed of the client’s wishes and the client may wish to speak to a chaplain, but the specific procedure requires a written document signed by the client. The family of a deceased client may be asked about organ donation, but this is not the procedure when a living person wishes to become a donor.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a client requesting information about organ donation. Eliminate the option using the closed-ended word “must.” To select from the remaining options, remember that an anatomical gift must be made in writing and signed by the client. Review: the procedure for organ donation .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 498, 499). St. Louis: Mosby.
78 / 96
When a staff member reports to work in a state of alcohol intoxication, the nurse notes the signs objectively and asks a second person to validate these observations. The nurse also contacts the nursing supervisor. An odor of alcohol, slurred speech, unsteady gait, and errors in judgment are symptoms of intoxication. Client safety is the primary concern. The intoxicated nurse is removed from the situation, confronted briefly and firmly about the behavior, and sent home to rest and recuperate. The incident is recorded and the nurse describes the observations, states the action taken, indicates future plans, and has the staff member sign and date the memo of the recorded incident after returning to work. Refusal to sign and date the memo should be noted by the charge nurse and a witness. Neither asking the staff member to rest in the nurses’ lounge until the effects of the alcohol wear off nor telling the staff member that he or she will not be allowed to administer medications removes the staff member from the client care area, jeopardizing the client’s safety. Asking the staff member how much alcohol she has consumed is confrontational and irrelevant.Test-Taking Strategy: Keep in mind that client safety is the priority. Asking the staff member how much alcohol she has consumed is irrelevant, so eliminate this option. Next eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they do not involve removal of the staff member from the client care area. Review: nursing responsibilities when substance abuse is suspected in a staff member .Reference: Marriner-Tomey, A. (2009). Guide to nursing management and leadership (8th ed., pp. 445, 446). St. Louis: Mosby.
79 / 96
The nurse needs to document a factual, descriptive, and objective statement that does not include words indicating that an individual made an error or performed an incorrect action or procedure. If a health care provider’s prescription must be questioned, the nurse should record that clarification regarding the prescription was sought.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the health care provider made an error in writing a prescription. These options contain the words “error” or “incorrect.” Review: the principles of documentation.Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 388-390). St. Louis: Mosby.
80 / 96
Battery is any intentional touching of a client without the client’s consent. Such contact may be harmful to the client or it may merely be offensive to the client’s dignity. If a nurse discovers that battery of a client has occurred, the nurse should report the situation to the nursing supervisor. Telling the client that the nurse did the right thing in giving the enema is incorrect, because the other nurse has violated the client’s rights. Confronting the nurse and telling her that she is going to be charged with battery would likely result in unnecessary conflict. Although the health care provider may need to be notified, the nurse should first report the situation to the nursing supervisor.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate.” Next, focus on the subject, client rights. Recalling that any situation that constitutes a violation of a client’s rights needs to be reported and remembering the organizational channels of reporting will direct you to the correct option. Review: the issues surrounding violation of client rights and nursing responsibilities when a client’s rights have been violated .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 172, 173). St. Louis: Mosby.
81 / 96
Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client’s consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client’s consent.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and the nurse’s statement. Note that the nurse threatens the client. Next, recall the definition of assault, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: violations of client rights .Reference: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 172, 173). St. Louis: Mosby.
82 / 96
A nurse serves as a client advocate by protecting the right of the client to be informed and to participate in decisions regarding care. The only option that ensures that the client will be informed of the risks of the surgery is contacting the surgeon and asking that the risks be explained to the client. Telling the client that the risks are minimal is false reassurance. Putting a note on the client’s chart or documenting that the client was not informed about the risks does ensure that the client will be informed.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the guidelines and principles of obtaining informed consent. Focusing on the words “never told about the risks of the surgery” will direct you to the correct option, the only option that ensures that the client will be told about the risks. Review: the role of a nurse as a client advocate .References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., p. 179). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 352-357). St. Louis: Mosby.
83 / 96
The health care provider should write all prescriptions. Verbal prescriptions are not recommended, because they increase the risk for error. If a verbal prescription is necessary, such as during an emergency, it should be written and signed by the health care provider as soon as possible, usually within 24 hours. The nurse must follow agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions. The appropriate nursing action would be to ask the health care provider to write the prescription in the client’s record before leaving the nursing unit. Changing the solution in keeping with the verbal prescription and contacting the supervisor to obtain permission to accept the verbal prescription each imply that the nurse accepts the verbal prescription. Telling the health care provider that the prescription will not be implemented until it is documented in the client’s record delays necessary treatment.Test-Taking Strategy: and note the strategic word “appropriate.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they imply acceptance of the verbal prescription by the nurse. To select from the remaining options, recall the guidelines and principles for implementing health care provider prescriptions. This will direct you to the correct option. Review: nursing responsibilities related to verbal prescriptions .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 699, 700). St. Louis: Mosby.
84 / 96
Telephone prescriptions involve a health care provider’s dictating a prescribed therapy over the telephone to the nurse. The nurse must clarify the prescription by repeating the prescription clearly and precisely to the physician. The nurse then writes the prescription on the physician’s prescription sheet. Under no circumstances should the nurse try to interpret an unclear prescription or administer a medication by a route that has not been expressly prescribed. The nurse must call the health care provider who gave the telephone prescription and clarify the prescription.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the nurse should administer the medication without clarifying the physician’s prescription. Review: the procedures for accepting telephone prescriptions .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 699, 700). St. Louis: Mosby.
85 / 96
Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a health care provider. Therefore the nurse would first inform the health care provider that this is not a nursing procedure. If the health care provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agency’s policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse (a nurse with a master’s degree in a specialized area of nursing) to remove a chest tube. However, there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the nurse would remove the chest tube. To select from the remaining options, note the strategic word “first.” The nurse should discuss the prescription with the physician. Review: nursing responsibilities with regard to removal of a chest tube .Reference: Black, J., & Hawks, J. (2009). Medical-surgical nursing: Clinical management for positive outcomes (8th ed., p. 1624). St. Louis: Saunders.
86 / 96
A nurse must follow a physician’s prescription unless he or she believes that the prescription is in error or that it would harm the client. If a prescription is found to be incorrect or harmful, further clarification from the health care provider is necessary. If the health care provider confirms the prescription and the nurse still believes that it is inappropriate, the nurse should contact the nursing supervisor. The nurse should not continue transcribing the prescription or ask another nurse to implement the prescription. The nurse might ask the client about the medication and the dose taken at home but would not administer the medication.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the medication would be administered. Review: the nurse’s responsibilities in regard to a physician’s prescriptions .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 709). St. Louis: Mosby.
87 / 96
A client undergoing a chest x-ray must remove all metal objects to help prevent artifacts on the x-ray. If the client expresses concern about removing the medal, the nurse should help the client pin the medal and chain to the hospital gown or in another area where it will not appear on the x-ray image. The nurse should also alert staff in the radiology department that this has been done. If the client is expressing concern about removing the medal, asking the client to remove it or leave it with the nurse or in the bedside stand is inappropriate. Each of these actions also increases the likelihood that the medal and chain will be lost.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the client is expressing concern about removing the religious medal. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client should remove the medal. Also note that the correct option is the only option that addresses the client’s concern. Review: care of clients’ valuablesReference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 1387). St. Louis: Mosby.
88 / 96
In most situations a wedding band may be taped in place and worn during a surgical procedure. However, if the possibility exists that the client will experience swelling of the hand or fingers, the wedding band should be removed. On admission to a healthcare facility, the client is asked to sign a form that frees the agency from responsibility if a client’s valuable is lost. After mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, the client is at risk for lymphedema, which results in swelling of the arm and hand on the affected side. Therefore the appropriate nursing action is to ask the client to remove the wedding band and explain why.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client may wear the wedding band during the surgical procedure. Next, recall the complications associated with mastectomy, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: preoperative procedures for a client’s valuables .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 1387). St. Louis: Mosby.
89 / 96
When a client has valuables, the nurse should give them to a family member or secure them for safekeeping. Most health care institutions require that a client sign a release form that frees the institution of responsibility if a valuable item (e.g., jewelry, money) is lost, but this does not safeguard the client’s necklace. Valuables may be locked in a designated location such as the hospital’s safe. Removing the necklace and putting it in a drawer does not safeguard it. Asking the client whether the necklace is gold is inappropriate and unrelated to the subject.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, safeguarding the client’s necklace. Focusing on the subject and noting the word “lock” in the correct option will help you answer correctly. Review: the procedures for safeguarding a client’s valuables .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 1387). St. Louis: Mosby.
90 / 96
Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, is focused on processes or systems that significantly contribute to client safety and effective client care outcomes. Criteria are used to assess outcomes of care and determine the need for changes improve the quality of care. In a retrospective, or “looking back,” audit, the medical record is inspected after the client’s discharge for documentation of compliance with standards. In a concurrent, or “at the same time,” audit, the nursing staff’s compliance with predetermined standards and criteria is assessed as the nurses are providing care during the client’s stay. In this type of audit, a peer review approach in which members of the nursing staff are involved in data collection may be implemented. Obtaining the a client’s medical record from the medical record room for the purpose of reviewing documentation made during the client’s hospital stay is an example of a retrospective audit. The incorrect options are examples of concurrent audits.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a retrospective audit. Note the relationship of the word “retrospective” in the question and the description in the correct option. Review: the procedures for quality improvement and retrospective and concurrent audits if you have difficulty with this question.Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 64, 65). St. Louis: Mosby.
91 / 96
A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating the client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. Specific responsibilities of the case manager include establishing a safe and cost-effective plan of care with the client, coordinating consultations and referrals, and facilitating discharge; initiating a plan of nursing care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care and evaluating and updating the plan of care as needed; ensuring that the plan of care is tailored to the client’s needs, taking into account the client’s diagnosis, self-care ability, and prescribed treatments; assessing the client’s need for equipment such as oxygen or wound care supplies and exploring available resources to provide the client with these supplies; providing resources that will assist the client in maintaining independence as much as possible; and providing the client with information on discharge procedures and the plan of care. The nurse does not prescribe treatments.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the responsibilities of the case manager. Note the word “prescribing” in the incorrect option. It is not within the role of the nurse to prescribe. Review: the responsibilities of the case manager if you have difficulty with this question.Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 21). St. Louis: Mosby.
92 / 96
Evidence-based practice is an approach to client care in which the nurse integrates the client’s preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Donning sterile gloves to change an abdominal wound dressing reflects evidence-based practice, because it prevents the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound. The remaining options do not reflect evidence-based practice. Taking an herbal substance could be harmful to some clients. It is nontherapeutic for a nurse to advise a client to agree to a treatment. Because of the risk of injury to the rectal mucosa, rectal temperature-taking is avoided in the client for whom bleeding precautions have been instituted.Test-Taking Strategy: Read each option carefully, focusing on the subject, evidence-based practice. Recall the definition of evidence-based practice and note the words “sterile gloves” in the correct option. Review: the situations that reflect evidence-based practice .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 54-60). St. Louis: Mosby.
93 / 96
When a client sustains a fall, the nurse must first assess the client. The nurse should check the client’s level of consciousness and vital signs and look for any bruises or injuries sustained in the fall. If the nurse determines that the client has not sustained any injuries and that it is safe to move the client, the nurse should ask the UAP to assist in getting the client into bed. The nurse should then contact the health care provider and file an incident report.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. The correct option is the only one that addresses assessment. Remember to always assess the client first if a client sustains a fall. Review: client injuries and procedures for filing incident reports .References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2010). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient–centered collaborative care (6th ed., p. 180). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 403). St. Louis: Mosby.
94 / 96
Telling a client that he or she may not leave the hospital constitutes false imprisonment. Performing a procedure without consent is an example of battery. Threatening to give a client a medication against his or her will is assault. Invasion of privacy takes place with unreasonable intrusion into an individual’s private affairs. Observing the provision of care to a client without the client’s permission is an example of invasion of privacy.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, an example of false imprisonment. Note the relationship of the subject and the words in the correct option. Review: the concept of false imprisonment.References: Cherry, B., & Jacob, S. (2008). Contemporary nursing issues: Trends & management (4th ed., pp. 175, 176). St. Louis: Mosby.Zerwekh, J., & Claborn, J. (2009). Nursing today: Transition and trends (6th ed., p. 424).
95 / 96
Beneficence is taking action to help others. Although administration of a child’s immunization might cause discomfort, the benefits of protection from disease outweigh the temporary discomfort. Fidelity is keeping promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Autonomy is a person’s independence. Respecting another’s autonomy means that you are agreeing to respect that person’s right to determine his or her course of action. Justice refers to fairness and equity, including fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care for all clients.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, beneficence. Recalling that beneficence refers to taking action to help others will direct you to the correct option. Review: the principles of healthcare ethics .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 314). St. Louis: Mosby.
96 / 96
Nonmaleficence is the avoidance of hurt or harm. Remember that in healthcare ethics, ethical practice involves not only the will to do good but also the equal commitment to do no harm. Healthcare professionals try to balance the risks and benefits of a plan of care while striving to do the least possible harm. Justice refers to fairness and equity and ensuring fair allocation of resources, such as nursing care for all clients. Fidelity is the keeping of promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Autonomy refers to a person’s independence and represents an agreement to respect another’s right to determine his or her course of action.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject – the ethical principle being utilized. Recall the definition of each item in the options. Note the relationship of the words “least possible harm” in the question and the definition of nonmaleficence. Review: principles of healthcare ethics.Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 314). St. Louis: Mosby.
0% 49 Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically. Thanks for attempting the quiz Nclex Content Review Class One – Week Three Week Three Assessment The number of attempts remaining is 1 User Information 1 / 96 A prescription is written to administer hepatitis B vaccine (Recombivax HB) to a newborn infant. Before administering the vaccine, which action should the nurse take? A. Check the infant for jaundice B. Check the infant's temperature C. Obtain parental consent to administer the vaccine D. Request that a hepatitis blood screen be performed on the infant Hepatitis B vaccine is for immunization against infection caused by all known subtypes of hepatitis B virus. The usual recommended schedule is to administer the vaccine at birth, at 1 month of age, and again at 6 months of age. Parental consent must be obtained before the vaccine is administered. Checking the infant’s temperature, checking for jaundice, and requesting that a hepatitis blood screen be performed on the infant are all unnecessary.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the administration of the hepatitis B vaccine to a newborn is required to answer this question. Remember, parental consent is required before the vaccine is administered. Review: the procedure for administering this vaccine to a newborn .Reference: Hockenberry, M., & Wilson, D. (2013). Wong’s Essentials of pediatric nursing (9th ed., pp. 209, 331, 636-637). St. Louis: Mosby. Hepatitis B vaccine is for immunization against infection caused by all known subtypes of hepatitis B virus. The usual recommended schedule is to administer the vaccine at birth, at 1 month of age, and again at 6 months of age. Parental consent must be obtained before the vaccine is administered. Checking the infant’s temperature, checking for jaundice, and requesting that a hepatitis blood screen be performed on the infant are all unnecessary.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the administration of the hepatitis B vaccine to a newborn is required to answer this question. Remember, parental consent is required before the vaccine is administered. Review: the procedure for administering this vaccine to a newborn .Reference: Hockenberry, M., & Wilson, D. (2013). Wong’s Essentials of pediatric nursing (9th ed., pp. 209, 331, 636-637). St. Louis: Mosby. 2 / 96 A nurse is assessing a newborn infant for jaundice. Which action should the nurse take to assess the infant for its presence? A. Squeeze the infant's nail beds B. Squeeze the infant's brachial area C. Apply pressure with a finger over the umbilical area D. Apply pressure with a finger on the infant's forehead To assess an infant for jaundice, pressure is applied with a finger over a bony area such as the nose, forehead, or sternum for several seconds to empty all capillaries in that spot. If jaundice is present, the blanched area will appear yellow before the capillaries refill. Jaundice is first noticeable in the head and then progresses gradually toward the abdomen and extremities because of the newborn infant’s circulatory pattern. Squeezing the infant’s nail beds and brachial area and applying pressure with a finger over the umbilical area are all incorrect methods of assessing for jaundice. Assessing for jaundice in natural light is recommended because artificial lighting and reflection from nursery walls may distort the actual skin color. Visual assessment of jaundice does not, however, provide an accurate assessment of the level of serum bilirubin.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options that contain the word “squeeze.” To select from the remaining options, recall that jaundice is first noticeable in the head; this will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for assessing for jaundice in a newborn .Reference: Hockenberry, M., & Wilson, D. (2013). Wong’s Essentials of pediatric nursing (9th ed., p. 261). St. Louis: Mosby. To assess an infant for jaundice, pressure is applied with a finger over a bony area such as the nose, forehead, or sternum for several seconds to empty all capillaries in that spot. If jaundice is present, the blanched area will appear yellow before the capillaries refill. Jaundice is first noticeable in the head and then progresses gradually toward the abdomen and extremities because of the newborn infant’s circulatory pattern. Squeezing the infant’s nail beds and brachial area and applying pressure with a finger over the umbilical area are all incorrect methods of assessing for jaundice. Assessing for jaundice in natural light is recommended because artificial lighting and reflection from nursery walls may distort the actual skin color. Visual assessment of jaundice does not, however, provide an accurate assessment of the level of serum bilirubin.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options that contain the word “squeeze.” To select from the remaining options, recall that jaundice is first noticeable in the head; this will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for assessing for jaundice in a newborn .Reference: Hockenberry, M., & Wilson, D. (2013). Wong’s Essentials of pediatric nursing (9th ed., p. 261). St. Louis: Mosby. 3 / 96 A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn calls the nurse at the pediatrician’s office and reports that her infant is passing mustard-yellow stools. What should the nurse tell the mother? A. That this is normal for breastfed infants B. To decrease the number of feedings by two per day C. That the stools should be solid and pale yellow to light brown D. To monitor the infant for infection and, if a fever develops, to contact the pediatrician Breastfed infants may pass mustard-yellow stools. Formula-fed infants excrete stools that are more solid and pale yellow to light brown. Decreasing the number of feedings might be harmful to the newborn. Because this finding is an expected occurrence in a breastfed infant, infection is not a concern.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that the infant’s stools are abnormal. Remember, breastfed infants may pass mustard-yellow stools. Review: the expected elimination patterns in a breastfed infant .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 474). St. Louis: Elsevier. Breastfed infants may pass mustard-yellow stools. Formula-fed infants excrete stools that are more solid and pale yellow to light brown. Decreasing the number of feedings might be harmful to the newborn. Because this finding is an expected occurrence in a breastfed infant, infection is not a concern.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that the infant’s stools are abnormal. Remember, breastfed infants may pass mustard-yellow stools. Review: the expected elimination patterns in a breastfed infant .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 474). St. Louis: Elsevier. 4 / 96 The mother of a newborn who was circumcised before discharge from the hospital calls the nurse at the pediatrician’s office and tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a yellow crust over the circumcision site. Which instruction should the nurse give the mother? A. To bring the infant to the pediatrician's office to be checked B. That the crust is to be expected as a normal part of healing C. To remove the crust, using a warm, wet face cloth and a mild soap D. That it could indicate a sign of an infection and that the infant's temperature should be checked every 2 hours After circumcision, a yellow crust may form over the circumcision site. This crust is a normal part of healing and should not be removed. The mother should be told to expect this occurrence. Yellow crusting or discharge is not a sign of infection, and the pediatrician does not need to be notified, because the finding is to be expected.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that a complication exists. To select from the remaining options, recall the normal process of healing. This will help you answer correctly. Review: the expected findings after circumcision .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 520). St. Louis: Elsevier. After circumcision, a yellow crust may form over the circumcision site. This crust is a normal part of healing and should not be removed. The mother should be told to expect this occurrence. Yellow crusting or discharge is not a sign of infection, and the pediatrician does not need to be notified, because the finding is to be expected.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that a complication exists. To select from the remaining options, recall the normal process of healing. This will help you answer correctly. Review: the expected findings after circumcision .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 520). St. Louis: Elsevier. 5 / 96 A nurse demonstrates the procedure for bathing a newborn to a new mother. The next day, the nurse watches as the mother bathes the infant. The nurse determines that the mother is performing the procedure correctly if she performs which action? A. Washes the diaper area first B. Washes the infant's chest first C. Uncovers only the body part being washed D. Uses a cotton-tipped swab to carefully clean inside the infant's nose Bathing should start with the eyes and face, usually the cleanest areas. Next, the external ear and the areas behind the ears are cleansed. The infant’s neck should be washed because formula, lint, or breast milk often accumulates in the folds of the neck. The hands and arms are then washed. Next, the infant’s legs are washed, and the diaper area is washed last. The person administering the bath should keep the infant warm by uncovering only the area being washed. Cotton-tipped swabs are not used to clean the infant’s ears or nose because injury could occur if the infant were to move suddenly.Test-Taking Strategy: Remembering the basic techniques of bathing a client will assist you in answering this question. Always start with the cleanest area of the body first and proceed to the dirtiest area. Also, recalling that cotton-tipped swabs can cause injury will assist you in eliminating this option. Review: the procedure for bathing an infant .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 515, 522). St. Louis: Elsevier. Bathing should start with the eyes and face, usually the cleanest areas. Next, the external ear and the areas behind the ears are cleansed. The infant’s neck should be washed because formula, lint, or breast milk often accumulates in the folds of the neck. The hands and arms are then washed. Next, the infant’s legs are washed, and the diaper area is washed last. The person administering the bath should keep the infant warm by uncovering only the area being washed. Cotton-tipped swabs are not used to clean the infant’s ears or nose because injury could occur if the infant were to move suddenly.Test-Taking Strategy: Remembering the basic techniques of bathing a client will assist you in answering this question. Always start with the cleanest area of the body first and proceed to the dirtiest area. Also, recalling that cotton-tipped swabs can cause injury will assist you in eliminating this option. Review: the procedure for bathing an infant .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 515, 522). St. Louis: Elsevier. 6 / 96 A newborn infant’s blood glucose level is analyzed by the laboratory. The laboratory staff calls the nurse and reports that the blood glucose level is 40 mg/dL(2.2 mmol/L). Based on this result, which action should the nurse take first? A. Hold the next scheduled feeding B. Contact the nurse-midwife or health care provider C. Document the results in the newborn's medical record D. Ask the laboratory to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeat the test The blood glucose level for a newborn infant should remain above 40 mg/dL(2.2 mmol/L). If glucose is not constantly available to the brain, permanent damage may occur. The nurse would most appropriately contact the nurse-midwife or health care provider to obtain prescriptions regarding feeding the infant with a low blood glucose. The nurse would also follow agency policy regarding feeding infants with a low blood glucose level if such a policy exists. A common practice is to feed the infant if the glucose level is 40 mg/dL(2.2 mmol/L) or less. Holding the next scheduled feeding is harmful. Although the nurse would document the laboratory result, this is not the most appropriate initial action. Another blood sample may need to be drawn if it is prescribed, but asking the laboratory to repeat the test in 2 hours is not the appropriate action.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. Recalling the normal blood glucose level for a newborn and recalling the danger associated with a low blood glucose level will direct you to the correct option. Review: nursing interventions for maintaining a safe blood glucose level in the newborn .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 493-494). St. Louis: Elsevier. The blood glucose level for a newborn infant should remain above 40 mg/dL(2.2 mmol/L). If glucose is not constantly available to the brain, permanent damage may occur. The nurse would most appropriately contact the nurse-midwife or health care provider to obtain prescriptions regarding feeding the infant with a low blood glucose. The nurse would also follow agency policy regarding feeding infants with a low blood glucose level if such a policy exists. A common practice is to feed the infant if the glucose level is 40 mg/dL(2.2 mmol/L) or less. Holding the next scheduled feeding is harmful. Although the nurse would document the laboratory result, this is not the most appropriate initial action. Another blood sample may need to be drawn if it is prescribed, but asking the laboratory to repeat the test in 2 hours is not the appropriate action.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. Recalling the normal blood glucose level for a newborn and recalling the danger associated with a low blood glucose level will direct you to the correct option. Review: nursing interventions for maintaining a safe blood glucose level in the newborn .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 493-494). St. Louis: Elsevier. 7 / 96 Intramuscular phytonadione (vitamin K) 0.5 mg is prescribed for a newborn. After the medication is prepared, in which anatomical site does the nurse administer it? A. Gluteal muscle B. Deltoid muscle C. Rectus femoris muscle D. Vastus lateralis muscle Vitamin K is administered to the newborn infant in the hour after birth to help prevent hemorrhagic disease. The best site for intramuscular injection is the infant’s vastus lateralis muscle, although, if necessary, the rectus femoris muscle may be used. The large vastus lateralis muscle is located away from the sciatic nerve, as well as the femoral artery and vein. The rectus femoris muscle is nearer these structures, and an injection there is more hazardous. The deltoid muscle is not used to administer intramuscular injections in the newborn infant. The gluteal muscles are never used until a child has been walking for at least a year. These muscles are poorly developed and dangerously near the sciatic nerve.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, administering an intramuscular injection to a newborn. Visualizing the anatomical location of each of the muscles identified in the options will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for administering vitamin K to a newborn .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 509-510). St. Louis: Elsevier. Vitamin K is administered to the newborn infant in the hour after birth to help prevent hemorrhagic disease. The best site for intramuscular injection is the infant’s vastus lateralis muscle, although, if necessary, the rectus femoris muscle may be used. The large vastus lateralis muscle is located away from the sciatic nerve, as well as the femoral artery and vein. The rectus femoris muscle is nearer these structures, and an injection there is more hazardous. The deltoid muscle is not used to administer intramuscular injections in the newborn infant. The gluteal muscles are never used until a child has been walking for at least a year. These muscles are poorly developed and dangerously near the sciatic nerve.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, administering an intramuscular injection to a newborn. Visualizing the anatomical location of each of the muscles identified in the options will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for administering vitamin K to a newborn .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 509-510). St. Louis: Elsevier. 8 / 96 A nurse in the pediatrician’s office is checking the Babinski reflex in a 3-month-old infant. The nurse determines that the infant’s response is normal if which finding is noted? A. The infant turns to the side that is touched. B. The fingers curl tightly and the toes curl forward. C. The toes flare and the big toe is dorsiflexed. D. There is extension of the extremities on the side to which the head is turned, with flexion on the opposite side. To elicit the Babinski reflex, the nurse strokes the lateral sole of the foot from the heel to across the base of the toes. In the expected response, the toes flare and the big toe dorsiflexes. The Babinski reflex disappears at 12 months of age. Turning to the side that is touched is the expected response when the rooting reflex is elicited. Tight curling of the fingers and forward curling of the toes is the expected response when the grasp reflex (palmar and plantar) is elicited. Extension of the extremities on the side to which the head is turned with flexion on the opposite side is the expected response when the tonic neck reflex is elicited.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the method of testing and the expected response of the Babinski reflex is needed to answer this question. Recalling that to elicit Babinski reflex the nurse would stroke the lateral sole of the foot will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for testing this reflex in an infant and the expected response .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 491). St. Louis: Elsevier. To elicit the Babinski reflex, the nurse strokes the lateral sole of the foot from the heel to across the base of the toes. In the expected response, the toes flare and the big toe dorsiflexes. The Babinski reflex disappears at 12 months of age. Turning to the side that is touched is the expected response when the rooting reflex is elicited. Tight curling of the fingers and forward curling of the toes is the expected response when the grasp reflex (palmar and plantar) is elicited. Extension of the extremities on the side to which the head is turned with flexion on the opposite side is the expected response when the tonic neck reflex is elicited.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the method of testing and the expected response of the Babinski reflex is needed to answer this question. Recalling that to elicit Babinski reflex the nurse would stroke the lateral sole of the foot will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for testing this reflex in an infant and the expected response .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 491). St. Louis: Elsevier. 9 / 96 A nurse in the newborn nursery, performing an assessment of a newborn, prepares to measure the chest circumference. Where should the nurse place the tape measure? A. In the axillary area B. At the level of the nipples C. 2 inches (5cm) below the nipples D. At the level of the umbilicus The chest circumference of the infant is measured at the level of the nipples. It is usually 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head’s circumference. The average circumference of the chest is 30.5 to 33 cm (12 to 13 inches). (If molding of the head is present, the head and chest measurements may be equal at birth.) The other options are incorrect anatomical areas for measuring chest circumference.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, measuring chest circumference. Visualizing each of the options will help direct you to the correct one. Review: the procedure for measuring chest circumference in a newborn infant .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 489-490). St. Louis: Elsevier. The chest circumference of the infant is measured at the level of the nipples. It is usually 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head’s circumference. The average circumference of the chest is 30.5 to 33 cm (12 to 13 inches). (If molding of the head is present, the head and chest measurements may be equal at birth.) The other options are incorrect anatomical areas for measuring chest circumference.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, measuring chest circumference. Visualizing each of the options will help direct you to the correct one. Review: the procedure for measuring chest circumference in a newborn infant .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 489-490). St. Louis: Elsevier. 10 / 96 A nurse monitoring a newborn infant notes that the infant’s respirations are 40 breaths per minute. Based on this finding, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take? A. Documenting the findings B. Contacting the pediatrician C. Placing the infant in an oxygen tent D. Wrapping an extra blanket around the infant The normal respiratory rate of a newborn infant is 30 to 60 breaths per minute (average 40). The nurse would document the findings. Contacting the pediatrician, placing the infant in an oxygen tent, and wrapping an extra blanket around the infant are all unnecessary actions.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate” in the question. Knowledge regarding the normal respiratory rate in a newborn infant is needed to answer this question. Focus on the data in the question and recall that 40 breaths per minute is normal. Review: normal newborn vital signs .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 808). St. Louis: Elsevier. The normal respiratory rate of a newborn infant is 30 to 60 breaths per minute (average 40). The nurse would document the findings. Contacting the pediatrician, placing the infant in an oxygen tent, and wrapping an extra blanket around the infant are all unnecessary actions.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate” in the question. Knowledge regarding the normal respiratory rate in a newborn infant is needed to answer this question. Focus on the data in the question and recall that 40 breaths per minute is normal. Review: normal newborn vital signs .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 808). St. Louis: Elsevier. 11 / 96 A nurse calculates a newborn infant’s Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. The nurse should take which most appropriate action? A. Recheck the score in 5 minutes B. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation C. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts D. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen The Apgar score is a method of rapid evaluation of an infant’s cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse scores the infant at 1 minute and 5 minutes in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color. The infant is assigned a score of 0 to 2 in each of the five areas, and the scores are totaled. If the score ranges from 8 to 10, no action is needed other than support of the infant’s spontaneous efforts and continued observation. If the score falls between 4 and 7, the nurse gently stimulates the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. The nurse also determines whether the mother received opioids, which may have depressed the infant’s respirations. If the score is between 1 and 3, the infant needs resuscitation.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate” in the question. Focus on the Apgar score identified in the question. Recalling that the score ranges from 0 to 10 will help direct you to the correct option. Review: the significance of the Apgar score .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 360). St. Louis: Elsevier. The Apgar score is a method of rapid evaluation of an infant’s cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse scores the infant at 1 minute and 5 minutes in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color. The infant is assigned a score of 0 to 2 in each of the five areas, and the scores are totaled. If the score ranges from 8 to 10, no action is needed other than support of the infant’s spontaneous efforts and continued observation. If the score falls between 4 and 7, the nurse gently stimulates the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. The nurse also determines whether the mother received opioids, which may have depressed the infant’s respirations. If the score is between 1 and 3, the infant needs resuscitation.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate” in the question. Focus on the Apgar score identified in the question. Recalling that the score ranges from 0 to 10 will help direct you to the correct option. Review: the significance of the Apgar score .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 360). St. Louis: Elsevier. 12 / 96 A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client’s vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client’s pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats per minute. Based on this finding, which priority action should the nurse take? A. Checking the client's uterine fundus B. Notifying the nurse-midwife immediately C. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record D. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes During the fourth stage of labor, the woman’s vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, because the heart pumps faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as the blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is that the uterus is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore the nurse should check the client’s uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Notifying the nurse-midwife immediately is not necessary unless the nurse is unable to determine the cause of bleeding and is unable to correct it. Continuing to check the client’s vital signs every 15 minutes will delay necessary intervention. Although the findings will need to be documented, the priority action is to assess the client for bleeding.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the strategic word “priority” and that the pulse rate has increased and recalling the signs of bleeding and shock will help direct you to the correct option. Also note that the correct option addresses assessment of the cause for bleeding. Review: the signs of bleeding and the causes in the postpartum client .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 442). St. Louis: Elsevier. During the fourth stage of labor, the woman’s vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, because the heart pumps faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as the blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is that the uterus is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore the nurse should check the client’s uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Notifying the nurse-midwife immediately is not necessary unless the nurse is unable to determine the cause of bleeding and is unable to correct it. Continuing to check the client’s vital signs every 15 minutes will delay necessary intervention. Although the findings will need to be documented, the priority action is to assess the client for bleeding.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the strategic word “priority” and that the pulse rate has increased and recalling the signs of bleeding and shock will help direct you to the correct option. Also note that the correct option addresses assessment of the cause for bleeding. Review: the signs of bleeding and the causes in the postpartum client .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 442). St. Louis: Elsevier. 13 / 96 A postpartum nurse provides information to a new mother who is being discharged from the maternity unit about signs and symptoms that should be reported to her health care provider. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further information? A. "My temperature needs to remain within a normal range." B. "Frequent urination and burning when I urinate are expected." C. "Feelings of pelvic fullness or pelvic pressure are a sign of a problem." D. "I will call my nurse-midwife if I get any redness, swelling, or tenderness in my legs." The new mother is instructed to notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider if any of the following occurs: fever; localized areas of redness, swelling, or pain in either breast that is not relieved by support or analgesics; persistent abdominal tenderness; feelings of pelvic fullness or pressure; persistent perineal pain; frequency, urgency, or burning on urination; a change in the character of lochia (increased amount, resumption of bright-red color, passage of clots, foul odor); localized tenderness, redness, swelling, or warmth of the legs; and swelling, redness, drainage from, or separation of an abdominal incision.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further information.” These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Recalling the signs of a urinary tract infection will direct you to the correct option. Review: the postpartum signs and symptoms that should be reported.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 450). St. Louis: Elsevier. The new mother is instructed to notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider if any of the following occurs: fever; localized areas of redness, swelling, or pain in either breast that is not relieved by support or analgesics; persistent abdominal tenderness; feelings of pelvic fullness or pressure; persistent perineal pain; frequency, urgency, or burning on urination; a change in the character of lochia (increased amount, resumption of bright-red color, passage of clots, foul odor); localized tenderness, redness, swelling, or warmth of the legs; and swelling, redness, drainage from, or separation of an abdominal incision.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further information.” These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Recalling the signs of a urinary tract infection will direct you to the correct option. Review: the postpartum signs and symptoms that should be reported.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 450). St. Louis: Elsevier. 14 / 96 A woman who delivered a healthy newborn 6 hours earlier complains of discomfort at the episiotomy site. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate? A. Applying an ice pack to the perineum B. Contacting the nurse-midwife or health care provider C. Administering an intravenous (IV) opioid analgesic D. Assisting the woman in taking a warm sitz bath Ice causes vasoconstriction and is most effective if applied to the perineal area soon after birth to prevent edema and numb the area. Ice is used for the first 12 to 24 hours after a vaginal birth. Sitz baths, which provide continuous circulation of water, cleanse and comfort the traumatized perineum. Warm water is most effective after 24 hours have elapsed since delivery. An IV opioid analgesic is not necessary. Rather, an anesthetic spray that will decrease surface discomfort may be used. It is not necessary to notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate,” and focus on the woman’s complaint. Recalling that episiotomy pain is to be expected will assist in eliminating the option that involves contacting the nurse-midwife or health care provider. An IV medication is not required to relieve the discomfort, so eliminate this option. To select from the remaining options, recall the effects of heat and cold and note that the client gave birth 6 hours ago. Review: measures to relieve perineal discomfort in the postpartum period .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 436, 443-444). St. Louis: Elsevier. Ice causes vasoconstriction and is most effective if applied to the perineal area soon after birth to prevent edema and numb the area. Ice is used for the first 12 to 24 hours after a vaginal birth. Sitz baths, which provide continuous circulation of water, cleanse and comfort the traumatized perineum. Warm water is most effective after 24 hours have elapsed since delivery. An IV opioid analgesic is not necessary. Rather, an anesthetic spray that will decrease surface discomfort may be used. It is not necessary to notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate,” and focus on the woman’s complaint. Recalling that episiotomy pain is to be expected will assist in eliminating the option that involves contacting the nurse-midwife or health care provider. An IV medication is not required to relieve the discomfort, so eliminate this option. To select from the remaining options, recall the effects of heat and cold and note that the client gave birth 6 hours ago. Review: measures to relieve perineal discomfort in the postpartum period .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 436, 443-444). St. Louis: Elsevier. 15 / 96 A nurse is monitoring the amount of lochia drainage on a perineal pad in a woman who is 1 hour postpartum and notes a 5-inch (12.5 cm) bloodstain (see figure). How does the nurse report the amount of lochial flow? A. Scant B. Light C. Moderate D. Heavy 16 / 96 A nurse is taking the vital signs of a woman who delivered a healthy newborn 1 hour ago. The nurse notes that the woman’s radial pulse rate is 55 beats per minute. Based on this finding, which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Documenting the finding B. Helping the woman get out of bed and walk C. Performing active and passive range-of-motion exercises D. Reporting the finding to the nurse-midwife or health care provider immediately After delivery, bradycardia (pulse rate 50 to 70 beats per minute) may occur. The lower pulse rate reflects the large amount of blood returning to the central circulation after delivery of the placenta. The increase in central circulation results in increased stroke volume and permits a slower heart rate to provide adequate maternal circulation. It is not necessary to notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider immediately, because a pulse rate of 55 beats per minute is a normal finding. The client should remain on bed rest in the immediate postpartum period. Although range-of-motion exercises are important for the client on bed rest, this action is unrelated to the data in the question. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to document the finding.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate.” Recalling the physiological alterations that occur in the woman after delivery will direct you to the correct option. Remember that after delivery bradycardia may occur and that it is a normal finding. Review: the expected vital sign measurements in the immediate postpartum period .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 357, 440-441). St. Louis: Elsevier. After delivery, bradycardia (pulse rate 50 to 70 beats per minute) may occur. The lower pulse rate reflects the large amount of blood returning to the central circulation after delivery of the placenta. The increase in central circulation results in increased stroke volume and permits a slower heart rate to provide adequate maternal circulation. It is not necessary to notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider immediately, because a pulse rate of 55 beats per minute is a normal finding. The client should remain on bed rest in the immediate postpartum period. Although range-of-motion exercises are important for the client on bed rest, this action is unrelated to the data in the question. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to document the finding.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate.” Recalling the physiological alterations that occur in the woman after delivery will direct you to the correct option. Remember that after delivery bradycardia may occur and that it is a normal finding. Review: the expected vital sign measurements in the immediate postpartum period .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 357, 440-441). St. Louis: Elsevier. 17 / 96 Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses the woman’s uterine fundus. At what location does the nurse expect to be able to palpate the fundus? A. In the pelvic cavity B. 2 cm above the umbilicus C. At the level of the umbilicus D. Midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus Immediately after delivery, the uterus is about the size of a large grapefruit or softball. The fundus may be palpated midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus but then rises to a level just above the umbilicus and then sinks to the level of the umbilicus, where it remains for about 24 hours. After 24 hours, the fundus begins to descend by approximately 1 cm, or one finger’s breadth, per day. By the 10th to 14th day, the fundus is in the pelvic cavity and cannot be palpated abdominally.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the descent of the uterine fundus is required to answer this question. Noting the words “immediately after delivery” will help direct you to the correct option. Review: the expected findings in the immediate postpartum period related to involution .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 434, 448). St. Louis: Elsevier. Immediately after delivery, the uterus is about the size of a large grapefruit or softball. The fundus may be palpated midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus but then rises to a level just above the umbilicus and then sinks to the level of the umbilicus, where it remains for about 24 hours. After 24 hours, the fundus begins to descend by approximately 1 cm, or one finger’s breadth, per day. By the 10th to 14th day, the fundus is in the pelvic cavity and cannot be palpated abdominally.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the descent of the uterine fundus is required to answer this question. Noting the words “immediately after delivery” will help direct you to the correct option. Review: the expected findings in the immediate postpartum period related to involution .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 434, 448). St. Louis: Elsevier. 18 / 96 A nurse is monitoring a woman who is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. Which action should the nurse, on suddenly noting the presence of late decelerations on the fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor, take first? A. Stopping the oxytocin infusion B. Notifying the nurse-midwife or health care provider C. Checking the woman's blood pressure and pulse D. Increasing the intravenous (IV) rate of the nonadditive solution Oxytocin stimulates uterine smooth muscle, resulting in increased strength, duration, and frequency of uterine contractions. The nurse monitors the client who is receiving oxytocin closely and, if uterine hypertonicity or a nonreassuring FHR pattern, such as late decelerations occurs, intervenes to reduce uterine activity and increase fetal oxygenation. The nurse would first stop the oxytocin infusion. The nurse would next increase the IV rate of the nonadditive solution, place the woman in a side-lying position, and administer oxygen through a snug face mask at a rate of 8 to 10 L/min. The nurse would then notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider of the adverse reaction, the nursing interventions taken, and the response to interventions. The nurse would monitor the woman’s vital signs while she is receiving oxytocin, but this would not be the first action in this situation.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Noting that the question indicates that the client is receiving oxytocin and recalling the adverse effects of oxytocin will direct you to the correct option. Review: the adverse effects of oxytocin and the associated nursing interventions .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 417). St. Louis: Elsevier. Oxytocin stimulates uterine smooth muscle, resulting in increased strength, duration, and frequency of uterine contractions. The nurse monitors the client who is receiving oxytocin closely and, if uterine hypertonicity or a nonreassuring FHR pattern, such as late decelerations occurs, intervenes to reduce uterine activity and increase fetal oxygenation. The nurse would first stop the oxytocin infusion. The nurse would next increase the IV rate of the nonadditive solution, place the woman in a side-lying position, and administer oxygen through a snug face mask at a rate of 8 to 10 L/min. The nurse would then notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider of the adverse reaction, the nursing interventions taken, and the response to interventions. The nurse would monitor the woman’s vital signs while she is receiving oxytocin, but this would not be the first action in this situation.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Noting that the question indicates that the client is receiving oxytocin and recalling the adverse effects of oxytocin will direct you to the correct option. Review: the adverse effects of oxytocin and the associated nursing interventions .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 417). St. Louis: Elsevier. 19 / 96 A woman receives a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman? A. Pruritus B. Vomiting C. Headache D. Hypertension The adverse effects associated with a subarachnoid block include maternal hypotension, bladder distention, and postdural headache. Postdural headache occurs as a result of cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. A spinal headache is postural, worsening when the woman is upright and possibly disappearing when she is lying flat. Bed rest with oral or intravenous hydration helps relieve the headache. Nausea, vomiting, and pruritus are adverse effects associated with the use of intrathecal opioids.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the word “spinal” in the question and focusing on the subject, an adverse effect, will help direct you to the correct option. Review: the adverse effects of a subarachnoid block .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 400). St. Louis: Elsevier. The adverse effects associated with a subarachnoid block include maternal hypotension, bladder distention, and postdural headache. Postdural headache occurs as a result of cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. A spinal headache is postural, worsening when the woman is upright and possibly disappearing when she is lying flat. Bed rest with oral or intravenous hydration helps relieve the headache. Nausea, vomiting, and pruritus are adverse effects associated with the use of intrathecal opioids.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the word “spinal” in the question and focusing on the subject, an adverse effect, will help direct you to the correct option. Review: the adverse effects of a subarachnoid block .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 400). St. Louis: Elsevier. 20 / 96 A woman in labor whose cervix is not completely dilated is pushing strenuously during contractions. Which method of breathing should the nurse encourage the woman to perform to help her overcome the urge to push? A. Cleansing breaths B. Blowing repeatedly in short puffs C. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver D. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end, respectively, of each contraction If a woman pushes strenuously before the cervix is completely dilated, she risks injury to the cervix and the fetal head. Blowing prevents closure of the glottis and breath-holding, helping overcome the urge to push strenuously. The woman would be encouraged to blow repeatedly, using short puffs, when the urge to push is strong. Cleansing breaths (deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction) are encouraged during the first stage of labor to provide oxygenation and reduce myometrial hypoxia and to promote relaxation. The woman would not be encouraged to hold her breath or perform the Valsalva maneuver, which is a bearing-down maneuver.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options that are comparable or alike; cleansing breaths include deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction. Recalling that the Valsalva maneuver is a bearing-down maneuver will help you eliminate this option. Review: breathing techniques during labor .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 348, 394-395). St. Louis: Elsevier. If a woman pushes strenuously before the cervix is completely dilated, she risks injury to the cervix and the fetal head. Blowing prevents closure of the glottis and breath-holding, helping overcome the urge to push strenuously. The woman would be encouraged to blow repeatedly, using short puffs, when the urge to push is strong. Cleansing breaths (deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction) are encouraged during the first stage of labor to provide oxygenation and reduce myometrial hypoxia and to promote relaxation. The woman would not be encouraged to hold her breath or perform the Valsalva maneuver, which is a bearing-down maneuver.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options that are comparable or alike; cleansing breaths include deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction. Recalling that the Valsalva maneuver is a bearing-down maneuver will help you eliminate this option. Review: breathing techniques during labor .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 348, 394-395). St. Louis: Elsevier. 21 / 96 A nurse notes the presence of variable decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor strip and suspects cord compression. Which action should the nurse take immediately? A. Notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider B. Perform a vaginal examination on the mother C. Position the mother so that her hips are elevated D. Insert a gloved finger into the mother's vagina to feel for cord compression Conditions that restrict blood flow through the umbilical cord may result in variable decelerations. If cord compression is suspected, the mother is immediately repositioned. She may be turned to her side, or her hips may be elevated to shift the fetal presenting part toward her diaphragm. A hands-and-knees position may also reduce compression of a cord that is trapped behind the fetus. Several position changes may be required before the pattern improves or resolves. The nurse may need to contact the nurse-midwife or health care provider, but this would not be the immediate action. Although the nurse may check the woman’s vaginal area for the presence of the umbilical cord, a vaginal exam is not performed because of the possibility of further compromise of blood flow through the umbilical cord. Because of this risk, the nurse would not insert a gloved finger into the vagina to feel for the cord.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediately” in the query of the question and use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to answer the question. The only action that would provide circulation is positioning the mother so that her hips are elevated, which would relieve cord compression. Review: the immediate nursing measures when cord compression is suspected .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 378, 658-660). St. Louis: Elsevier. Conditions that restrict blood flow through the umbilical cord may result in variable decelerations. If cord compression is suspected, the mother is immediately repositioned. She may be turned to her side, or her hips may be elevated to shift the fetal presenting part toward her diaphragm. A hands-and-knees position may also reduce compression of a cord that is trapped behind the fetus. Several position changes may be required before the pattern improves or resolves. The nurse may need to contact the nurse-midwife or health care provider, but this would not be the immediate action. Although the nurse may check the woman’s vaginal area for the presence of the umbilical cord, a vaginal exam is not performed because of the possibility of further compromise of blood flow through the umbilical cord. Because of this risk, the nurse would not insert a gloved finger into the vagina to feel for the cord.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediately” in the query of the question and use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to answer the question. The only action that would provide circulation is positioning the mother so that her hips are elevated, which would relieve cord compression. Review: the immediate nursing measures when cord compression is suspected .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 378, 658-660). St. Louis: Elsevier. 22 / 96 A nurse monitoring a client in labor notes this fetal heart rate pattern (refer to figure) on the electronic fetal monitoring strip. Which is the most appropriate nursing action? A. Stop the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion B. Notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider C. Administer oxygen with a face mask at 8 to 10 L/min D. Continue to monitor the client and fetal heart rate patterns Early decelerations are not associated with fetal compromise and require no intervention. They occur during contractions as the fetal head presses against the woman’s pelvis or soft tissues, such as the cervix. Early decelerations have a gradual rather than an abrupt decrease from baseline. They have a consistent appearance in that one early deceleration looks similar to others. Early decelerations mirror the contraction, beginning near its onset and returning to the baseline by the end of the contraction, with the low point of the deceleration occurring near the contraction’s peak. The rate at the lowest point of the deceleration usually remains greater than 100 beats per minute.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate.” Knowledge regarding the appearance and significance of early decelerations is needed to answer this question. Recalling that early decelerations are not associated with fetal compromise will help you answer correctly. Review: the appearance and significance of early decelerations .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 376-377). St. Louis: Elsevier. Early decelerations are not associated with fetal compromise and require no intervention. They occur during contractions as the fetal head presses against the woman’s pelvis or soft tissues, such as the cervix. Early decelerations have a gradual rather than an abrupt decrease from baseline. They have a consistent appearance in that one early deceleration looks similar to others. Early decelerations mirror the contraction, beginning near its onset and returning to the baseline by the end of the contraction, with the low point of the deceleration occurring near the contraction’s peak. The rate at the lowest point of the deceleration usually remains greater than 100 beats per minute.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate.” Knowledge regarding the appearance and significance of early decelerations is needed to answer this question. Recalling that early decelerations are not associated with fetal compromise will help you answer correctly. Review: the appearance and significance of early decelerations .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 376-377). St. Louis: Elsevier. 23 / 96 A client in labor complains of back discomfort. Which position will best aid in relieving the discomfort? A. Prone B. Supine C. Standing D. Hands and knees “Back labor,” in which the back of the fetal head puts pressure on the woman’s sacral promontory (occiput posterior position), is common. The discomfort of back labor is difficult to relieve with medication alone. Positions that encourage the fetus to move away from the sacral promontory are the hands-and-knees position and leaning forward over a birthing ball (a sturdy ball similar to a beach ball). These positions reduce back pain and enhance the internal-rotation mechanism of labor. It would be difficult for the woman to assume a prone position. The supine position places the client at risk for supine hypotension. A standing position might increase pressure, worsening the woman’s backache.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject of the question, relieving back discomfort, and note the strategic word “best” in the query of the question. Visualizing each of the positions in the options will direct you to the correct option. Review: the measures for relieving back discomfort .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 350). St. Louis: Elsevier. “Back labor,” in which the back of the fetal head puts pressure on the woman’s sacral promontory (occiput posterior position), is common. The discomfort of back labor is difficult to relieve with medication alone. Positions that encourage the fetus to move away from the sacral promontory are the hands-and-knees position and leaning forward over a birthing ball (a sturdy ball similar to a beach ball). These positions reduce back pain and enhance the internal-rotation mechanism of labor. It would be difficult for the woman to assume a prone position. The supine position places the client at risk for supine hypotension. A standing position might increase pressure, worsening the woman’s backache.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject of the question, relieving back discomfort, and note the strategic word “best” in the query of the question. Visualizing each of the positions in the options will direct you to the correct option. Review: the measures for relieving back discomfort .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 350). St. Louis: Elsevier. 24 / 96 A nurse is caring for a pregnant client in the labor unit who suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. On inspecting the amniotic fluid, the nurse notes that it is clear, with creamy white flecks. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take based on this finding? A. Document the findings. B. Check the client's temperature. C. Report the findings to the nurse-midwife. D. Obtain a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis. Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client’s temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection. Green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the strategic words “most appropriate” indicating that a priority action is present. Noting the word “clear” in the question will help direct you to the correct option. Review: the expected findings of amniotic fluid .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 344). St. Louis: Elsevier. Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client’s temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection. Green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the strategic words “most appropriate” indicating that a priority action is present. Noting the word “clear” in the question will help direct you to the correct option. Review: the expected findings of amniotic fluid .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 344). St. Louis: Elsevier. 25 / 96 A nurse is taking the vital signs of a pregnant client who has been admitted to the labor unit. The nurse notes that the client’s temperature is 100.6° F (38.1°C), the pulse rate is 100 beats per minute, and respirations are 24 breaths per minute. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate nursing action? A. Recheck the vital signs in 1 hour B. Notify the nurse-midwife of the findings C. Continue collecting subjective and objective data D. Document the findings in the client's medical record The woman’s temperature should range from 98° F to 99.6° F (36.7°C to 37.6°C). The pulse rate should be 60 to 90 beats per minute, and respirations should be 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A temperature of 100.4° F (38°C) or higher, especially in the presence of an increased pulse rate and faster respirations, suggests infection, and the nurse-midwife or health care provider should be notified. Although the findings would be documented, the nurse would most appropriately contact the nurse-midwife or health care provider. Once the nurse has contacted the nurse-midwife or health care provider, the nurse would continue the assessment. Vital signs would be rechecked as prescribed or in accordance with agency protocol.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the strategic words “most appropriate” indicating that a priority action is present. Noting that the vital signs are elevated above normal range will help direct you to the correct option. Review: normal maternal vital signs in the intrapartum period .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 336). St. Louis: Elsevier. The woman’s temperature should range from 98° F to 99.6° F (36.7°C to 37.6°C). The pulse rate should be 60 to 90 beats per minute, and respirations should be 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A temperature of 100.4° F (38°C) or higher, especially in the presence of an increased pulse rate and faster respirations, suggests infection, and the nurse-midwife or health care provider should be notified. Although the findings would be documented, the nurse would most appropriately contact the nurse-midwife or health care provider. Once the nurse has contacted the nurse-midwife or health care provider, the nurse would continue the assessment. Vital signs would be rechecked as prescribed or in accordance with agency protocol.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the strategic words “most appropriate” indicating that a priority action is present. Noting that the vital signs are elevated above normal range will help direct you to the correct option. Review: normal maternal vital signs in the intrapartum period .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 336). St. Louis: Elsevier. 26 / 96 A nurse performs a nonstress test on a pregnant client. The nurse determines that the results are nonreactive if which finding is noted on the electronic monitoring recording strip? A. Absence of accelerations after fetal movement B. Accelerations without fetal movement with fetal heart rate (FHR) increases of 15 beats per minute for 15 seconds C. Acceleration of the FHR by 25 to 30 beats per minute for at least 15 seconds in response to fetal movement D. Two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at 15 beats per minute above baseline and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not demonstrate the required characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) recording within a 40-minute period. In a reactive (reassuring) recording, at least two fetal heart accelerations, with or without fetal movement detected by the woman, occur within a 20-minute period, peak at least 15 beats per minute above the baseline, and last 15 seconds from baseline to baseline.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the relationship between the word “nonreactive” in the question and “absence” in the correct option. Review: interpretation of the results of a nonstress test .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 309). St. Louis: Elsevier. In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not demonstrate the required characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) recording within a 40-minute period. In a reactive (reassuring) recording, at least two fetal heart accelerations, with or without fetal movement detected by the woman, occur within a 20-minute period, peak at least 15 beats per minute above the baseline, and last 15 seconds from baseline to baseline.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the relationship between the word “nonreactive” in the question and “absence” in the correct option. Review: interpretation of the results of a nonstress test .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 309). St. Louis: Elsevier. 27 / 96 An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy. The nurse tells the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is which? A. Determination of fetal lung maturity B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection C. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities D. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid The most common indications for amniocentesis in the third trimester are determination of fetal lung maturity and evaluation of the fetus’ condition when the woman has Rh isoimmunization. The most common purpose for midtrimester amniocentesis is to examine fetal cells in the amniotic fluid to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Midtrimester amniocentesis is also performed to evaluate the fetus’ condition when the woman is sensitized to Rh-positive blood, to diagnose intrauterine infection, and to investigate amniotic-fluid AFP and acetylcholinesterase when the maternal serum AFP concentration is increased.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, “most.” Also, noting the words “third trimester” in the question will help direct you to the option that addresses fetal lung maturity. Use of the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — will also direct you to the correct option. Review: the indications for performing an amniocentesis in the third trimester .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 306-308). St. Louis: Elsevier. The most common indications for amniocentesis in the third trimester are determination of fetal lung maturity and evaluation of the fetus’ condition when the woman has Rh isoimmunization. The most common purpose for midtrimester amniocentesis is to examine fetal cells in the amniotic fluid to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Midtrimester amniocentesis is also performed to evaluate the fetus’ condition when the woman is sensitized to Rh-positive blood, to diagnose intrauterine infection, and to investigate amniotic-fluid AFP and acetylcholinesterase when the maternal serum AFP concentration is increased.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, “most.” Also, noting the words “third trimester” in the question will help direct you to the option that addresses fetal lung maturity. Use of the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — will also direct you to the correct option. Review: the indications for performing an amniocentesis in the third trimester .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 306-308). St. Louis: Elsevier. 28 / 96 A pregnant client is scheduled to undergo a transabdominal ultrasound, and the nurse provides information to the client about the procedure. What should the nurse tell the client? A. The procedure takes about 2 hours B. She will be positioned on her back for the procedure C. A probe coated with gel will be inserted into the vagina D. That she may need to drink fluids before the test and may not void until the test has been completed For a transabdominal ultrasound, the woman is positioned on her back, with her head elevated, but is turned slightly to one side to prevent supine hypotension. A wedge or rolled blanket is placed under one hip to help her maintain this position comfortably. If a full bladder is necessary, the woman is instructed to drink several glasses of clear fluid 1 hour before the test and told that she should not void until the test has been completed. Warm mineral oil or transmission gel is spread over her abdomen, and the sonographer slowly moves a transducer over the abdomen to obtain a picture. The procedure takes 10 to 30 minutes. For transvaginal ultrasonography, a transvaginal probe is inserted into the vagina.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the word “transabdominal” in the question and eliminate the option that contains the words “inserted into the vagina.” Recalling that the pregnant client is at risk for supine hypotension will help you eliminate the option that involves positioning the client on her back. To select from the remaining options, visualize this procedure and eliminate the option stating that the test will take 2 hours, because this is a lengthy period. Review: the procedure for transabdominal ultrasound .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 303-304). St. Louis: Elsevier. For a transabdominal ultrasound, the woman is positioned on her back, with her head elevated, but is turned slightly to one side to prevent supine hypotension. A wedge or rolled blanket is placed under one hip to help her maintain this position comfortably. If a full bladder is necessary, the woman is instructed to drink several glasses of clear fluid 1 hour before the test and told that she should not void until the test has been completed. Warm mineral oil or transmission gel is spread over her abdomen, and the sonographer slowly moves a transducer over the abdomen to obtain a picture. The procedure takes 10 to 30 minutes. For transvaginal ultrasonography, a transvaginal probe is inserted into the vagina.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the word “transabdominal” in the question and eliminate the option that contains the words “inserted into the vagina.” Recalling that the pregnant client is at risk for supine hypotension will help you eliminate the option that involves positioning the client on her back. To select from the remaining options, visualize this procedure and eliminate the option stating that the test will take 2 hours, because this is a lengthy period. Review: the procedure for transabdominal ultrasound .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 303-304). St. Louis: Elsevier. 29 / 96 A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about nutrition and food sources that are high in folic acid. Which food item does the nurse tell the client contains the highest amount of folic acid? A. Lettuce B. Oranges C. Broccoli D. Pinto beans Foods high in folic acid include beans (black, kidney, pinto, refried), peanuts, orange juice and oranges, asparagus, peas, broccoli, lettuce, and spinach. Pinto beans contain 294 mcg per 1-cup serving. An orange contains 44 mcg per 1-cup serving, lettuce contains 60 mcg per 1-cup serving, and broccoli contains 78 mcg per 1-cup serving.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the words “highest amount” in the query of the question. These words indicate that all of the items in the options contain folic acid but also that you need to select the item that contains the greatest amount. You need to recall that beans are high in folic acid to answer correctly. Review: foods high in folic acid .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 283). St. Louis: Elsevier. Foods high in folic acid include beans (black, kidney, pinto, refried), peanuts, orange juice and oranges, asparagus, peas, broccoli, lettuce, and spinach. Pinto beans contain 294 mcg per 1-cup serving. An orange contains 44 mcg per 1-cup serving, lettuce contains 60 mcg per 1-cup serving, and broccoli contains 78 mcg per 1-cup serving.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the words “highest amount” in the query of the question. These words indicate that all of the items in the options contain folic acid but also that you need to select the item that contains the greatest amount. You need to recall that beans are high in folic acid to answer correctly. Review: foods high in folic acid .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 283). St. Louis: Elsevier. 30 / 96 A Muslim woman and her husband are seen in the health care clinic because the woman suspects that she is pregnant. When planning for the physical assessment of the woman, which should the nurse ensure? A. A female health care provider examines the woman B. The woman's husband remains in the examining room at all times C. The woman is examined without any other people in the examining room D. Written permission is obtained from the woman to obtain subjective health data Fear, modesty, and a desire to avoid examination by men may keep some women from seeking health care during pregnancy. In many cultures (e.g., Muslim, Hindu, Latino), exposure of a woman’s genitals to men is considered demeaning. Nurses must remember that the reputations of women from these cultures depend on their demonstrated modesty. It is best for a female health care provider or practitioner to perform the examination. If this is not possible, the woman should be carefully draped, with her legs completely covered. A female nurse should remain with the woman at all times. Obtaining permission from the husband may be necessary before an examination or treatment can be performed.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a Muslim client. Recalling that modesty is a cultural characteristic of a Muslim woman will direct you to the correct option. Review: these cultural characteristics .References:McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 269). St. Louis: Elsevier. Fear, modesty, and a desire to avoid examination by men may keep some women from seeking health care during pregnancy. In many cultures (e.g., Muslim, Hindu, Latino), exposure of a woman’s genitals to men is considered demeaning. Nurses must remember that the reputations of women from these cultures depend on their demonstrated modesty. It is best for a female health care provider or practitioner to perform the examination. If this is not possible, the woman should be carefully draped, with her legs completely covered. A female nurse should remain with the woman at all times. Obtaining permission from the husband may be necessary before an examination or treatment can be performed.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a Muslim client. Recalling that modesty is a cultural characteristic of a Muslim woman will direct you to the correct option. Review: these cultural characteristics .References:McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 269). St. Louis: Elsevier. 31 / 96 A pregnant client tells the nurse that she has a 2-year-old child at home and expresses concern about how the toddler will adapt to a newborn infant being brought into the home. Which statement is the most appropriate response for the nurse to make to the client? A. "Don’t be concerned; any 2-year-old would welcome a newborn." B. "If your 2-year-old becomes angry or jealous, you should have the child seen by a child psychologist." C. "A 2-year-old toddler will be more concerned about exploring the environment, so there’s no reason to be concerned." D. "Even though a 2-year-old may have little perception of time, if any changes in sleeping arrangements need to be made for the newborn they should be carried out several weeks before birth." Sibling adaptation to the birth of an infant depends largely on age and developmental level. Very young children (2 years or younger) are unaware of the maternal changes occurring during pregnancy and are unable to understand that a new brother or sister is going to be born. Even though toddlers have little perception of time, if any changes in sleeping arrangements need to be made they should be carried out several weeks before the birth of the new baby. Until a child feels secure in the affection of his or her parents, expecting a 2-year-old to welcome a new “stranger” is unrealistic. The parents can be taught to accept strong feelings such as anger, jealousy, and frustration without judgment and to continue to reinforce the child’s feelings of being loved.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, “most appropriate.” Eliminate the options that are nontherapeutic and avoid addressing the client’s concern. To select from the remaining options, recall that anger and jealousy are expected feelings in a toddler, which will assist you in eliminating this option. Review: the concepts related to sibling adaptation .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 265). St. Louis: Elsevier. Sibling adaptation to the birth of an infant depends largely on age and developmental level. Very young children (2 years or younger) are unaware of the maternal changes occurring during pregnancy and are unable to understand that a new brother or sister is going to be born. Even though toddlers have little perception of time, if any changes in sleeping arrangements need to be made they should be carried out several weeks before the birth of the new baby. Until a child feels secure in the affection of his or her parents, expecting a 2-year-old to welcome a new “stranger” is unrealistic. The parents can be taught to accept strong feelings such as anger, jealousy, and frustration without judgment and to continue to reinforce the child’s feelings of being loved.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, “most appropriate.” Eliminate the options that are nontherapeutic and avoid addressing the client’s concern. To select from the remaining options, recall that anger and jealousy are expected feelings in a toddler, which will assist you in eliminating this option. Review: the concepts related to sibling adaptation .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 265). St. Louis: Elsevier. 32 / 96 A nurse is telling a pregnant client about the signs that must be reported to the health care provider or nurse-midwife. The nurse tells the client that the health care provider or nurse-midwife should be contacted if which occurs? A. Morning sickness B. Breast tenderness C. Urinary frequency D. Puffiness of the face Danger signs in pregnancy include swelling of the fingers (rings become tight), puffiness of the face or around the eyes; vaginal bleeding, with or without discomfort; rupture of the membranes; a continuous pounding headache; visual disturbances; persistent or severe abdominal pain; chills or fever; painful urination; persistent vomiting; and a change in the frequency or strength of fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and frequent urination are common occurrences during pregnancy and do not warrant contacting the health care provider or nurse-midwife.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a sign that should be reported. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate common occurrences during pregnancy. Review: the danger signs in pregnancy .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 258). St. Louis: Elsevier. Danger signs in pregnancy include swelling of the fingers (rings become tight), puffiness of the face or around the eyes; vaginal bleeding, with or without discomfort; rupture of the membranes; a continuous pounding headache; visual disturbances; persistent or severe abdominal pain; chills or fever; painful urination; persistent vomiting; and a change in the frequency or strength of fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and frequent urination are common occurrences during pregnancy and do not warrant contacting the health care provider or nurse-midwife.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a sign that should be reported. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate common occurrences during pregnancy. Review: the danger signs in pregnancy .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 258). St. Louis: Elsevier. 33 / 96 A pregnant client asks a nurse about the use of noninvasive acupressure as a complementary alternative therapy to relieve nausea. What should the nurse tell the client? A. Complementary alternative therapies should not be used during pregnancy B. Devices that apply pressure alone are available over the counter C. The health care provider or nurse-midwife needs to provide a prescription for acupressure D. It is all right to try any type of complementary alternative therapy to relieve the nausea As a complementary alternative therapy, acupressure over the Neiguan acupuncture point (approximately three fingers’ width above the wrist crease on the inner arm) is performed with the use of electrical impulses or with a device that applies pressure alone. Devices that apply an electrical impulse over this point require a prescription from a health care provider or nurse-midwife. Devices that apply pressure alone are available over the counter. Certain types (those that are noninvasive and are not harmful) may be acceptable for use during pregnancy. Not all types of complementary alternative therapies can be used during pregnancy, because some may be harmful to the mother, fetus, or both.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the words “noninvasive acupressure” will help direct you to the correct option. Review: complementary alternative therapies to relieve nausea and those that are safe during pregnancy .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 252-253, 257). St. Louis: Elsevier. As a complementary alternative therapy, acupressure over the Neiguan acupuncture point (approximately three fingers’ width above the wrist crease on the inner arm) is performed with the use of electrical impulses or with a device that applies pressure alone. Devices that apply an electrical impulse over this point require a prescription from a health care provider or nurse-midwife. Devices that apply pressure alone are available over the counter. Certain types (those that are noninvasive and are not harmful) may be acceptable for use during pregnancy. Not all types of complementary alternative therapies can be used during pregnancy, because some may be harmful to the mother, fetus, or both.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the words “noninvasive acupressure” will help direct you to the correct option. Review: complementary alternative therapies to relieve nausea and those that are safe during pregnancy .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 252-253, 257). St. Louis: Elsevier. 34 / 96 A nurse provides information to a pregnant client with hemorrhoids about measures that will alleviate her discomfort. Which actions does the nurse tell the client to take? Select all that apply. A. Sleep lying on her back B. Shower daily but avoid sitting in a bathtub C. Apply cool compresses to the hemorrhoids D. Contact the nurse-midwife if any bleeding occurs E. Elevate her hips on a pillow when resting or during sleep To relieve the discomfort of hemorrhoids, the client should take frequent tepid baths. The client is also instructed to apply cool witch hazel compresses or anesthetic ointment to the hemorrhoids and to assume a side-lying position with the hips elevated on a pillow. The client may experience some bleeding, which is normal. However, if the bleeding persists, the health care provider or nurse-midwife should be contacted.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, alleviating the discomfort of hemorrhoids. Read each option carefully and think about the pathophysiology and the anatomical location of hemorrhoids to answer correctly. Review: the measures to relieve the discomfort of hemorrhoids .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 253-254). St. Louis: Elsevier. To relieve the discomfort of hemorrhoids, the client should take frequent tepid baths. The client is also instructed to apply cool witch hazel compresses or anesthetic ointment to the hemorrhoids and to assume a side-lying position with the hips elevated on a pillow. The client may experience some bleeding, which is normal. However, if the bleeding persists, the health care provider or nurse-midwife should be contacted.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, alleviating the discomfort of hemorrhoids. Read each option carefully and think about the pathophysiology and the anatomical location of hemorrhoids to answer correctly. Review: the measures to relieve the discomfort of hemorrhoids .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 253-254). St. Louis: Elsevier. 35 / 96 The nurse provides information to a pregnant client who is experiencing nausea and vomiting about measures to relieve the discomfort. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for further information? A. "I need to avoid eating fried or greasy foods." B. "I need to be sure to drink adequate fluids with my meals." C. "I should eat five or six small meals a day rather than three full meals." D. "I should keep dry crackers at my bedside and eat them before I get out of bed in the morning." To alleviate nausea and vomiting, the client should avoid drinking fluids with meals. The client should keep dry crackers at her bedside, avoid fried foods, and eat smaller meals. Additionally, the client should eat dry crackers every 2 hours to prevent an empty stomach and avoid spicy foods and foods with strong odors, such as onion and cabbage.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further information.” These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Use knowledge of general principles related to nutrition and the measures to alleviate nausea and vomiting to direct you to the correct option. Review: the measures that will alleviate nausea and vomiting .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 252-253). St. Louis: Elsevier. To alleviate nausea and vomiting, the client should avoid drinking fluids with meals. The client should keep dry crackers at her bedside, avoid fried foods, and eat smaller meals. Additionally, the client should eat dry crackers every 2 hours to prevent an empty stomach and avoid spicy foods and foods with strong odors, such as onion and cabbage.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further information.” These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Use knowledge of general principles related to nutrition and the measures to alleviate nausea and vomiting to direct you to the correct option. Review: the measures that will alleviate nausea and vomiting .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 252-253). St. Louis: Elsevier. 36 / 96 A multigravida pregnant woman asks the nurse when she will start to feel fetal movements. Around which week of gestation does the nurse tell the mother that fetal movements are first noticed? A. 6 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 12 weeks D. 16 weeks Fetal movements (quickening) are first noticed by the multigravida pregnant woman at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and gradually increase in frequency and strength. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding quickening is required to answer this question. In this situation it is best to select the option that identifies the longest duration of gestation. Review: the process of quickening .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 244). St. Louis: Elsevier. Fetal movements (quickening) are first noticed by the multigravida pregnant woman at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and gradually increase in frequency and strength. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding quickening is required to answer this question. In this situation it is best to select the option that identifies the longest duration of gestation. Review: the process of quickening .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 244). St. Louis: Elsevier. 37 / 96 A hepatitis B screen is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate the presence of antigens in the client’s blood. Based on this finding, what does the nurse determine? A. The results are negative B. The client needs to receive the hepatitis B series of vaccines C. The results indicate that the mother does not have hepatitis B D. Hepatitis immune globulin and vaccine will be administered to the newborn infant soon after birth A hepatitis B screen is performed to determine the presence of antigens in maternal blood. If they are present, the newborn will need to receive hepatitis immune globulin and vaccine soon after birth. Therefore, noting that the results are negative, noting that the client needs to receive the hepatitis B series of vaccines, and noting that the results indicate that the mother does not have hepatitis B are all incorrect interpretations.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that the results are negative and that the mother does not have hepatitis B. To select from the remaining options, recall the significance of antigens in maternal blood, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: the significance of the hepatitis B screen during pregnancy .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 627-628). St. Louis: Elsevier. A hepatitis B screen is performed to determine the presence of antigens in maternal blood. If they are present, the newborn will need to receive hepatitis immune globulin and vaccine soon after birth. Therefore, noting that the results are negative, noting that the client needs to receive the hepatitis B series of vaccines, and noting that the results indicate that the mother does not have hepatitis B are all incorrect interpretations.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that the results are negative and that the mother does not have hepatitis B. To select from the remaining options, recall the significance of antigens in maternal blood, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: the significance of the hepatitis B screen during pregnancy .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 627-628). St. Louis: Elsevier. 38 / 96 A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. What should the nurse tell the client? A. She has developed immunity to the rubella virus B. The test results are normal C. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy D. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life A client is not immune to rubella if the titer is 1:8 or less. If the client is not immune, retesting will be performed during the pregnancy. Additionally, rubella immunization is required after delivery if the client is not immune. Therefore telling the client that she has developed immunity to the rubella virus, telling her that she may have been exposed to rubella, and telling her that the test results are normal are all incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that the results are normal or that the woman has developed immunity. Review: this laboratory test and the result that indicates immunity to rubella .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 249). St. Louis: Elsevier. A client is not immune to rubella if the titer is 1:8 or less. If the client is not immune, retesting will be performed during the pregnancy. Additionally, rubella immunization is required after delivery if the client is not immune. Therefore telling the client that she has developed immunity to the rubella virus, telling her that she may have been exposed to rubella, and telling her that the test results are normal are all incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that the results are normal or that the woman has developed immunity. Review: this laboratory test and the result that indicates immunity to rubella .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 249). St. Louis: Elsevier. 39 / 96 A nurse is determining the estimated date of delivery for a pregnant client, using Nägele’s rule, and notes documentation that the date of the client’s last menstrual period was August 30, 2015. When does the nurse determine the estimated date of delivery to be? A. July 6, 2016 B. May 6, 2016 C. June 6, 2016 D. May 30, 2016 Nägele’s rule is often used to establish the estimated date of delivery. This method involves subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days to the date of the first day of the last normal menstrual period, then correcting the year. Subtracting 3 months from August 30, 2015, brings the date to May 30, 2015; adding 7 days brings it to June 6, 2015. Finally, the year is corrected, bringing the estimated date of delivery to June 6, 2016.Test-Taking Strategy: Recalling Nägele’s rule will assist you in answering this question. (Remember when you calculate the date for this client that there are 31 days in May.) Review: Nägele’s rule .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 247). St. Louis: Elsevier. Nägele’s rule is often used to establish the estimated date of delivery. This method involves subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days to the date of the first day of the last normal menstrual period, then correcting the year. Subtracting 3 months from August 30, 2015, brings the date to May 30, 2015; adding 7 days brings it to June 6, 2015. Finally, the year is corrected, bringing the estimated date of delivery to June 6, 2016.Test-Taking Strategy: Recalling Nägele’s rule will assist you in answering this question. (Remember when you calculate the date for this client that there are 31 days in May.) Review: Nägele’s rule .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 247). St. Louis: Elsevier. 40 / 96 A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks’ gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks’ gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), what does the nurse determine? A. Gravida 6, para 2 B. Gravida 2, para 6 C. Gravida 3, para 6 D. Gravida 3, para 6 The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). Pregnancy outcomes may also be described with the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). The GTPAL for this client would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the calculation of gravida and para is needed to answer this question. Recalling that gravida refers to the number of pregnancies and para refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery will direct you to the correct option. Review: gravida and para as a component of the obstetric history .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 246-247). St. Louis: Elsevier. The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). Pregnancy outcomes may also be described with the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). The GTPAL for this client would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the calculation of gravida and para is needed to answer this question. Recalling that gravida refers to the number of pregnancies and para refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery will direct you to the correct option. Review: gravida and para as a component of the obstetric history .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 246-247). St. Louis: Elsevier. 41 / 96 A nurse-midwife, performing a vaginal examination of a client who suspects that she is pregnant, documents the presence of the Chadwick sign. The nurse reads the client’s record and interprets this sign as indicating which? A. A thinning of the cervix B. A positive sign of pregnancy C. That cervical softening is present D. That the cervix was seen to be violet One probable sign of pregnancy is the Chadwick sign — violet coloration of the cervix, which is normally pink. The color change, which also extends into the vagina and labia, occurs because of increased vascularity of the pelvic organs. Thinning of the cervix is termed the Hegar sign, and softening of the cervix is called the Goodell sign. These are both probable signs of pregnancy.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the Chadwick sign. Recalling that the Chadwick sign is the name given to violet coloration of the cervix, which is normally pink, and that this is a probable sign of pregnancy will direct you to the correct option. Review: the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 235). St. Louis: Elsevier. One probable sign of pregnancy is the Chadwick sign — violet coloration of the cervix, which is normally pink. The color change, which also extends into the vagina and labia, occurs because of increased vascularity of the pelvic organs. Thinning of the cervix is termed the Hegar sign, and softening of the cervix is called the Goodell sign. These are both probable signs of pregnancy.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the Chadwick sign. Recalling that the Chadwick sign is the name given to violet coloration of the cervix, which is normally pink, and that this is a probable sign of pregnancy will direct you to the correct option. Review: the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 235). St. Louis: Elsevier. 42 / 96 A nurse is assessing a fetal heart rate (FHR) and notes accelerations from the baseline rate when the fetus is moving. How should the nurse interpret this finding? A. A reassuring sign B. A nonreassuring sign C. An indication of fetal distress D. An indication of the need to contact the health care provider When assessing the FHR, the nurse determines that the findings are reassuring or whether further steps should be taken to clarify data or correct problems. Reassuring signs include an average rate between 120 and 160 beats per minute at term; a regular rhythm or a rhythm with slight fluctuations; accelerations from the baseline rate, often occurring with fetal movement; and the absence of decreases from the baseline rate. A nonreassuring sign suggests fetal distress, warranting immediate intervention and indicating the need to contact the health care provider.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike, indicating a problem and the need for immediate intervention. Review: reassuring signs during monitoring of the FHR .Reference:McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 372-373). St. Louis: Elsevier. When assessing the FHR, the nurse determines that the findings are reassuring or whether further steps should be taken to clarify data or correct problems. Reassuring signs include an average rate between 120 and 160 beats per minute at term; a regular rhythm or a rhythm with slight fluctuations; accelerations from the baseline rate, often occurring with fetal movement; and the absence of decreases from the baseline rate. A nonreassuring sign suggests fetal distress, warranting immediate intervention and indicating the need to contact the health care provider.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike, indicating a problem and the need for immediate intervention. Review: reassuring signs during monitoring of the FHR .Reference:McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 372-373). St. Louis: Elsevier. 43 / 96 A nurse is assessing a fetal heart rate (FHR) and places the fetoscope on the mother’s abdomen to count the FHR. The nurse simultaneously palpates the mother’s radial pulse and notes that it is synchronized with the sounds heard through the fetoscope. Which action should the nurse take? A. Asks the mother to lie still while both the FHR and the radial pulse rate are counted. B. Move the fetoscope to another area on the mother's abdomen to locate the fetal heart. C. Count the FHR for 30 seconds and then count the radial pulse rate of the mother for 30 seconds. D. Count the FHR for 60 seconds, ensuring that it is synchronized consistently with the mother's radial pulse. When auscultating the fetal heart rate, the nurse would place the fetoscope on the maternal abdomen, over the fetal back. The nurse would then palpate the mother’s radial pulse. If her pulse is synchronized with the sounds from the fetoscope, the nurse would move the fetoscope to another area on the mother’s abdomen to locate the FHR. The nurse needs to be sure that the FHR is what is actually being heard. Other sounds that may be heard are the funic souffle (blood flowing through the umbilical cord) and the uterine souffle (blood flowing through the uterine vessels). The funic souffle is synchronized with the FHR; the uterine souffle is synchronized with the mother’s pulse.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject of the question, the FHR. Noting that the sounds heard through the fetoscope are synchronized with the mother’s radial pulse will help direct you to the correct option. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they indicate continuing with the counting of the heart rate. Review: the procedure for auscultating the FHR .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 367, 385). St. Louis: Elsevier. When auscultating the fetal heart rate, the nurse would place the fetoscope on the maternal abdomen, over the fetal back. The nurse would then palpate the mother’s radial pulse. If her pulse is synchronized with the sounds from the fetoscope, the nurse would move the fetoscope to another area on the mother’s abdomen to locate the FHR. The nurse needs to be sure that the FHR is what is actually being heard. Other sounds that may be heard are the funic souffle (blood flowing through the umbilical cord) and the uterine souffle (blood flowing through the uterine vessels). The funic souffle is synchronized with the FHR; the uterine souffle is synchronized with the mother’s pulse.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject of the question, the FHR. Noting that the sounds heard through the fetoscope are synchronized with the mother’s radial pulse will help direct you to the correct option. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they indicate continuing with the counting of the heart rate. Review: the procedure for auscultating the FHR .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 367, 385). St. Louis: Elsevier. 44 / 96 A nurse is preparing to auscultate a fetal heart rate (FHR). The nurse performs the Leopold maneuvers to determine the position of the fetus and then places the fetoscope over which area? A. Chest of the fetus B. Back of the fetus C. Carotid artery in the neck of the fetus D. Brachial area of one extremity of the fetus The nurse would use the Leopold maneuvers to identify the position of the fetus and to determine the location of the fetal back. The fetal heart rate is most easily heard through the fetal back because it usually lies closest to the surface of the maternal abdomen. Because of the position of the fetus in the maternal abdomen (fetal position), auscultation of the FHR over the chest, carotid artery, or brachial area is not possible.Test-Taking Strategy: Visualize each of the options. Recalling the position of the fetus in the maternal abdomen will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for auscultating the FHR and the Leopold maneuvers .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 251, 340, 342-343). St. Louis: Elsevier. The nurse would use the Leopold maneuvers to identify the position of the fetus and to determine the location of the fetal back. The fetal heart rate is most easily heard through the fetal back because it usually lies closest to the surface of the maternal abdomen. Because of the position of the fetus in the maternal abdomen (fetal position), auscultation of the FHR over the chest, carotid artery, or brachial area is not possible.Test-Taking Strategy: Visualize each of the options. Recalling the position of the fetus in the maternal abdomen will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for auscultating the FHR and the Leopold maneuvers .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 251, 340, 342-343). St. Louis: Elsevier. 45 / 96 A nurse auscultating the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a pregnant client in the first trimester of pregnancy notes that the FHR is 160 beats per minute. Which action should the nurse take? A. Document the findings B. Notify the health care provider of the finding C. Wait 15 minutes and then recheck the FHR D. Tell the client that the FHR is faster than normal but that it is nothing to be concerned about at this time The normal fetal heart depends on gestational age (usually higher in the first trimester) and is generally in the range of 120 to 160 beats per minute. A FHR of 160 beats per minute is within the normal range, so documentation is the only action indicated.Test-Taking Strategy: Recalling that the normal FHR is in the range of 120 to 160 beats per minute will direct you to the correct option, documenting the findings. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they indicate concern over the FHR finding. Review: the normal FHR .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 251). St. Louis: Elsevier. The normal fetal heart depends on gestational age (usually higher in the first trimester) and is generally in the range of 120 to 160 beats per minute. A FHR of 160 beats per minute is within the normal range, so documentation is the only action indicated.Test-Taking Strategy: Recalling that the normal FHR is in the range of 120 to 160 beats per minute will direct you to the correct option, documenting the findings. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they indicate concern over the FHR finding. Review: the normal FHR .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 251). St. Louis: Elsevier. 46 / 96 A nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the FHR? A. Fetoscope B. Stethoscope C. Doppler transducer D. Pulse oximetry on the client and a fetoscope Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, 14 weeks gestation. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and involve a fetoscope. To select from the remaining options, note the week of gestation of the client, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: the equipment used for auscultating fetal heart sounds .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 367). St. Louis: Elsevier. Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, 14 weeks gestation. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and involve a fetoscope. To select from the remaining options, note the week of gestation of the client, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: the equipment used for auscultating fetal heart sounds .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 367). St. Louis: Elsevier. 47 / 96 A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Which action should the nurse implement to prevent graft occlusion? A. Monitoring urine output B. Monitoring bowel sounds C. Checking pedal pulses distal to the graft site D. Limiting elevation of the head of the bed to 45 degrees To prevent graft occlusion, the nurse limits elevation of the head of the bed to 45 degrees. The nurse does assess the client for signs of graft occlusion, but assessment will not prevent occlusion. The signs of graft occlusion include changes in peripheral pulses, cool-to-cold extremities distal to the graft, white or blue extremities or flanks, severe pain, and abdominal distention. Bowel sounds and urine output are also assessed, but these parameters are unrelated to graft occlusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “prevent.” The question is asking for a nursing intervention. This will direct you to the correct option, because this is the only option that identifies a preventive action. Review nursing interventions to prevent graft occlusion after AAA resection if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 843). St. Louis: Mosby. To prevent graft occlusion, the nurse limits elevation of the head of the bed to 45 degrees. The nurse does assess the client for signs of graft occlusion, but assessment will not prevent occlusion. The signs of graft occlusion include changes in peripheral pulses, cool-to-cold extremities distal to the graft, white or blue extremities or flanks, severe pain, and abdominal distention. Bowel sounds and urine output are also assessed, but these parameters are unrelated to graft occlusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “prevent.” The question is asking for a nursing intervention. This will direct you to the correct option, because this is the only option that identifies a preventive action. Review nursing interventions to prevent graft occlusion after AAA resection if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 843). St. Louis: Mosby. 48 / 96 A nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who is undergoing peritoneal dialysis. The nurse notes that the outflow is less than the inflow on the first exchange. What should the nurse do first? A. Irrigate the catheter B. Reposition the client C. Check the system for kinks D. Hang the second exchange and continue to monitor the outflow If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse must first check the system for kinks. If there are no kinks in the system, the nurse should change the client’s position to shift abdominal fluid. The catheter should not be irrigated. Hanging the next exchange and continuing to monitor outflow will not alleviate the problem.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “first.” Also note that the subject of the question is related to inadequate outflow. Use the steps of the nursing process to answer correctly. The correct option addresses assessment. Review nursing interventions related to administering peritoneal dialysis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1118-1119). St. Louis: Mosby. If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse must first check the system for kinks. If there are no kinks in the system, the nurse should change the client’s position to shift abdominal fluid. The catheter should not be irrigated. Hanging the next exchange and continuing to monitor outflow will not alleviate the problem.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “first.” Also note that the subject of the question is related to inadequate outflow. Use the steps of the nursing process to answer correctly. The correct option addresses assessment. Review nursing interventions related to administering peritoneal dialysis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1118-1119). St. Louis: Mosby. 49 / 96 A client has an arteriovenous fistula in place for hemodialysis. What should the nurse do to assess the patency of the fistula? A. Irrigate the fistula with 3 mL of normal saline solution B. Infuse 50 mL of normal saline once per 24 hours C. Palpate for a vibrating sensation at the fistula site D. Flush the fistula with 1 mL of heparin solution once per shift An arteriovenous fistula is created in a surgical procedure in which an anastomosis is created between an artery and a vein in the arm in an end-to-side, side-to-side, side-to-end, or end-to-end fashion. In a patent fistula (or graft), a “thrill,” or vibrating sensation, should be palpable and a bruit should be audible with a stethoscope. An arteriovenous fistula is the client’s lifeline, and the nurse does not irrigate or infuse solutions into it. It is used only for hemodialysis.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, the patency of an arteriovenous fistula. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve infusing a solution into the fistula. Review care of the client with an arteriovenous fistula if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1120). St. Louis: Mosby An arteriovenous fistula is created in a surgical procedure in which an anastomosis is created between an artery and a vein in the arm in an end-to-side, side-to-side, side-to-end, or end-to-end fashion. In a patent fistula (or graft), a “thrill,” or vibrating sensation, should be palpable and a bruit should be audible with a stethoscope. An arteriovenous fistula is the client’s lifeline, and the nurse does not irrigate or infuse solutions into it. It is used only for hemodialysis.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, the patency of an arteriovenous fistula. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve infusing a solution into the fistula. Review care of the client with an arteriovenous fistula if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1120). St. Louis: Mosby 50 / 96 A hospitalized client with chronic renal failure has returned to the nursing unit after a hemodialysis treatment. Which parameters contained in the predialysis and postdialysis documentation does the nurse utilize to determine if the procedure was effective? A. Weight and BUN B. Blood pressure and weight C. Potassium and creatinine levels D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels After hemodialysis, the client’s vital signs are monitored to determine whether the client is remaining hemodynamically stable and for comparison with predialysis measurements. The client’s blood pressure and weight are expected to be reduced as a result of fluid removal. Laboratory studies are performed as per protocol but are not necessarily done after the hemodialysis treatment has ended.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, determination of the effectiveness of hemodialysis. Think about the purpose and effects of hemodialysis to answer correctly. Recalling that vital signs reflect hemodynamic stability will also direct you to the correct option. Review the parameters that reflect the effectiveness of hemodialysis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 1563). St. Louis: Saunders. After hemodialysis, the client’s vital signs are monitored to determine whether the client is remaining hemodynamically stable and for comparison with predialysis measurements. The client’s blood pressure and weight are expected to be reduced as a result of fluid removal. Laboratory studies are performed as per protocol but are not necessarily done after the hemodialysis treatment has ended.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, determination of the effectiveness of hemodialysis. Think about the purpose and effects of hemodialysis to answer correctly. Recalling that vital signs reflect hemodynamic stability will also direct you to the correct option. Review the parameters that reflect the effectiveness of hemodialysis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 1563). St. Louis: Saunders. 51 / 96 A nurse is monitoring a client after transurethral resection of the prostate for benign prostatic hypertrophy. The client has a bladder irrigation infusing, and the urine output is a light cherry color. The nurse performs a follow-up assessment 1 hour later and notes that the urine output is now bright red in color with clots and that the client’s blood pressure has dropped. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? A. Contacting the health care provider B. Continuing to monitor the client C. Increasing the flow rate of the intravenous (IV) solution D. Placing pressure on the bladder to aid expulsion of any additional clots Some hematuria is normal for several days after transurethral resection of the prostate. If bright-red bleeding occurs, the health care provider needs to be notified, particularly if the client exhibits a change in vital signs. These findings are a potential sign of excessive blood loss and the need for emergency surgical intervention. Continuing to monitor the client delays necessary interventions. The nurse would not increase the rate of flow of an IV without a health care provider’s order. Placing pressure on the bladder to aid expulsion of any additional clots is an inappropriate and unsafe action that could worsen the bleeding.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the data in the question. Recalling the normal postoperative findings after a transurethral resection and using your knowledge of concepts related to hypovolemic shock will direct you to the correct option. Noting the term “bright-red” will also help you answer correctly. Review the signs of complications after transurethral resection of the prostate if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1635-1636). St. Louis: Saunders. Some hematuria is normal for several days after transurethral resection of the prostate. If bright-red bleeding occurs, the health care provider needs to be notified, particularly if the client exhibits a change in vital signs. These findings are a potential sign of excessive blood loss and the need for emergency surgical intervention. Continuing to monitor the client delays necessary interventions. The nurse would not increase the rate of flow of an IV without a health care provider’s order. Placing pressure on the bladder to aid expulsion of any additional clots is an inappropriate and unsafe action that could worsen the bleeding.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the data in the question. Recalling the normal postoperative findings after a transurethral resection and using your knowledge of concepts related to hypovolemic shock will direct you to the correct option. Noting the term “bright-red” will also help you answer correctly. Review the signs of complications after transurethral resection of the prostate if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1635-1636). St. Louis: Saunders. 52 / 96 A nurse is monitoring a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for signs of pulmonary embolism. For which sign of DVT, the most common, does the nurse assess the client? A. Cough B. Hemoptysis C. Diaphoresis D. Pleuritic chest pain Pulmonary embolism is a life-threatening complication of thrombophlebitis or DVT. Pleuritic chest pain, the most common clinical manifestation, occurs suddenly and is worsened by breathing. Other signs and symptoms include shortness of breath and dyspnea, diaphoresis, and apprehension. Cough is also a manifestation but is not a common sign.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the signs of pulmonary embolism is needed to answer this question. Noting the strategic words “most common” will direct you to the correct option. Review the complications of DVT and the signs of pulmonary embolism if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 551-552). St. Louis: Mosby. Pulmonary embolism is a life-threatening complication of thrombophlebitis or DVT. Pleuritic chest pain, the most common clinical manifestation, occurs suddenly and is worsened by breathing. Other signs and symptoms include shortness of breath and dyspnea, diaphoresis, and apprehension. Cough is also a manifestation but is not a common sign.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the signs of pulmonary embolism is needed to answer this question. Noting the strategic words “most common” will direct you to the correct option. Review the complications of DVT and the signs of pulmonary embolism if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 551-552). St. Louis: Mosby. 53 / 96 A client who experiences frequent episodes of chest pain is admitted to the hospital for cardiac monitoring. The client suddenly complains of chest pain, and the nurse obtains a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which finding would the nurse expect to note in the event of an ischemic episode? A. Peaked T waves B. ST-segment depression C. Widened QRS complex D. An isolated premature ventricular contraction (PVC) An ECG taken in the presence of pain may reveal ischemic changes with ST-segment elevation or depression. Peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia. PVCs are caused by the firing of an irritable pacemaker in the ventricle. A widened QRS complex indicates a delay in intraventricular conduction, such as bundle branch block.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the effects of ischemia on myocardial tissue and how it is reflected on an ECG is needed to answer this question. Remember that ST-segment elevation or depression indicates myocardial ischemia. Review the effects of myocardial ischemia if you had difficulty with this question. References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 831). St. Louis: Saunders. An ECG taken in the presence of pain may reveal ischemic changes with ST-segment elevation or depression. Peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia. PVCs are caused by the firing of an irritable pacemaker in the ventricle. A widened QRS complex indicates a delay in intraventricular conduction, such as bundle branch block.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the effects of ischemia on myocardial tissue and how it is reflected on an ECG is needed to answer this question. Remember that ST-segment elevation or depression indicates myocardial ischemia. Review the effects of myocardial ischemia if you had difficulty with this question. References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 831). St. Louis: Saunders. 54 / 96 A nurse has admitted a client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB) to the nursing unit. Which finding that confirms the diagnosis does the nurse expect to see documented in the client’s record? A. Night sweats and a low-grade fever B. Positive result on an acid-fast bacillus smear C. Cough and expectoration of mucopurulent sputum D. A tuberculin skin test result that indicates 5 mm of redness A definitive diagnosis of TB is confirmed through culture and isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (acid-fast bacillus), which is the organism responsible for the disease. The initial testing involves microscopic examination of stained sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (a.k.a. the ABF test). In the tuberculin skin test, 0.1 mL of purified protein derivative (PPD) is injected intradermally on the dorsal surface of the forearm. The injection site is then assessed in 48 to 72 hours for the presence of an induration. In low-risk individuals (e.g., those who are not immunocompromised), an area of induration (not redness) measuring 10 mm or more in diameter 48 to 72 hours after injection indicates exposure to and infection with TB. Night sweats, a low-grade fever, cough, and mucopurulent sputum are clinical manifestations of TB but do not confirm the diagnosis.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Note the strategic word “confirms” in the query of the question. Remember that for an infectious disease to be confirmed, the causative organism must be identified. The correct option is the only one that involves a test to isolate the organism. If you had difficulty with this question, review the diagnostic tests related to TB.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 654). St. Louis: Saunders. A definitive diagnosis of TB is confirmed through culture and isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (acid-fast bacillus), which is the organism responsible for the disease. The initial testing involves microscopic examination of stained sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (a.k.a. the ABF test). In the tuberculin skin test, 0.1 mL of purified protein derivative (PPD) is injected intradermally on the dorsal surface of the forearm. The injection site is then assessed in 48 to 72 hours for the presence of an induration. In low-risk individuals (e.g., those who are not immunocompromised), an area of induration (not redness) measuring 10 mm or more in diameter 48 to 72 hours after injection indicates exposure to and infection with TB. Night sweats, a low-grade fever, cough, and mucopurulent sputum are clinical manifestations of TB but do not confirm the diagnosis.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Note the strategic word “confirms” in the query of the question. Remember that for an infectious disease to be confirmed, the causative organism must be identified. The correct option is the only one that involves a test to isolate the organism. If you had difficulty with this question, review the diagnostic tests related to TB.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 654). St. Louis: Saunders. 55 / 96 The wife of a client with angina pectoris calls the health care provider’s office and reports to the nurse that her husband is experiencing chest pain and has taken 2 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets 5 minutes apart, with no relief. The nurse tells the client’s wife to: A. Have her husband rest and, if no relief is obtained, call back B. Discuss the situation with the doctor, who will call her as soon as he gets into the office C. Call Emergency Medical Services to take her husband to the emergency department (ED) immediately D. Give her husband a third tablet and, if no relief is obtained, call an ambulance to have him transported to the ED Chest pain that is unrelieved by rest and nitroglycerin may be not typical anginal pain but instead a sign of myocardial infarction (MI). Because the risk of sudden cardiac death is greatest in the 24 hours after MI, it is imperative that the client receive emergency cardiac care. If the client needs to go to the ED, the nurse must instruct the client’s wife to call an ambulance to transport her husband. The client’s wife must not drive the client, because the client should not exert energy and place an increased workload on the heart and the client’s wife would not be able to provide care if an emergency arose during transport to the hospital. Telling the wife that she will have to discuss the situation with the health care provider, who will call her as soon as he gets to his office, delays necessary interventions. Having her husband rest delays necessary interventions; also, the usual procedure is to have the client take one nitroglycerin tablet and seek medical attention if the pain is unrelieved.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options that would delay necessary intervention. To select from the remaining options, recall that in such an emergency an ambulance is called for transport to the hospital. Review the interventions when an MI is suspected if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 743, 745). St. Louis: Mosby. Chest pain that is unrelieved by rest and nitroglycerin may be not typical anginal pain but instead a sign of myocardial infarction (MI). Because the risk of sudden cardiac death is greatest in the 24 hours after MI, it is imperative that the client receive emergency cardiac care. If the client needs to go to the ED, the nurse must instruct the client’s wife to call an ambulance to transport her husband. The client’s wife must not drive the client, because the client should not exert energy and place an increased workload on the heart and the client’s wife would not be able to provide care if an emergency arose during transport to the hospital. Telling the wife that she will have to discuss the situation with the health care provider, who will call her as soon as he gets to his office, delays necessary interventions. Having her husband rest delays necessary interventions; also, the usual procedure is to have the client take one nitroglycerin tablet and seek medical attention if the pain is unrelieved.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options that would delay necessary intervention. To select from the remaining options, recall that in such an emergency an ambulance is called for transport to the hospital. Review the interventions when an MI is suspected if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 743, 745). St. Louis: Mosby. 56 / 96 A cardiac monitor alarm sounds, and a nurse notes a straight line on the monitor screen. The nurse immediately: A. Calls a code B. Assesses the client C. Checks the cardiac leads and wires D. Obtains a rhythm strip from the monitor device If a monitor alarm sounds, the nurse should first assess the clinical status of the client to see whether the problem is an actual dysrhythmia or a malfunction of the monitoring system. Asystole should not be mistaken for an unattached electrocardiogram wire. If the client is alert and the client’s status is stable, the problem is likely an unattached cardiac lead or wire. Calling a code and obtaining a rhythm strip from the monitor device are unnecessary if the client’s condition is stable.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediately.” Use the steps of the nursing process, remembering that assessment is the first step. This will direct you to the correct option, the one that is client focused. Review care of the client undergoing cardiac monitoring if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 790). St. Louis: Mosby. If a monitor alarm sounds, the nurse should first assess the clinical status of the client to see whether the problem is an actual dysrhythmia or a malfunction of the monitoring system. Asystole should not be mistaken for an unattached electrocardiogram wire. If the client is alert and the client’s status is stable, the problem is likely an unattached cardiac lead or wire. Calling a code and obtaining a rhythm strip from the monitor device are unnecessary if the client’s condition is stable.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediately.” Use the steps of the nursing process, remembering that assessment is the first step. This will direct you to the correct option, the one that is client focused. Review care of the client undergoing cardiac monitoring if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 790). St. Louis: Mosby. 57 / 96 The emergency department nurse assesses a client who has a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which findings does the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply. A. Dyspnea B. Dependent edema C. Neck vein distention D. Abdominal distention E. Crackles on auscultation of the lungs Signs of left-sided heart failure result from decreased cardiac output and increased pulmonary venous congestion, and the nurse would note signs related to the respiratory system, such as cough, dyspnea, and crackles and wheezes on auscultation of the lungs. Right-sided heart failure is associated with increased systemic venous pressure and congestion, and the nurse would note signs such as neck vein distention, dependent edema, abdominal distention, and weight gain.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the subject, left-sided heart failure. Remember “left and lungs” to remind yourself that the signs would be respiratory in nature. Review the signs of left- and right-sided heart failure if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 771). St. Louis: Mosby. Signs of left-sided heart failure result from decreased cardiac output and increased pulmonary venous congestion, and the nurse would note signs related to the respiratory system, such as cough, dyspnea, and crackles and wheezes on auscultation of the lungs. Right-sided heart failure is associated with increased systemic venous pressure and congestion, and the nurse would note signs such as neck vein distention, dependent edema, abdominal distention, and weight gain.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the subject, left-sided heart failure. Remember “left and lungs” to remind yourself that the signs would be respiratory in nature. Review the signs of left- and right-sided heart failure if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 771). St. Louis: Mosby. 58 / 96 A nurse provides instructions to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about the positions that are most effective in alleviating dyspnea. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? A. “I should sit up in my recliner.” B. “I should lie on my right side in bed.” C. “I should sit on the side of my bed and lean on the overbed table.” D. “I should stand with my back and hips against the wall and my shoulders bent slightly forward.” Positions that will help the client with COPD breathe more freely include sitting up and leaning on an overbed table, sitting up and resting with the elbows on the knees, sitting up in a chair, and standing and leaning against the wall. These positions allow for the greatest expansion of the lungs and respiratory cage in all directions. Lying on the side is not effective.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Also eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they are all upright positions. Review the positions that will alleviate dyspnea in the client with COPD if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 598). St. Louis: Mosby. Positions that will help the client with COPD breathe more freely include sitting up and leaning on an overbed table, sitting up and resting with the elbows on the knees, sitting up in a chair, and standing and leaning against the wall. These positions allow for the greatest expansion of the lungs and respiratory cage in all directions. Lying on the side is not effective.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Also eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they are all upright positions. Review the positions that will alleviate dyspnea in the client with COPD if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 598). St. Louis: Mosby. 59 / 96 A ventilator’s low exhaled volume (low-pressure) alarm sounds, and the nurse rushes to the client’s room and quickly assesses the client. The client appears to be having respiratory difficulty. The nurse should first: A. Call a code B. Suction the client C. Call the anesthesiologist D. Manually ventilate the client, using a resuscitation bag Because the client is experiencing respiratory distress, the client should be manually ventilated with the use of a resuscitation bag until the problem can be determined. Mechanical ventilators have alarm systems that warn the nurse of a problem with either the client or the ventilator. Such alarms must be activated and functional at all times. The low exhaled volume alarm sounds when there is a disconnection or leak in the ventilator circuit or a leak in the client’s artificial airway cuff. A code is called when the client requires resuscitation. An anesthesiologist may be needed to insert an endotracheal tube or to assist with a code. Accumulation of secretions in the respiratory system and the need for suctioning would trigger the high-pressure alarm.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., calling a code or the anesthesiologist). From the remaining options, focusing on the words “low exhaled volume alarm” and recalling the reasons for this alarm will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client undergoing mechanical ventilation if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1625). St. Louis: Mosby Because the client is experiencing respiratory distress, the client should be manually ventilated with the use of a resuscitation bag until the problem can be determined. Mechanical ventilators have alarm systems that warn the nurse of a problem with either the client or the ventilator. Such alarms must be activated and functional at all times. The low exhaled volume alarm sounds when there is a disconnection or leak in the ventilator circuit or a leak in the client’s artificial airway cuff. A code is called when the client requires resuscitation. An anesthesiologist may be needed to insert an endotracheal tube or to assist with a code. Accumulation of secretions in the respiratory system and the need for suctioning would trigger the high-pressure alarm.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., calling a code or the anesthesiologist). From the remaining options, focusing on the words “low exhaled volume alarm” and recalling the reasons for this alarm will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client undergoing mechanical ventilation if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1625). St. Louis: Mosby 60 / 96 A client is found to have viral hepatitis, and the nurse provides home care instructions to the client. The nurse should tell the client to: A. Maintain strict bed rest B. Limit the intake of alcohol C. Take acetaminophen for discomfort D. Eat small frequent meals that are low in fat and protein and high in carbohydrates Fatigue is a normal response to hepatic cellular damage. During the acute stage, rest is an essential intervention to reduce metabolic demand on the liver and increase its blood supply, but strict bed rest is unnecessary. The client should avoid taking medications, including acetaminophen (which is hepatotoxic), unless they are prescribed by the healthcare provider. The client must avoid all alcohol consumption. The client should consume small frequent meals that are low in fat and protein and high in carbohydrates to reduce the workload of the liver.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the option of advising the client to limit alcohol intake, recalling that the nurse should advise the client to avoid alcohol intake altogether. Next eliminate the option of advising the client to maintain strict bed rest because of the word “strict.” To select from the remaining options, recall that acetaminophen is hepatotoxic, which will assist you in eliminating this option. Review client instructions for the client with viral hepatitis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1013, 1015). St. Louis: Mosby. Fatigue is a normal response to hepatic cellular damage. During the acute stage, rest is an essential intervention to reduce metabolic demand on the liver and increase its blood supply, but strict bed rest is unnecessary. The client should avoid taking medications, including acetaminophen (which is hepatotoxic), unless they are prescribed by the healthcare provider. The client must avoid all alcohol consumption. The client should consume small frequent meals that are low in fat and protein and high in carbohydrates to reduce the workload of the liver.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the option of advising the client to limit alcohol intake, recalling that the nurse should advise the client to avoid alcohol intake altogether. Next eliminate the option of advising the client to maintain strict bed rest because of the word “strict.” To select from the remaining options, recall that acetaminophen is hepatotoxic, which will assist you in eliminating this option. Review client instructions for the client with viral hepatitis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1013, 1015). St. Louis: Mosby. 61 / 96 A nurse is caring for a client in the intensive care unit (ICU) who is being mechanically ventilated. As the nurse prepares medications, the client suddenly becomes anxious and pulls out the endotracheal tube. The nurse assesses the client for spontaneous breathing and then: A. Prepares for reintubation B. Restrains the client’s wrists C. Calls the rapid response team (RRT) D. Administers an antianxiety medication to the client If unexpected extubation occurs, the nurse must first assess the client for airway patency and spontaneous breathing. The nurse remains with the client, calls for assistance, and prepares for reintubation. The rapid response team is called when there is a change in the client’s status in a hospital area outside the ICU. The nurse would not administer an antianxiety medication, because this could affect the client’s breathing. The nurse would not restrain the client, because restraints could increase the client’s anxiety.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to answer the question and note that the client extubated himself. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the complications associated with an endotracheal tube and the associated nursing interventions if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 679-680). St. Louis: Saunders.Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying If unexpected extubation occurs, the nurse must first assess the client for airway patency and spontaneous breathing. The nurse remains with the client, calls for assistance, and prepares for reintubation. The rapid response team is called when there is a change in the client’s status in a hospital area outside the ICU. The nurse would not administer an antianxiety medication, because this could affect the client’s breathing. The nurse would not restrain the client, because restraints could increase the client’s anxiety.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to answer the question and note that the client extubated himself. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the complications associated with an endotracheal tube and the associated nursing interventions if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 679-680). St. Louis: Saunders.Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying 62 / 96 The nurse teaches a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about measures to prevent reflux during sleep. The nurse determines that the client needs additional instructions if the client states: A. “I should take an antacid at bedtime.” B. “I should sleep flat on my right side.” C. “The histamine antagonist will help me.” D. “I should avoid eating in the 3 hours before bedtime.” A side-lying position with head of the bed elevated is most likely to prevent reflux while sleeping. A flat position will increase reflux. The client is instructed to avoid eating in the 3 hours before bedtime because a full stomach may also cause reflux. Antacids and histamine antagonists may be prescribed for the client.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect option. Recalling that a backward flow of gastric contents occurs in this disorder will direct you to the correct option. Review client teaching points for GERD if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 933). St. Louis: Mosby. A side-lying position with head of the bed elevated is most likely to prevent reflux while sleeping. A flat position will increase reflux. The client is instructed to avoid eating in the 3 hours before bedtime because a full stomach may also cause reflux. Antacids and histamine antagonists may be prescribed for the client.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect option. Recalling that a backward flow of gastric contents occurs in this disorder will direct you to the correct option. Review client teaching points for GERD if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 933). St. Louis: Mosby. 63 / 96 A home care nurse visits a pregnant client with a diagnosis of mild preeclampsia. During the assessment, the client tells the nurse that she has had an upset stomach and pain in the epigastric area. The nurse most appropriately: A. Contacts the client’s health care provider B. Tells the client to avoid lying flat C. Instructs the client to eat a small portion of food every 2 to 3 hours D. Administers an antacid to the client and tell her to take a dose every 6 hours Preeclampsia is dangerous to the woman and fetus because it can progress rapidly, and the earliest manifestations may go unnoticed by the woman. Some symptoms, such as epigastric pain and upset stomach, are particularly ominous because they indicate distention of the hepatic capsule and often mean that a seizure is imminent. Therefore telling the client to avoid lying flat position, instructing the client to eat a small portion of food every 2 to 3 hours, and administering an antacid and telling the client to take a dose every 6 hours are all incorrect. Additionally, the nurse would not administer an antacid to the pregnant client without a prescription to do so.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that the nurse would not administer medication to the pregnant client without a prescription to do so will assist you in eliminating the option of administering an antacid first. Although the other options may be generally helpful interventions, focus on the client’s diagnosis and recall that epigastric pain is a sign of impending seizures. Review the signs that indicate a worsening of preeclampsia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 654, 656 Preeclampsia is dangerous to the woman and fetus because it can progress rapidly, and the earliest manifestations may go unnoticed by the woman. Some symptoms, such as epigastric pain and upset stomach, are particularly ominous because they indicate distention of the hepatic capsule and often mean that a seizure is imminent. Therefore telling the client to avoid lying flat position, instructing the client to eat a small portion of food every 2 to 3 hours, and administering an antacid and telling the client to take a dose every 6 hours are all incorrect. Additionally, the nurse would not administer an antacid to the pregnant client without a prescription to do so.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that the nurse would not administer medication to the pregnant client without a prescription to do so will assist you in eliminating the option of administering an antacid first. Although the other options may be generally helpful interventions, focus on the client’s diagnosis and recall that epigastric pain is a sign of impending seizures. Review the signs that indicate a worsening of preeclampsia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 654, 656 64 / 96 An emergency department nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who will be admitted to the hospital. Into which position that will ease the abdominal pain does the nurse assist the client? A. Prone B. Supine with the legs straight C. With the knees drawn up to the chest D. Side-lying with the head of the bed flat Helping the client assume the fetal position (legs drawn up to the chest) will ease the abdominal pain of pancreatitis. Other helpful positions include sitting up, leaning forward, and flexing the legs (especially the left leg). Prone, supine with the legs straight, and side-lying with the head of the bed flat are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Focus on the client’s diagnosis and evaluate each of the options in terms of the amount of stretching or flexing of the abdominal wall that the position will cause. Also note the options that are comparable or alike in that they are flat positions. Review the positions that will ease pain in the client with acute pancreatitis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1030-1031). St. Louis: Mosby. Helping the client assume the fetal position (legs drawn up to the chest) will ease the abdominal pain of pancreatitis. Other helpful positions include sitting up, leaning forward, and flexing the legs (especially the left leg). Prone, supine with the legs straight, and side-lying with the head of the bed flat are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Focus on the client’s diagnosis and evaluate each of the options in terms of the amount of stretching or flexing of the abdominal wall that the position will cause. Also note the options that are comparable or alike in that they are flat positions. Review the positions that will ease pain in the client with acute pancreatitis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1030-1031). St. Louis: Mosby. 65 / 96 A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with a new diagnosis of Graves disease. Which intervention does the nurse include in the plan? A. Keeping the room warm B. Placing extra blankets on the client C. Providing a high-calorie, high-protein diet D. Encouraging frequent ambulation and activities Graves disease is characterized by a hypermetabolic state, and the client benefits most from an environment that is restful both physically and mentally. Therefore the client is encouraged to rest. As compensation for the hypermetabolic state, the client needs a diet that is high in calories and high in protein. Individuals with Graves disease experience heat intolerance and diaphoresis and require a cool environment.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., extra blankets and a warm room). To select from the remaining options, recall that Graves disease is characterized by a hypermetabolic state, which will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with Graves disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1199). St. Louis: Mosby. Graves disease is characterized by a hypermetabolic state, and the client benefits most from an environment that is restful both physically and mentally. Therefore the client is encouraged to rest. As compensation for the hypermetabolic state, the client needs a diet that is high in calories and high in protein. Individuals with Graves disease experience heat intolerance and diaphoresis and require a cool environment.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., extra blankets and a warm room). To select from the remaining options, recall that Graves disease is characterized by a hypermetabolic state, which will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with Graves disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1199). St. Louis: Mosby. 66 / 96 A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus who requires insulin about methods of preventing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) when the client is ill. The nurse tells the client to: A. Contact the health care provider if a fever over 102° F (38.9°C) occurs B. Refrain from eating or drinking during periods of vomiting C. Take the prescribed insulin dose even if he is unable to eat D. Contact the health care provider when the premeal blood glucose value is greater than 350 mg/dL (19.4 mmol/L) Insulin should never be independently stopped or decreased, and the client is instructed to take prescribed insulin even if he or she is vomiting or unable to eat. Acute illness may cause a counter regulatory hormone response, resulting in hyperglycemia. During times of illness, the client should monitor the blood glucose level and notify the health care provider if it exceeds 250 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L). Adequate fluids and carbohydrates are essential during illness. The client should eat 10 to 15 g of carbohydrate every 1 to 2 hours and drink a small quantity of fluid every 15 to 30 minutes to help prevent dehydration and ketoacidosis. The client should notify the health care provider of a fever over 100° F (37.8°C).Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Thinking about the pathophysiology of DKA and recalling that the client should not stop or adjust the insulin dose will direct you to the correct option. Review diabetic management during times of illness if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 1456). St. Louis: Saunders. Insulin should never be independently stopped or decreased, and the client is instructed to take prescribed insulin even if he or she is vomiting or unable to eat. Acute illness may cause a counter regulatory hormone response, resulting in hyperglycemia. During times of illness, the client should monitor the blood glucose level and notify the health care provider if it exceeds 250 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L). Adequate fluids and carbohydrates are essential during illness. The client should eat 10 to 15 g of carbohydrate every 1 to 2 hours and drink a small quantity of fluid every 15 to 30 minutes to help prevent dehydration and ketoacidosis. The client should notify the health care provider of a fever over 100° F (37.8°C).Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Thinking about the pathophysiology of DKA and recalling that the client should not stop or adjust the insulin dose will direct you to the correct option. Review diabetic management during times of illness if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 1456). St. Louis: Saunders. 67 / 96 A nurse is conducting an assessment of a client with mild preeclampsia. Which sign indicates improvement in the client’s condition? A. Complaint of headache B. Trace protein in the urine C. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 40 mg/dL (14.2 mmol/L) Preeclampsia is considered mild when the systolic blood pressure is 140 mm Hg or greater but less than 160 mm Hg and the diastolic blood pressure is 90 mm Hg or greater but less than 110 mm Hg, proteinuria is 1+ on a random dipstick, and symptoms such as headache, visual disturbances, and abdominal pain are absent. In addition, signs of kidney or liver involvement are absent. The normal BUN range is 6-20 mg/dL (2.1-7.1 mmol/L). An increased BUN level indicates kidney damage, a result of the preeclampsia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic words “improvement in the client’s condition.” Think about the manifestations of mild preeclampsia; the only option that is indicative of improvement is trace protein in the urine. Review the signs of mild and severe preeclampsia and the signs that indicate improvement if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 593-594). St. Louis: Elsevier. Preeclampsia is considered mild when the systolic blood pressure is 140 mm Hg or greater but less than 160 mm Hg and the diastolic blood pressure is 90 mm Hg or greater but less than 110 mm Hg, proteinuria is 1+ on a random dipstick, and symptoms such as headache, visual disturbances, and abdominal pain are absent. In addition, signs of kidney or liver involvement are absent. The normal BUN range is 6-20 mg/dL (2.1-7.1 mmol/L). An increased BUN level indicates kidney damage, a result of the preeclampsia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic words “improvement in the client’s condition.” Think about the manifestations of mild preeclampsia; the only option that is indicative of improvement is trace protein in the urine. Review the signs of mild and severe preeclampsia and the signs that indicate improvement if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 593-594). St. Louis: Elsevier. 68 / 96 A nurse is monitoring a client who is in the active phase of labor and has been experiencing contractions that are coordinated but weak. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client may be experiencing hypotonic contractions? A. Fetal hypoxia B. Discomfort with each contraction C. Increased frequency and longer duration of contractions D. Contractions that can be indented easily with fingertip pressure at their peak Hypotonic contractions, coordinated but too weak to be effective, usually occur during the active phase of labor, when progress normally quickens. Contractions are infrequent and brief and can easily be indented on the abdomen with fingertip pressure at their peak. These contractions cause minimal discomfort because the contractions are weak. Fetal hypoxia is not usually seen with hypotonic contractions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Note the relationship between the subject, hypotonic contractions, and the correct option. Review the characteristics of hypotonic contractions if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 773-774 Hypotonic contractions, coordinated but too weak to be effective, usually occur during the active phase of labor, when progress normally quickens. Contractions are infrequent and brief and can easily be indented on the abdomen with fingertip pressure at their peak. These contractions cause minimal discomfort because the contractions are weak. Fetal hypoxia is not usually seen with hypotonic contractions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Note the relationship between the subject, hypotonic contractions, and the correct option. Review the characteristics of hypotonic contractions if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 773-774 69 / 96 A woman in labor suddenly complains of abdominal tenderness and pain and states that she felt as though “something ripped.” For which manifestations does the nurse, suspecting uterine rupture, assess the client? Select all that apply. A. Bradypnea B. Severe chest pain C. Absence of fetal heart tones D. Increased blood pressure E. Increased frequency of uterine contractions Signs of uterine rupture vary with the degree of rupture. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain and tenderness, chest pain, hypovolemic shock, signs associated with impaired fetal oxygenation, an absence of fetal heart tones, cessation of uterine contractions, and palpation of the fetus outside the uterus if the rupture is complete. Signs of hypovolemic shock include tachycardia; tachypnea; pallor; cool, clammy skin; and anxiety.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, thinking about the manifestations that would be present in the event of uterine rupture. Knowing that bleeding would occur and recalling the signs of shock will assist you in answering correctly. Also, recalling that contractions would cease if rupture occurred will assist you in eliminating the option of increased frequency of uterine contractions. Review the manifestations associated with uterine rupture if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) p. 798 Signs of uterine rupture vary with the degree of rupture. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain and tenderness, chest pain, hypovolemic shock, signs associated with impaired fetal oxygenation, an absence of fetal heart tones, cessation of uterine contractions, and palpation of the fetus outside the uterus if the rupture is complete. Signs of hypovolemic shock include tachycardia; tachypnea; pallor; cool, clammy skin; and anxiety.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, thinking about the manifestations that would be present in the event of uterine rupture. Knowing that bleeding would occur and recalling the signs of shock will assist you in answering correctly. Also, recalling that contractions would cease if rupture occurred will assist you in eliminating the option of increased frequency of uterine contractions. Review the manifestations associated with uterine rupture if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) p. 798 70 / 96 A nurse in the labor room is performing a vaginal assessment of a pregnant client who is in active labor. The nurse notes that the umbilical cord is protruding from the vagina and immediately: A. Pushes the cord gently back into the vagina B. Prepares the client for cesarean delivery C. Places the client in the knee-chest position D. Prepares to administer a tocolytic medication When cord prolapse occurs, prompt action is taken to relieve cord compression and increase fetal oxygenation. The mother should be positioned with the hips higher than the head to shift the fetal presenting part toward the diaphragm. Such positions include knee-chest, Trendelenburg, and the hips elevated on pillows with the client in a side-lying position. The nurse should push the call light to summon help, and other staff members should call the health care provider and notify the delivery room. If the cord is protruding from the vagina, no attempt should be made to replace it, because to do so could traumatize it and further reduce blood flow. Oxygen at 8 to 10 L/min by way of facemask is administered to the mother to increase fetal oxygenation. A tocolytic medication is administered to inhibit contractions on the order of the health care provider, and the client is quickly prepared for delivery, but these are not the actions that would be taken immediately.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the words “umbilical cord is protruding from the vagina.” Eliminate first the actions that delay necessary and immediate treatment. To select from the remaining options, recall that the cord should not be pushed back into the vagina; this will direct you to the correct option. Review priority nursing interventions for a prolapsed cord if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 797-798 When cord prolapse occurs, prompt action is taken to relieve cord compression and increase fetal oxygenation. The mother should be positioned with the hips higher than the head to shift the fetal presenting part toward the diaphragm. Such positions include knee-chest, Trendelenburg, and the hips elevated on pillows with the client in a side-lying position. The nurse should push the call light to summon help, and other staff members should call the health care provider and notify the delivery room. If the cord is protruding from the vagina, no attempt should be made to replace it, because to do so could traumatize it and further reduce blood flow. Oxygen at 8 to 10 L/min by way of facemask is administered to the mother to increase fetal oxygenation. A tocolytic medication is administered to inhibit contractions on the order of the health care provider, and the client is quickly prepared for delivery, but these are not the actions that would be taken immediately.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the words “umbilical cord is protruding from the vagina.” Eliminate first the actions that delay necessary and immediate treatment. To select from the remaining options, recall that the cord should not be pushed back into the vagina; this will direct you to the correct option. Review priority nursing interventions for a prolapsed cord if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 797-798 71 / 96 A client in the third trimester of pregnancy is experiencing painless vaginal bleeding, and placenta previa is suspected. For which intervention does the nurse prepare the client? A. An ultrasound examination B. Internal fetal monitoring C. Administration of oxytocin (Pitocin) D. A manual (digital) pelvic examination A manual pelvic examination or any action that would stimulate uterine activity is contraindicated when vaginal bleeding is apparent in the third trimester until a diagnosis is made and placental previa is ruled out. Digital examination of the cervix can lead to maternal and fetal hemorrhage. A diagnosis of placental previa is made with the use of ultrasound. Electronic fetal monitoring (external) is crucial in evaluating the status of the fetus that is at risk for severe hypoxia, but internal fetal monitoring is contraindicated. Oxytocin would stimulate uterine contractions and is therefore contraindicated.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the pathophysiology of placenta previa. Use the process of elimination, noting the options that would stimulate uterine activity and would endanger the safety of the client and fetus. Review care of the client with placenta previa if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 680-681 A manual pelvic examination or any action that would stimulate uterine activity is contraindicated when vaginal bleeding is apparent in the third trimester until a diagnosis is made and placental previa is ruled out. Digital examination of the cervix can lead to maternal and fetal hemorrhage. A diagnosis of placental previa is made with the use of ultrasound. Electronic fetal monitoring (external) is crucial in evaluating the status of the fetus that is at risk for severe hypoxia, but internal fetal monitoring is contraindicated. Oxytocin would stimulate uterine contractions and is therefore contraindicated.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the pathophysiology of placenta previa. Use the process of elimination, noting the options that would stimulate uterine activity and would endanger the safety of the client and fetus. Review care of the client with placenta previa if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 680-681 72 / 96 A nurse assessing a client in the fourth stage of labor notes that the uterine fundus is firmly contracted and is midline at the level of the umbilicus. On the basis of this finding, the nurse most appropriately: A. Contacts the health care provider B. Massages the fundus C. Records the findings D. Helps the mother void In the postpartum period, the nurse assesses for uterine atony and checks the consistency and location of the uterine fundus. The uterine fundus should be firmly contracted, at or near the level of the umbilicus, and midline. Therefore the nurse would record the findings. Because the finding is normal, massaging the fundus, contacting the health care provider, and assisting the mother to void are not necessary. The nurse would massage the uterine fundus if it were soft and boggy. The health care provider would be contacted if the client were to experience excessive bleeding. A full bladder could cause a displaced fundus and one that is above the level of the umbilicus.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the data in the question. Recalling the normal location and consistency of the fundus will direct you to the correct option. Review expected postpartum findings if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 469, 474 In the postpartum period, the nurse assesses for uterine atony and checks the consistency and location of the uterine fundus. The uterine fundus should be firmly contracted, at or near the level of the umbilicus, and midline. Therefore the nurse would record the findings. Because the finding is normal, massaging the fundus, contacting the health care provider, and assisting the mother to void are not necessary. The nurse would massage the uterine fundus if it were soft and boggy. The health care provider would be contacted if the client were to experience excessive bleeding. A full bladder could cause a displaced fundus and one that is above the level of the umbilicus.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the data in the question. Recalling the normal location and consistency of the fundus will direct you to the correct option. Review expected postpartum findings if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 469, 474 73 / 96 A nurse is reading the medical record of a pregnant client in the second trimester with a diagnosis of abruptio placentae. Which clinical manifestation of the disorder does the nurse expect to see documented? A. Uterine tenderness B. Lack of uterine activity C. Painless vaginal bleeding D. Constipation In abruptio placentae, abdominal pain and uterine tenderness are present. Uterine tenderness accompanies placental abruption, especially with a central abruption in which blood becomes trapped behind the placenta. The abdomen will feel hard and boardlike on palpation because the blood penetrates the myometrium, resulting in uterine irritability. Excessive uterine activity with poor relaxation between contractions is present. Fetal monitoring often reveals increased uterine resting tone, caused by failure of the uterus to relax in an attempt to constrict blood vessels and control bleeding. Painless bright-red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester of pregnancy is a sign of placenta previa. Constipation is not associated with this disorder.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, abruptio placentae. Think about the pathophysiology of this disorder. Recalling that abdominal pain and uterine tenderness accompany abruptio placentae will direct you to the correct option. Review the signs of abruptio placentae if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 682-683 In abruptio placentae, abdominal pain and uterine tenderness are present. Uterine tenderness accompanies placental abruption, especially with a central abruption in which blood becomes trapped behind the placenta. The abdomen will feel hard and boardlike on palpation because the blood penetrates the myometrium, resulting in uterine irritability. Excessive uterine activity with poor relaxation between contractions is present. Fetal monitoring often reveals increased uterine resting tone, caused by failure of the uterus to relax in an attempt to constrict blood vessels and control bleeding. Painless bright-red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester of pregnancy is a sign of placenta previa. Constipation is not associated with this disorder.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, abruptio placentae. Think about the pathophysiology of this disorder. Recalling that abdominal pain and uterine tenderness accompany abruptio placentae will direct you to the correct option. Review the signs of abruptio placentae if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 682-683 74 / 96 Mastitis is diagnosed in a client who recently gave birth. The nurse tells the woman that: A. Wearing a bra will increase the discomfort B. Antibiotics are not usually used to treat this disorder C. Breastfeeding must be discontinued until the condition resolves D. Moist heat will increase circulation and may be used before the breasts are emptied Antibiotic therapy and continued decompression of the breasts, by means of breastfeeding or with a breast pump, is prescribed for the client with mastitis. In most cases the mother may continue to feed with both breasts. If the affected breast is too sore, the mother may pump the breast gently. Regular emptying of the breast is important in preventing abscess formation. Antibiotic therapy helps resolve mastitis within 24 to 48 hours. Additional supportive measures include moist heat or ice packs, breast support, and analgesics. Moist heat promotes comfort and increases circulation. A shower or hot packs should be used before the breasts are emptied or before feeding.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that mastitis is an infection of the breasts and remembering that breast support will alleviate discomfort will assist you in answering correctly. Also, recalling the effects of heat will direct you to the correct option. Review measures for the client with mastitis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) p. 625 Antibiotic therapy and continued decompression of the breasts, by means of breastfeeding or with a breast pump, is prescribed for the client with mastitis. In most cases the mother may continue to feed with both breasts. If the affected breast is too sore, the mother may pump the breast gently. Regular emptying of the breast is important in preventing abscess formation. Antibiotic therapy helps resolve mastitis within 24 to 48 hours. Additional supportive measures include moist heat or ice packs, breast support, and analgesics. Moist heat promotes comfort and increases circulation. A shower or hot packs should be used before the breasts are emptied or before feeding.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that mastitis is an infection of the breasts and remembering that breast support will alleviate discomfort will assist you in answering correctly. Also, recalling the effects of heat will direct you to the correct option. Review measures for the client with mastitis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) p. 625 75 / 96 A nurse in a newborn nursery receives a telephone call from the delivery room and is told that a newborn with spina bifida (meningomyelocele type) will be transported to the nursery. Which item does the nurse, preparing for the arrival of the newborn, make a priority of placing at the newborn’s bedside? A. Flashlight B. Sterile dressing C. Cardiac monitor D. Blood pressure cuff The newborn with spina bifida is at risk for infection before the closure of the gibbus. A sterile normal saline dressing is placed over the gibbus to maintain moisture of the gibbus and its contents. This prevents tearing or breakdown of the skin at the site. A flashlight may be needed to closely assess the status of the gibbus but is not a priority item. A cardiac monitor is not necessary. Blood pressure is difficult to assess during the newborn period and is not the best indicator of infection. The blood pressure cuff would not be a priority item.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge of the characteristics of spina bifida, the care involved, and the potential complications is needed to answer this question. Recalling that this newborn will have a gibbus requiring covering with sterile normal saline dressings will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the newborn with spina bifida if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1421-1423). St. Louis: Elsevier. The newborn with spina bifida is at risk for infection before the closure of the gibbus. A sterile normal saline dressing is placed over the gibbus to maintain moisture of the gibbus and its contents. This prevents tearing or breakdown of the skin at the site. A flashlight may be needed to closely assess the status of the gibbus but is not a priority item. A cardiac monitor is not necessary. Blood pressure is difficult to assess during the newborn period and is not the best indicator of infection. The blood pressure cuff would not be a priority item.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge of the characteristics of spina bifida, the care involved, and the potential complications is needed to answer this question. Recalling that this newborn will have a gibbus requiring covering with sterile normal saline dressings will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the newborn with spina bifida if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1421-1423). St. Louis: Elsevier. 76 / 96 A mother calls the clinic and tells the nurse that her newborn’s umbilical cord site looks red and swollen. The nurse should tell the mother: A. That this is a normal occurrence B. To bring the newborn to the clinic C. To increase the number of cord site cleanings each day D. To place an ice pack on the cord for 10 minutes three times a day Symptoms of cord infection include moistness, oozing, discharge, swelling, and a reddened base. If symptoms of infection occur, the newborn must be seen by the healthcare provider. Telling the mother to increase the number of times that the cord is cleansed each day or to place an ice pack on the umbilical cord site and stating that this is a normal occurrence are inappropriate nursing interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the clinical manifestations provided in the question. Noting the word “red” should direct you to the option of having the newborn be seen by the healthcare provider. Review cord care interventions if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) p. 595 Symptoms of cord infection include moistness, oozing, discharge, swelling, and a reddened base. If symptoms of infection occur, the newborn must be seen by the healthcare provider. Telling the mother to increase the number of times that the cord is cleansed each day or to place an ice pack on the umbilical cord site and stating that this is a normal occurrence are inappropriate nursing interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the clinical manifestations provided in the question. Noting the word “red” should direct you to the option of having the newborn be seen by the healthcare provider. Review cord care interventions if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) p. 595 77 / 96 A nurse provides instructions to the mother of a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia who is being breastfed. The nurse determines that the mother understands the instructions if the mother says that she will: A. Breastfeed the newborn every 2 to 3 hours B. Feed her newborn less frequently until the bilirubin level drops C. Bottle feed only D. Provide water feedings between breast feedings Breastfeeding should be initiated within 2 hours of birth and performed every 2 to 3 hours thereafter. Supplementation with water should be avoided because the newborn may take less milk, which is more effective than water in removing bilirubin from the intestines. The infant should not be fed less frequently. It is not necessary to stop breastfeeding and to bottle feed only.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option that includes the closed-ended word “only.” Because the newborn requires nutrition and feeding to speed the elimination of bilirubin, you should eliminate the option of feeding the newborn less frequently. To select from the remaining options, choose the option that indicates frequent feedings. Review home care instructions in regard to hyperbilirubinemia in the newborn if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 476). St. Louis: Elsevier. Breastfeeding should be initiated within 2 hours of birth and performed every 2 to 3 hours thereafter. Supplementation with water should be avoided because the newborn may take less milk, which is more effective than water in removing bilirubin from the intestines. The infant should not be fed less frequently. It is not necessary to stop breastfeeding and to bottle feed only.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option that includes the closed-ended word “only.” Because the newborn requires nutrition and feeding to speed the elimination of bilirubin, you should eliminate the option of feeding the newborn less frequently. To select from the remaining options, choose the option that indicates frequent feedings. Review home care instructions in regard to hyperbilirubinemia in the newborn if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 476). St. Louis: Elsevier. 78 / 96 A nurse in the newborn nursery is monitoring a neonate born to a mother with diabetes mellitus. For which finding does the nurse monitor the neonate most closely? A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperglycemia C. Hypobilirubinemia D. Respiratory distress syndrome The major neonatal complications of preexisting diabetes mellitus in the mother are hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hyperbilirubinemia, and respiratory distress syndrome. The infant of a diabetic mother is more likely to have delayed production of pulmonary surfactant, which is needed to keep the alveoli open after birth.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Focusing on the mother’s diagnosis will assist you in eliminating the incorrect options. Also, thinking about the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus and recalling that the infant is likely to have delayed production of pulmonary surfactant will direct you to the correct option. Review the effects of maternal diabetes mellitus on the fetus if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 845, 857 The major neonatal complications of preexisting diabetes mellitus in the mother are hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hyperbilirubinemia, and respiratory distress syndrome. The infant of a diabetic mother is more likely to have delayed production of pulmonary surfactant, which is needed to keep the alveoli open after birth.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Focusing on the mother’s diagnosis will assist you in eliminating the incorrect options. Also, thinking about the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus and recalling that the infant is likely to have delayed production of pulmonary surfactant will direct you to the correct option. Review the effects of maternal diabetes mellitus on the fetus if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 845, 857 79 / 96 A nurse is assessing a newborn for fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). Which finding would the nurse expect to note in the newborn? A. Greater-than-average length B. Higher-than-normal birth weight C. Short palpebral fissures and a flat midface D. Greater-than-average head circumference Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is characterized by recognizable facial anomalies, prenatal and postnatal growth restriction, and central nervous system impairment. The common facial anomalies include short palpebral fissures (the openings between the eyelids), a flat midface, an indistinct philtrum (median groove on the external surface of the upper lip), and a thin upper lip.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate options that are comparable or alike in that they are related to the size of the newborn. If you had difficulty with this question, review the characteristics of the newborn with FAS.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 870-871 Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is characterized by recognizable facial anomalies, prenatal and postnatal growth restriction, and central nervous system impairment. The common facial anomalies include short palpebral fissures (the openings between the eyelids), a flat midface, an indistinct philtrum (median groove on the external surface of the upper lip), and a thin upper lip.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate options that are comparable or alike in that they are related to the size of the newborn. If you had difficulty with this question, review the characteristics of the newborn with FAS.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 870-871 80 / 96 A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for the parents of an infant with a ventricular peritoneal shunt. Which instruction does the nurse plan to include? A. Call the health care provider if the infant is lethargic B. Expect increased urine output with the shunt. C. Call the health care provider if the anterior fontanel bulges when the infant cries. D. Position the infant on the side of the shunt for sleep. If the shunt is broken or malfunctioning, the fluid from the ventricle part of the brain will not be diverted to the peritoneal cavity. cerebrospinal fluid will build up in the cranial area. The result is intracranial pressure, which causes the infant to make a high-pitched cry or induces changes in level of consciousness, such as lethargy. The infant should not be positioned on the side of the shunt, because this will cause pressure on the shunt and skin breakdown. This type of shunt affects the gastrointestinal system, not the genitourinary system, and an increased urine output is not expected. The anterior fontanel normally bulges when the infant cries.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Remember that a change in the level of consciousness indicates increased intracranial pressure, which occurs with shunt malfunction. If you had difficulty with this question, review assessment findings and home care instructions for the parents of an infant with a ventricular peritoneal shunt.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1424-1425). St. Louis: Elsevier. If the shunt is broken or malfunctioning, the fluid from the ventricle part of the brain will not be diverted to the peritoneal cavity. cerebrospinal fluid will build up in the cranial area. The result is intracranial pressure, which causes the infant to make a high-pitched cry or induces changes in level of consciousness, such as lethargy. The infant should not be positioned on the side of the shunt, because this will cause pressure on the shunt and skin breakdown. This type of shunt affects the gastrointestinal system, not the genitourinary system, and an increased urine output is not expected. The anterior fontanel normally bulges when the infant cries.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Remember that a change in the level of consciousness indicates increased intracranial pressure, which occurs with shunt malfunction. If you had difficulty with this question, review assessment findings and home care instructions for the parents of an infant with a ventricular peritoneal shunt.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1424-1425). St. Louis: Elsevier. 81 / 96 A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for the parents of an infant with a ventricular peritoneal shunt. Which instruction does the nurse plan to include? A. Call the health care provider if the infant is lethargic B. Expect increased urine output with the shunt. C. Call the health care provider if the anterior fontanel bulges when the infant cries. D. Position the infant on the side of the shunt for sleep. If the shunt is broken or malfunctioning, the fluid from the ventricle part of the brain will not be diverted to the peritoneal cavity. cerebrospinal fluid will build up in the cranial area. The result is intracranial pressure, which causes the infant to make a high-pitched cry or induces changes in level of consciousness, such as lethargy. The infant should not be positioned on the side of the shunt, because this will cause pressure on the shunt and skin breakdown. This type of shunt affects the gastrointestinal system, not the genitourinary system, and an increased urine output is not expected. The anterior fontanel normally bulges when the infant cries.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Remember that a change in the level of consciousness indicates increased intracranial pressure, which occurs with shunt malfunction. If you had difficulty with this question, review assessment findings and home care instructions for the parents of an infant with a ventricular peritoneal shunt.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1424-1425). St. Louis: Elsevier. If the shunt is broken or malfunctioning, the fluid from the ventricle part of the brain will not be diverted to the peritoneal cavity. cerebrospinal fluid will build up in the cranial area. The result is intracranial pressure, which causes the infant to make a high-pitched cry or induces changes in level of consciousness, such as lethargy. The infant should not be positioned on the side of the shunt, because this will cause pressure on the shunt and skin breakdown. This type of shunt affects the gastrointestinal system, not the genitourinary system, and an increased urine output is not expected. The anterior fontanel normally bulges when the infant cries.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Remember that a change in the level of consciousness indicates increased intracranial pressure, which occurs with shunt malfunction. If you had difficulty with this question, review assessment findings and home care instructions for the parents of an infant with a ventricular peritoneal shunt.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1424-1425). St. Louis: Elsevier. 82 / 96 An ambulatory care nurse is providing home care instructions to the mother of a child who had a tonsillectomy. The nurse determines that the mother needs further instruction if she indicates that she will: A. Avoid giving citrus juices to her child B. Have her child use a straw to make drinking easier C. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) to her child for discomfort D. Give her child extra fluids to relieve a foul odor from the mouth Introduction of a straw, fork, or any other pointed object into the mouth could result in accidental contact with the surgical site and disrupt its integrity. Citrus fruits are avoided because they could irritate the throat. Acetaminophen is used for pain relief. A foul mouth odor is normal and can be relieved by drinking fluids.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic words “needs further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Considering the anatomical location of the surgery will direct you to the correct option. Remember, introducing a straw, fork, or any other pointed object into the mouth could result in accidental contact with the surgical site and disrupt its integrity. Review postoperative care after tonsillectomy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1158). St. Louis: Elsevier. Introduction of a straw, fork, or any other pointed object into the mouth could result in accidental contact with the surgical site and disrupt its integrity. Citrus fruits are avoided because they could irritate the throat. Acetaminophen is used for pain relief. A foul mouth odor is normal and can be relieved by drinking fluids.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic words “needs further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Considering the anatomical location of the surgery will direct you to the correct option. Remember, introducing a straw, fork, or any other pointed object into the mouth could result in accidental contact with the surgical site and disrupt its integrity. Review postoperative care after tonsillectomy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1158). St. Louis: Elsevier. 83 / 96 A nurse is assessing a child with increased intracranial pressure who has been exhibiting decorticate posturing. The nurse notes extension of the upper and lower extremities, with internal rotation of the upper arms and wrists and the knees and feet. The nurse determines that the child’s condition: A. Indicates improved neurological status B. Indicates decreased intracranial pressure C. Indicates deterioration in neurological function D. Is unchanged from the previous neurological assessment In decorticate posturing, the upper extremities are flexed and the lower extremities are extended. In decerebrate posturing, the upper and lower extremities are extended and the upper arms and wrists and the knees and feet are internally rotated. The progression from decorticate to decerebrate posturing usually indicates deteriorating neurological function and warrants health care provider notification. The remaining options are inaccurate interpretations.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate improvement in the child’s condition. Also, recalling the significance of decerebrate posturing will direct you to the correct option. If you are unfamiliar with the significance of assessment findings in the child with increased intracranial pressure, review this content.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1419-1420). St. Louis: Elsevier. In decorticate posturing, the upper extremities are flexed and the lower extremities are extended. In decerebrate posturing, the upper and lower extremities are extended and the upper arms and wrists and the knees and feet are internally rotated. The progression from decorticate to decerebrate posturing usually indicates deteriorating neurological function and warrants health care provider notification. The remaining options are inaccurate interpretations.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate improvement in the child’s condition. Also, recalling the significance of decerebrate posturing will direct you to the correct option. If you are unfamiliar with the significance of assessment findings in the child with increased intracranial pressure, review this content.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1419-1420). St. Louis: Elsevier. 84 / 96 A home care nurse has provided instructions to the father of a child with croup regarding treatment measures. Which statement by the father indicates a need for further instruction? A. “I should put a steam vaporizer in her room.” B. “I’ll take her out into the cool, humid night air.” C. “I can open the freezer door and encourage her to breathe in the cool air.” D. “I can run the hot water in my bathroom and cuddle her in the steamy room.” Steam from running water in a closed bathroom and cool mist from a bedside humidifier or a freezer are effective in reducing mucosal edema. A cool mist humidifier is recommended over a steam vaporizer, which presents a danger of scald burns. Taking the child out into the cool humid night air may also relieve mucosal swelling.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Use the process of elimination, keeping in mind that the goal is to reduce mucosal edema and to provide a safe environment. Also note that the correct option presents an unsafe situation for the child. Review home care instructions for the child with croup if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1160-1161). St. Louis: Elsevier. Steam from running water in a closed bathroom and cool mist from a bedside humidifier or a freezer are effective in reducing mucosal edema. A cool mist humidifier is recommended over a steam vaporizer, which presents a danger of scald burns. Taking the child out into the cool humid night air may also relieve mucosal swelling.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Use the process of elimination, keeping in mind that the goal is to reduce mucosal edema and to provide a safe environment. Also note that the correct option presents an unsafe situation for the child. Review home care instructions for the child with croup if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1160-1161). St. Louis: Elsevier. 85 / 96 A nurse has been assigned to care for an infant with tetralogy of Fallot. The infant suddenly exhibits rapid, deep respirations; irritability; and cyanosis. The nurse determines that the infant is experiencing a hypercyanotic episode and immediately: A. Holds the infant in an upright position B. Places the infant in the knee-chest position C. Contacts the respiratory therapy department D. Calls a code If a hypercyanotic episode occurs, the infant is calmed and placed in the knee-chest position, and the health care provider is notified. The knee-chest position is thought to increase pulmonary blood flow by increasing systemic vascular resistance. This position also improves systemic arterial oxygen saturation by decreasing venous return so that smaller amounts of highly saturated blood reach the heart. Toddlers and children squat to achieve this position and relieve chronic hypoxia. Oxygen is also administered to the infant.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “immediately” in the query of the question. Because there is no information in the question to indicate that calling a code is necessary, you may eliminate this option. To select from the remaining options, remember that a toddler or child would squat to achieve the position of relief; this will assist in directing you to the correct option. Review nursing measures for the infant experiencing a hypercyanotic episode if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1208, 1217). St. Louis: Elsevier. If a hypercyanotic episode occurs, the infant is calmed and placed in the knee-chest position, and the health care provider is notified. The knee-chest position is thought to increase pulmonary blood flow by increasing systemic vascular resistance. This position also improves systemic arterial oxygen saturation by decreasing venous return so that smaller amounts of highly saturated blood reach the heart. Toddlers and children squat to achieve this position and relieve chronic hypoxia. Oxygen is also administered to the infant.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “immediately” in the query of the question. Because there is no information in the question to indicate that calling a code is necessary, you may eliminate this option. To select from the remaining options, remember that a toddler or child would squat to achieve the position of relief; this will assist in directing you to the correct option. Review nursing measures for the infant experiencing a hypercyanotic episode if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1208, 1217). St. Louis: Elsevier. 86 / 96 A nurse is caring for a hospitalized child with a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease. During the subacute phase, the nurse monitors the child closely for: A. Bleeding B. A high fever C. Failure to thrive D. Signs of congestive heart failure (CHF) Kawasaki disease is an acute systemic vasculitis that primarily affects the cardiovascular system. The subacute phase is characterized by continued irritability, anorexia, desquamation of the fingers and toes, arthritis and arthralgia, and cardiovascular manifestations, including CHF. Nursing care is focused on observation of the child for signs of CHF. The nurse is alert for an increased respiratory rate, increased heart rate, dyspnea, congestion and crackles, and abdominal distention. Bleeding, a high fever, and failure to thrive are not directly associated with this disorder. In the subacute phase, the fever subsides.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the pathophysiology of Kawasaki disease. Recalling that Kawasaki disease primarily affects the cardiovascular system will direct you to the correct option. If you are unfamiliar with this disorder, review this content.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1231-1233). St. Louis: Elsevier. Kawasaki disease is an acute systemic vasculitis that primarily affects the cardiovascular system. The subacute phase is characterized by continued irritability, anorexia, desquamation of the fingers and toes, arthritis and arthralgia, and cardiovascular manifestations, including CHF. Nursing care is focused on observation of the child for signs of CHF. The nurse is alert for an increased respiratory rate, increased heart rate, dyspnea, congestion and crackles, and abdominal distention. Bleeding, a high fever, and failure to thrive are not directly associated with this disorder. In the subacute phase, the fever subsides.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the pathophysiology of Kawasaki disease. Recalling that Kawasaki disease primarily affects the cardiovascular system will direct you to the correct option. If you are unfamiliar with this disorder, review this content.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1231-1233). St. Louis: Elsevier. 87 / 96 A nurse is conducting the initial assessment of a child with rheumatic fever. Which question does the nurse ask the parents to elicit information specific to the development of the disease? A. “Has he had a sore throat in the last few months?” B. “Has he been excessively tired or lethargic?” C. “Has he complained of a backache recently?” D. “Has he had any loss of appetite?” Rationale: Rheumatic fever characteristically presents 2 to 6 weeks after an untreated or partially treated group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the upper respiratory tract. The nurse first determines whether the child had a sore throat or an unexplained fever within the past 2 months. Asking the parents whether the child has had any loss of appetite, complained of backache recently, or been excessively tired or lethargic will elicit information unrelated to rheumatic fever.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. It is necessary to know that a streptococcal infection of the upper respiratory tract is associated with rheumatic fever. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the origin of rheumatic fever if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1229). St. Louis: Elsevier. Rationale: Rheumatic fever characteristically presents 2 to 6 weeks after an untreated or partially treated group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the upper respiratory tract. The nurse first determines whether the child had a sore throat or an unexplained fever within the past 2 months. Asking the parents whether the child has had any loss of appetite, complained of backache recently, or been excessively tired or lethargic will elicit information unrelated to rheumatic fever.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. It is necessary to know that a streptococcal infection of the upper respiratory tract is associated with rheumatic fever. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the origin of rheumatic fever if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1229). St. Louis: Elsevier. 88 / 96 A nurse provides dietary instructions to the mother of a child with celiac disease. Which food does the nurse tell the mother to include in the child’s diet? A. Rice B. Rye crackers C. Wheat cereal D. Oatmeal biscuits Rationale: Dietary management is the mainstay of treatment in celiac disease. All wheat, rye, barley, and oats should be eliminated from the diet and replaced with corn and rice. Vitamin supplements, especially fat-soluble vitamins and folate, may be needed in the early period of treatment to correct deficiencies. Dietary restrictions are likely to be lifelong, although small amounts of grains may be tolerated after the ulcerations have healed.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and knowledge regarding the dietary management of celiac disease to answer this question. Recalling that corn and rice are substitutes for gluten-containing foods in this disease will direct you to the correct option. Review dietary management of celiac disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1103). St. Louis: Elsevier. Rationale: Dietary management is the mainstay of treatment in celiac disease. All wheat, rye, barley, and oats should be eliminated from the diet and replaced with corn and rice. Vitamin supplements, especially fat-soluble vitamins and folate, may be needed in the early period of treatment to correct deficiencies. Dietary restrictions are likely to be lifelong, although small amounts of grains may be tolerated after the ulcerations have healed.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and knowledge regarding the dietary management of celiac disease to answer this question. Recalling that corn and rice are substitutes for gluten-containing foods in this disease will direct you to the correct option. Review dietary management of celiac disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1103). St. Louis: Elsevier. 89 / 96 A nurse is obtaining subjective data from the mother of a child admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of intussusception. Which occurrence does the nurse expect the mother to report? A. Hard, pale stools B. Bloody mucus stools and diarrhea C. Projectile vomitin D. Scleral jaundice Rationale: In the child with intussusception, bloody mucus stools, commonly described as “currant jelly” stools, and diarrhea may occur. The child classically presents with severe abdominal pain that is crampy and intermittent, causing the child to draw the knees to the chest. This pain progresses to a more severe constant pain. Vomiting may be present, but it is not projectile in nature. Pale, hard stools and scleral jaundice are not manifestations of this disorder.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the child’s diagnosis. Recalling that a classic manifestation of this disorder is currant jelly stools will direct you to the correct option. Review the clinical manifestations of this disorder if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1097). St. Louis: Elsevier. Rationale: In the child with intussusception, bloody mucus stools, commonly described as “currant jelly” stools, and diarrhea may occur. The child classically presents with severe abdominal pain that is crampy and intermittent, causing the child to draw the knees to the chest. This pain progresses to a more severe constant pain. Vomiting may be present, but it is not projectile in nature. Pale, hard stools and scleral jaundice are not manifestations of this disorder.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the child’s diagnosis. Recalling that a classic manifestation of this disorder is currant jelly stools will direct you to the correct option. Review the clinical manifestations of this disorder if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1097). St. Louis: Elsevier. 90 / 96 A child with a diagnosis of pertussis (whooping cough) is being admitted to the pediatric unit. As soon as the child arrives to the unit, the nurse first: A. Weighs the child B. Takes the child’s temperature C. Attaches the child to a pulse oximeter D. Administers the prescribed antibiotic Rationale: To adequately determine whether the child is getting enough oxygen, the nurse attaches the child to a pulse oximeter. The pulse oximeter will then provide ongoing information on the child’s oxygen level. The child is also immediately attached to a cardiorespiratory monitor to provide early identification of periods of apnea and bradycardia. Next the nurse performs an assessment, including the child’s temperature and weight, and asks the parents about the child. An antibiotic may be prescribed, but the child’s airway status must be assessed first.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Focus on the child’s diagnosis and use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation). This will direct you to the correct option. Review the priority interventions in the care of a child with pertussis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1024-1025). St. Louis: Elsevier. Rationale: To adequately determine whether the child is getting enough oxygen, the nurse attaches the child to a pulse oximeter. The pulse oximeter will then provide ongoing information on the child’s oxygen level. The child is also immediately attached to a cardiorespiratory monitor to provide early identification of periods of apnea and bradycardia. Next the nurse performs an assessment, including the child’s temperature and weight, and asks the parents about the child. An antibiotic may be prescribed, but the child’s airway status must be assessed first.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Focus on the child’s diagnosis and use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation). This will direct you to the correct option. Review the priority interventions in the care of a child with pertussis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1024-1025). St. Louis: Elsevier. 91 / 96 A home care nurse is providing instructions to the mother of a 3-year-old with hemophilia regarding care of the child. Which statements by the mother indicate a need for further instructions? Select all that apply. A. “I will be so glad when my baby outgrows all of this bleeding.” B. “I need to cancel all of the dental appointments that I’ve made for him.” C. “If he gets a cut, I should hold pressure on it until the bleeding stops.” D. “I should check the house for any household items that could fall over easily.” E. “I should move furniture with sharp corners out of the way and pad the corners of the furniture.” Hemophilia is the term given to a group of bleeding disorders resulting from a deficiency of specific coagulation proteins. Identifying the specific coagulation deficiency is important because it allows definitive treatment with the specific replacement agent to be implemented; aggressive replacement therapy is initiated to prevent the chronic crippling effects of joint bleeding. The child does not outgrow the disorder, and lifetime management is needed. The nurse must stress the importance of immunizations, dental hygiene, and routine well-child care for the child with hemophilia. The remaining statements represent appropriate care measures.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further instruction” in the query of the question, which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Recalling that bleeding is a concern in this disorder and remembering that the disorder is lifelong will assist you in answering correctly. If you had difficulty with this question, review care of the child with hemophilia.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1255). St. Louis: Elsevier. Hemophilia is the term given to a group of bleeding disorders resulting from a deficiency of specific coagulation proteins. Identifying the specific coagulation deficiency is important because it allows definitive treatment with the specific replacement agent to be implemented; aggressive replacement therapy is initiated to prevent the chronic crippling effects of joint bleeding. The child does not outgrow the disorder, and lifetime management is needed. The nurse must stress the importance of immunizations, dental hygiene, and routine well-child care for the child with hemophilia. The remaining statements represent appropriate care measures.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further instruction” in the query of the question, which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Recalling that bleeding is a concern in this disorder and remembering that the disorder is lifelong will assist you in answering correctly. If you had difficulty with this question, review care of the child with hemophilia.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1255). St. Louis: Elsevier. 92 / 96 A nurse is assessing a 12-month-old child with iron-deficiency anemia. Which finding does the nurse expect to note in this child? A. Lethargy B. Hyperactivity C. Reddened cheeks D. Bradycardia Rationale: Clinical manifestations of iron-deficiency anemia vary with the degree of anemia but usually include extreme pallor with porcelainlike skin, tachycardia, lethargy, and irritability.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and think about the manifestations that would be noted in anemia. Recalling that pallor, rather than reddened skin, would most likely be noted will assist you in eliminating this option. Eliminate the option of hyperactivity because when iron deficiency occurs the child is lethargic and irritable rather than hyperactive. Next eliminate the option of bradycardia, because tachycardia would occur as the body attempted to compensate for the low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. Review the clinical manifestations of iron-deficiency anemia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1242). St. Louis: Elsevier. Rationale: Clinical manifestations of iron-deficiency anemia vary with the degree of anemia but usually include extreme pallor with porcelainlike skin, tachycardia, lethargy, and irritability.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and think about the manifestations that would be noted in anemia. Recalling that pallor, rather than reddened skin, would most likely be noted will assist you in eliminating this option. Eliminate the option of hyperactivity because when iron deficiency occurs the child is lethargic and irritable rather than hyperactive. Next eliminate the option of bradycardia, because tachycardia would occur as the body attempted to compensate for the low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. Review the clinical manifestations of iron-deficiency anemia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1242). St. Louis: Elsevier. 93 / 96 A nurse is caring for a child with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving insulin. The child suddenly exhibits tachycardia and beings to sweat and tremble, and the nurse determines that the child is experiencing a hypoglycemic reaction. The nurse would immediately give the child: A. A sugar cube B. A teaspoon of sugar C. ½ cup (118 ml) of diet cola D. ½ cup (118 ml) of fruit juice. Rationale: Hypoglycemia is immediately treated with 15 g of carbohydrate. Glucose tablets or glucose gel may be administered. Other items used to treat hypoglycemia include ½ cup (118 ml) of fruit juice, ½ cup (118 ml) of a regular (nondiet) soft drink, 8 oz (240 ml) of skim milk, 6 to 10 hard candies, 4 cubes of sugar or 4 tsp of sugar, 6 saltines, 3 graham crackers, and 1 tablespoon (15 ml) of honey or syrup. One sugar cube, a teaspoon of sugar (4 g), or ½ cup (118 ml) of diet cola would not be adequately treatment for hypoglycemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., they contain sugar). To select from the remaining options, recall that a diet cola does not contain an adequate amount of carbohydrate to treat hypoglycemia. Review the treatment for hypoglycemia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1402). St. Louis: Elsevier. Rationale: Hypoglycemia is immediately treated with 15 g of carbohydrate. Glucose tablets or glucose gel may be administered. Other items used to treat hypoglycemia include ½ cup (118 ml) of fruit juice, ½ cup (118 ml) of a regular (nondiet) soft drink, 8 oz (240 ml) of skim milk, 6 to 10 hard candies, 4 cubes of sugar or 4 tsp of sugar, 6 saltines, 3 graham crackers, and 1 tablespoon (15 ml) of honey or syrup. One sugar cube, a teaspoon of sugar (4 g), or ½ cup (118 ml) of diet cola would not be adequately treatment for hypoglycemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., they contain sugar). To select from the remaining options, recall that a diet cola does not contain an adequate amount of carbohydrate to treat hypoglycemia. Review the treatment for hypoglycemia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1402). St. Louis: Elsevier. 94 / 96 A nurse is reviewing the assessment findings and laboratory results of a child with a diagnosis of new-onset glomerulonephritis. Which finding would the nurse expect to note? A. Hypertension B. Low serum potassium C. Increased creatinine level D. Cloudy yellow urine Hypertension is a common finding in glomerulonephritis. Gross hematuria resulting in dark-brown or smoky tea-colored urine is also a classic symptom of glomerulonephritis. The blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are increased only when there is an 80% decrease in glomerular filtration rate and renal insufficiency is severe. A high potassium level results from inadequate glomerular filtration.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and your knowledge regarding the assessment findings associated with glomerulonephritis to answer this question. Recalling that the creatinine level is increased only with an 80% decrease in glomerular filtration rate will assist you in eliminating this option. Eliminate cloudy yellow urine next, knowing that this assessment finding is not normally noted in glomerulonephritis. To select from the remaining options it is necessary to know that hypertension and a high potassium level are most likely in this kidney disorder. If you had difficulty with this question, review the clinical manifestations of glomerulonephritis.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1128-1129). St. Louis: Elsevier. Hypertension is a common finding in glomerulonephritis. Gross hematuria resulting in dark-brown or smoky tea-colored urine is also a classic symptom of glomerulonephritis. The blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are increased only when there is an 80% decrease in glomerular filtration rate and renal insufficiency is severe. A high potassium level results from inadequate glomerular filtration.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and your knowledge regarding the assessment findings associated with glomerulonephritis to answer this question. Recalling that the creatinine level is increased only with an 80% decrease in glomerular filtration rate will assist you in eliminating this option. Eliminate cloudy yellow urine next, knowing that this assessment finding is not normally noted in glomerulonephritis. To select from the remaining options it is necessary to know that hypertension and a high potassium level are most likely in this kidney disorder. If you had difficulty with this question, review the clinical manifestations of glomerulonephritis.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1128-1129). St. Louis: Elsevier. 95 / 96 A client has undergone creation of an Indiana pouch for urine diversion after cystectomy, and the nurse provides instructions about reservoir catheterization. The nurse tells the client A. To plan to drain the reservoir every 2 to 3 hours initially B. That if mucus drains from the reservoir the health care provider should be contacted C. That sometimes force is needed to insert the catheter into the reservoir D. To obtain 26F catheters from the medical supply store for the irrigations An Indiana pouch is a continent internal ileal reservoir, and the nurse instructs the client in the technique of catheterization. Initially the client drains the reservoir every 2 to 3 hours. Each week thereafter, the interval is increased by 1 hour until finally catheterization is completed every 4 to 6 hours during the day. The catheter is never forced into the reservoir. If resistance is met, the client is instructed to pause and apply only gentle pressure while slightly rotating the catheter. A 16F to 20F catheter is used; 26F is too large and could damage the reservoir. Mucus is expected, and the client is instructed to irrigate the reservoir with 50 to 60 mL of normal saline solution to prevent excessive mucus buildup.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the option that includes the word “force.” Next, visualize a 26F catheter; this will assist you in eliminating this option. To select from the remaining options it is necessary to recall that mucus is an expected occurrence. Review client teaching points for catheterization of an Indiana pouch if you had difficulty with this question. References: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1094). St. Louis: Mosby.Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 877-878). St. Louis: Mosby.Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying An Indiana pouch is a continent internal ileal reservoir, and the nurse instructs the client in the technique of catheterization. Initially the client drains the reservoir every 2 to 3 hours. Each week thereafter, the interval is increased by 1 hour until finally catheterization is completed every 4 to 6 hours during the day. The catheter is never forced into the reservoir. If resistance is met, the client is instructed to pause and apply only gentle pressure while slightly rotating the catheter. A 16F to 20F catheter is used; 26F is too large and could damage the reservoir. Mucus is expected, and the client is instructed to irrigate the reservoir with 50 to 60 mL of normal saline solution to prevent excessive mucus buildup.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the option that includes the word “force.” Next, visualize a 26F catheter; this will assist you in eliminating this option. To select from the remaining options it is necessary to recall that mucus is an expected occurrence. Review client teaching points for catheterization of an Indiana pouch if you had difficulty with this question. References: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1094). St. Louis: Mosby.Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 877-878). St. Louis: Mosby.Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying 96 / 96 A nurse is weighing a breastfed 6-month-old infant who has been brought to the pediatrician’s office for a scheduled visit. The infant’s weight at birth was 6 lb 8 oz (2.9 kg). The nurse notes that the infant now weighs 13 lb (5.9 kg). Which action should the nurse take? A. Tell the mother that the infant's weight is increasing as expected B. Tell the mother to decrease the daily number of feedings because the weight gain is excessive C. Tell the mother that semisolid foods should not be introduced until the infant's weight stabilizes D. Tell the mother that the infant should be switched from breast milk to formula because the weight gain is inadequate Infants usually double their birth weight by 6 months and triple it by 1 year of age. If the infant is 6 lb 8 oz (2.9 kg), at birth, a weight of 13 lb (5.9 kg) at 6 months of age is to be expected. Semisolid foods are usually introduced between 4 and 6 months of age.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject in the question, the current weight of the infant. Recalling that infants double their weight by 6 months of age will direct you to the correct option. Review: the growth rate of an infant.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 488-489). St. Louis: Elsevier.Potter, P., Perry, A. G., Stockert, P. A., & Hall, A. M. (2013). Fundamentals of nursing. (8th ed., p. 143). St. Louis: Mosby. Infants usually double their birth weight by 6 months and triple it by 1 year of age. If the infant is 6 lb 8 oz (2.9 kg), at birth, a weight of 13 lb (5.9 kg) at 6 months of age is to be expected. Semisolid foods are usually introduced between 4 and 6 months of age.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject in the question, the current weight of the infant. Recalling that infants double their weight by 6 months of age will direct you to the correct option. Review: the growth rate of an infant.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 488-489). St. Louis: Elsevier.Potter, P., Perry, A. G., Stockert, P. A., & Hall, A. M. (2013). Fundamentals of nursing. (8th ed., p. 143). St. Louis: Mosby. Your score is 0% Please rate this Quiz Send feedback
Nclex Content Review Class One – Week Three
Week Three Assessment
Hepatitis B vaccine is for immunization against infection caused by all known subtypes of hepatitis B virus. The usual recommended schedule is to administer the vaccine at birth, at 1 month of age, and again at 6 months of age. Parental consent must be obtained before the vaccine is administered. Checking the infant’s temperature, checking for jaundice, and requesting that a hepatitis blood screen be performed on the infant are all unnecessary.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the administration of the hepatitis B vaccine to a newborn is required to answer this question. Remember, parental consent is required before the vaccine is administered. Review: the procedure for administering this vaccine to a newborn .Reference: Hockenberry, M., & Wilson, D. (2013). Wong’s Essentials of pediatric nursing (9th ed., pp. 209, 331, 636-637). St. Louis: Mosby.
To assess an infant for jaundice, pressure is applied with a finger over a bony area such as the nose, forehead, or sternum for several seconds to empty all capillaries in that spot. If jaundice is present, the blanched area will appear yellow before the capillaries refill. Jaundice is first noticeable in the head and then progresses gradually toward the abdomen and extremities because of the newborn infant’s circulatory pattern. Squeezing the infant’s nail beds and brachial area and applying pressure with a finger over the umbilical area are all incorrect methods of assessing for jaundice. Assessing for jaundice in natural light is recommended because artificial lighting and reflection from nursery walls may distort the actual skin color. Visual assessment of jaundice does not, however, provide an accurate assessment of the level of serum bilirubin.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options that contain the word “squeeze.” To select from the remaining options, recall that jaundice is first noticeable in the head; this will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for assessing for jaundice in a newborn .Reference: Hockenberry, M., & Wilson, D. (2013). Wong’s Essentials of pediatric nursing (9th ed., p. 261). St. Louis: Mosby.
Breastfed infants may pass mustard-yellow stools. Formula-fed infants excrete stools that are more solid and pale yellow to light brown. Decreasing the number of feedings might be harmful to the newborn. Because this finding is an expected occurrence in a breastfed infant, infection is not a concern.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that the infant’s stools are abnormal. Remember, breastfed infants may pass mustard-yellow stools. Review: the expected elimination patterns in a breastfed infant .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 474). St. Louis: Elsevier.
After circumcision, a yellow crust may form over the circumcision site. This crust is a normal part of healing and should not be removed. The mother should be told to expect this occurrence. Yellow crusting or discharge is not a sign of infection, and the pediatrician does not need to be notified, because the finding is to be expected.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that a complication exists. To select from the remaining options, recall the normal process of healing. This will help you answer correctly. Review: the expected findings after circumcision .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 520). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Bathing should start with the eyes and face, usually the cleanest areas. Next, the external ear and the areas behind the ears are cleansed. The infant’s neck should be washed because formula, lint, or breast milk often accumulates in the folds of the neck. The hands and arms are then washed. Next, the infant’s legs are washed, and the diaper area is washed last. The person administering the bath should keep the infant warm by uncovering only the area being washed. Cotton-tipped swabs are not used to clean the infant’s ears or nose because injury could occur if the infant were to move suddenly.Test-Taking Strategy: Remembering the basic techniques of bathing a client will assist you in answering this question. Always start with the cleanest area of the body first and proceed to the dirtiest area. Also, recalling that cotton-tipped swabs can cause injury will assist you in eliminating this option. Review: the procedure for bathing an infant .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 515, 522). St. Louis: Elsevier.
The blood glucose level for a newborn infant should remain above 40 mg/dL(2.2 mmol/L). If glucose is not constantly available to the brain, permanent damage may occur. The nurse would most appropriately contact the nurse-midwife or health care provider to obtain prescriptions regarding feeding the infant with a low blood glucose. The nurse would also follow agency policy regarding feeding infants with a low blood glucose level if such a policy exists. A common practice is to feed the infant if the glucose level is 40 mg/dL(2.2 mmol/L) or less. Holding the next scheduled feeding is harmful. Although the nurse would document the laboratory result, this is not the most appropriate initial action. Another blood sample may need to be drawn if it is prescribed, but asking the laboratory to repeat the test in 2 hours is not the appropriate action.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. Recalling the normal blood glucose level for a newborn and recalling the danger associated with a low blood glucose level will direct you to the correct option. Review: nursing interventions for maintaining a safe blood glucose level in the newborn .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 493-494). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Vitamin K is administered to the newborn infant in the hour after birth to help prevent hemorrhagic disease. The best site for intramuscular injection is the infant’s vastus lateralis muscle, although, if necessary, the rectus femoris muscle may be used. The large vastus lateralis muscle is located away from the sciatic nerve, as well as the femoral artery and vein. The rectus femoris muscle is nearer these structures, and an injection there is more hazardous. The deltoid muscle is not used to administer intramuscular injections in the newborn infant. The gluteal muscles are never used until a child has been walking for at least a year. These muscles are poorly developed and dangerously near the sciatic nerve.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, administering an intramuscular injection to a newborn. Visualizing the anatomical location of each of the muscles identified in the options will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for administering vitamin K to a newborn .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 509-510). St. Louis: Elsevier.
To elicit the Babinski reflex, the nurse strokes the lateral sole of the foot from the heel to across the base of the toes. In the expected response, the toes flare and the big toe dorsiflexes. The Babinski reflex disappears at 12 months of age. Turning to the side that is touched is the expected response when the rooting reflex is elicited. Tight curling of the fingers and forward curling of the toes is the expected response when the grasp reflex (palmar and plantar) is elicited. Extension of the extremities on the side to which the head is turned with flexion on the opposite side is the expected response when the tonic neck reflex is elicited.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the method of testing and the expected response of the Babinski reflex is needed to answer this question. Recalling that to elicit Babinski reflex the nurse would stroke the lateral sole of the foot will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for testing this reflex in an infant and the expected response .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 491). St. Louis: Elsevier.
The chest circumference of the infant is measured at the level of the nipples. It is usually 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head’s circumference. The average circumference of the chest is 30.5 to 33 cm (12 to 13 inches). (If molding of the head is present, the head and chest measurements may be equal at birth.) The other options are incorrect anatomical areas for measuring chest circumference.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, measuring chest circumference. Visualizing each of the options will help direct you to the correct one. Review: the procedure for measuring chest circumference in a newborn infant .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 489-490). St. Louis: Elsevier.
The normal respiratory rate of a newborn infant is 30 to 60 breaths per minute (average 40). The nurse would document the findings. Contacting the pediatrician, placing the infant in an oxygen tent, and wrapping an extra blanket around the infant are all unnecessary actions.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate” in the question. Knowledge regarding the normal respiratory rate in a newborn infant is needed to answer this question. Focus on the data in the question and recall that 40 breaths per minute is normal. Review: normal newborn vital signs .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 808). St. Louis: Elsevier.
The Apgar score is a method of rapid evaluation of an infant’s cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse scores the infant at 1 minute and 5 minutes in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color. The infant is assigned a score of 0 to 2 in each of the five areas, and the scores are totaled. If the score ranges from 8 to 10, no action is needed other than support of the infant’s spontaneous efforts and continued observation. If the score falls between 4 and 7, the nurse gently stimulates the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. The nurse also determines whether the mother received opioids, which may have depressed the infant’s respirations. If the score is between 1 and 3, the infant needs resuscitation.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate” in the question. Focus on the Apgar score identified in the question. Recalling that the score ranges from 0 to 10 will help direct you to the correct option. Review: the significance of the Apgar score .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 360). St. Louis: Elsevier.
During the fourth stage of labor, the woman’s vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, because the heart pumps faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as the blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is that the uterus is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore the nurse should check the client’s uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Notifying the nurse-midwife immediately is not necessary unless the nurse is unable to determine the cause of bleeding and is unable to correct it. Continuing to check the client’s vital signs every 15 minutes will delay necessary intervention. Although the findings will need to be documented, the priority action is to assess the client for bleeding.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the strategic word “priority” and that the pulse rate has increased and recalling the signs of bleeding and shock will help direct you to the correct option. Also note that the correct option addresses assessment of the cause for bleeding. Review: the signs of bleeding and the causes in the postpartum client .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 442). St. Louis: Elsevier.
The new mother is instructed to notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider if any of the following occurs: fever; localized areas of redness, swelling, or pain in either breast that is not relieved by support or analgesics; persistent abdominal tenderness; feelings of pelvic fullness or pressure; persistent perineal pain; frequency, urgency, or burning on urination; a change in the character of lochia (increased amount, resumption of bright-red color, passage of clots, foul odor); localized tenderness, redness, swelling, or warmth of the legs; and swelling, redness, drainage from, or separation of an abdominal incision.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further information.” These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Recalling the signs of a urinary tract infection will direct you to the correct option. Review: the postpartum signs and symptoms that should be reported.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 450). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Ice causes vasoconstriction and is most effective if applied to the perineal area soon after birth to prevent edema and numb the area. Ice is used for the first 12 to 24 hours after a vaginal birth. Sitz baths, which provide continuous circulation of water, cleanse and comfort the traumatized perineum. Warm water is most effective after 24 hours have elapsed since delivery. An IV opioid analgesic is not necessary. Rather, an anesthetic spray that will decrease surface discomfort may be used. It is not necessary to notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate,” and focus on the woman’s complaint. Recalling that episiotomy pain is to be expected will assist in eliminating the option that involves contacting the nurse-midwife or health care provider. An IV medication is not required to relieve the discomfort, so eliminate this option. To select from the remaining options, recall the effects of heat and cold and note that the client gave birth 6 hours ago. Review: measures to relieve perineal discomfort in the postpartum period .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 436, 443-444). St. Louis: Elsevier.
After delivery, bradycardia (pulse rate 50 to 70 beats per minute) may occur. The lower pulse rate reflects the large amount of blood returning to the central circulation after delivery of the placenta. The increase in central circulation results in increased stroke volume and permits a slower heart rate to provide adequate maternal circulation. It is not necessary to notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider immediately, because a pulse rate of 55 beats per minute is a normal finding. The client should remain on bed rest in the immediate postpartum period. Although range-of-motion exercises are important for the client on bed rest, this action is unrelated to the data in the question. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to document the finding.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate.” Recalling the physiological alterations that occur in the woman after delivery will direct you to the correct option. Remember that after delivery bradycardia may occur and that it is a normal finding. Review: the expected vital sign measurements in the immediate postpartum period .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 357, 440-441). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Immediately after delivery, the uterus is about the size of a large grapefruit or softball. The fundus may be palpated midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus but then rises to a level just above the umbilicus and then sinks to the level of the umbilicus, where it remains for about 24 hours. After 24 hours, the fundus begins to descend by approximately 1 cm, or one finger’s breadth, per day. By the 10th to 14th day, the fundus is in the pelvic cavity and cannot be palpated abdominally.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the descent of the uterine fundus is required to answer this question. Noting the words “immediately after delivery” will help direct you to the correct option. Review: the expected findings in the immediate postpartum period related to involution .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 434, 448). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Oxytocin stimulates uterine smooth muscle, resulting in increased strength, duration, and frequency of uterine contractions. The nurse monitors the client who is receiving oxytocin closely and, if uterine hypertonicity or a nonreassuring FHR pattern, such as late decelerations occurs, intervenes to reduce uterine activity and increase fetal oxygenation. The nurse would first stop the oxytocin infusion. The nurse would next increase the IV rate of the nonadditive solution, place the woman in a side-lying position, and administer oxygen through a snug face mask at a rate of 8 to 10 L/min. The nurse would then notify the nurse-midwife or health care provider of the adverse reaction, the nursing interventions taken, and the response to interventions. The nurse would monitor the woman’s vital signs while she is receiving oxytocin, but this would not be the first action in this situation.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Noting that the question indicates that the client is receiving oxytocin and recalling the adverse effects of oxytocin will direct you to the correct option. Review: the adverse effects of oxytocin and the associated nursing interventions .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 417). St. Louis: Elsevier.
The adverse effects associated with a subarachnoid block include maternal hypotension, bladder distention, and postdural headache. Postdural headache occurs as a result of cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. A spinal headache is postural, worsening when the woman is upright and possibly disappearing when she is lying flat. Bed rest with oral or intravenous hydration helps relieve the headache. Nausea, vomiting, and pruritus are adverse effects associated with the use of intrathecal opioids.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the word “spinal” in the question and focusing on the subject, an adverse effect, will help direct you to the correct option. Review: the adverse effects of a subarachnoid block .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 400). St. Louis: Elsevier.
If a woman pushes strenuously before the cervix is completely dilated, she risks injury to the cervix and the fetal head. Blowing prevents closure of the glottis and breath-holding, helping overcome the urge to push strenuously. The woman would be encouraged to blow repeatedly, using short puffs, when the urge to push is strong. Cleansing breaths (deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction) are encouraged during the first stage of labor to provide oxygenation and reduce myometrial hypoxia and to promote relaxation. The woman would not be encouraged to hold her breath or perform the Valsalva maneuver, which is a bearing-down maneuver.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options that are comparable or alike; cleansing breaths include deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction. Recalling that the Valsalva maneuver is a bearing-down maneuver will help you eliminate this option. Review: breathing techniques during labor .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 348, 394-395). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Conditions that restrict blood flow through the umbilical cord may result in variable decelerations. If cord compression is suspected, the mother is immediately repositioned. She may be turned to her side, or her hips may be elevated to shift the fetal presenting part toward her diaphragm. A hands-and-knees position may also reduce compression of a cord that is trapped behind the fetus. Several position changes may be required before the pattern improves or resolves. The nurse may need to contact the nurse-midwife or health care provider, but this would not be the immediate action. Although the nurse may check the woman’s vaginal area for the presence of the umbilical cord, a vaginal exam is not performed because of the possibility of further compromise of blood flow through the umbilical cord. Because of this risk, the nurse would not insert a gloved finger into the vagina to feel for the cord.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediately” in the query of the question and use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to answer the question. The only action that would provide circulation is positioning the mother so that her hips are elevated, which would relieve cord compression. Review: the immediate nursing measures when cord compression is suspected .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 378, 658-660). St. Louis: Elsevier.
A nurse monitoring a client in labor notes this fetal heart rate pattern (refer to figure) on the electronic fetal monitoring strip. Which is the most appropriate nursing action?
Early decelerations are not associated with fetal compromise and require no intervention. They occur during contractions as the fetal head presses against the woman’s pelvis or soft tissues, such as the cervix. Early decelerations have a gradual rather than an abrupt decrease from baseline. They have a consistent appearance in that one early deceleration looks similar to others. Early decelerations mirror the contraction, beginning near its onset and returning to the baseline by the end of the contraction, with the low point of the deceleration occurring near the contraction’s peak. The rate at the lowest point of the deceleration usually remains greater than 100 beats per minute.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “most appropriate.” Knowledge regarding the appearance and significance of early decelerations is needed to answer this question. Recalling that early decelerations are not associated with fetal compromise will help you answer correctly. Review: the appearance and significance of early decelerations .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 376-377). St. Louis: Elsevier.
“Back labor,” in which the back of the fetal head puts pressure on the woman’s sacral promontory (occiput posterior position), is common. The discomfort of back labor is difficult to relieve with medication alone. Positions that encourage the fetus to move away from the sacral promontory are the hands-and-knees position and leaning forward over a birthing ball (a sturdy ball similar to a beach ball). These positions reduce back pain and enhance the internal-rotation mechanism of labor. It would be difficult for the woman to assume a prone position. The supine position places the client at risk for supine hypotension. A standing position might increase pressure, worsening the woman’s backache.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject of the question, relieving back discomfort, and note the strategic word “best” in the query of the question. Visualizing each of the positions in the options will direct you to the correct option. Review: the measures for relieving back discomfort .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 350). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client’s temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection. Green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the strategic words “most appropriate” indicating that a priority action is present. Noting the word “clear” in the question will help direct you to the correct option. Review: the expected findings of amniotic fluid .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 344). St. Louis: Elsevier.
The woman’s temperature should range from 98° F to 99.6° F (36.7°C to 37.6°C). The pulse rate should be 60 to 90 beats per minute, and respirations should be 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A temperature of 100.4° F (38°C) or higher, especially in the presence of an increased pulse rate and faster respirations, suggests infection, and the nurse-midwife or health care provider should be notified. Although the findings would be documented, the nurse would most appropriately contact the nurse-midwife or health care provider. Once the nurse has contacted the nurse-midwife or health care provider, the nurse would continue the assessment. Vital signs would be rechecked as prescribed or in accordance with agency protocol.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the strategic words “most appropriate” indicating that a priority action is present. Noting that the vital signs are elevated above normal range will help direct you to the correct option. Review: normal maternal vital signs in the intrapartum period .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 336). St. Louis: Elsevier.
In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not demonstrate the required characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) recording within a 40-minute period. In a reactive (reassuring) recording, at least two fetal heart accelerations, with or without fetal movement detected by the woman, occur within a 20-minute period, peak at least 15 beats per minute above the baseline, and last 15 seconds from baseline to baseline.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the relationship between the word “nonreactive” in the question and “absence” in the correct option. Review: interpretation of the results of a nonstress test .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 309). St. Louis: Elsevier.
The most common indications for amniocentesis in the third trimester are determination of fetal lung maturity and evaluation of the fetus’ condition when the woman has Rh isoimmunization. The most common purpose for midtrimester amniocentesis is to examine fetal cells in the amniotic fluid to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Midtrimester amniocentesis is also performed to evaluate the fetus’ condition when the woman is sensitized to Rh-positive blood, to diagnose intrauterine infection, and to investigate amniotic-fluid AFP and acetylcholinesterase when the maternal serum AFP concentration is increased.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, “most.” Also, noting the words “third trimester” in the question will help direct you to the option that addresses fetal lung maturity. Use of the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — will also direct you to the correct option. Review: the indications for performing an amniocentesis in the third trimester .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 306-308). St. Louis: Elsevier.
For a transabdominal ultrasound, the woman is positioned on her back, with her head elevated, but is turned slightly to one side to prevent supine hypotension. A wedge or rolled blanket is placed under one hip to help her maintain this position comfortably. If a full bladder is necessary, the woman is instructed to drink several glasses of clear fluid 1 hour before the test and told that she should not void until the test has been completed. Warm mineral oil or transmission gel is spread over her abdomen, and the sonographer slowly moves a transducer over the abdomen to obtain a picture. The procedure takes 10 to 30 minutes. For transvaginal ultrasonography, a transvaginal probe is inserted into the vagina.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the word “transabdominal” in the question and eliminate the option that contains the words “inserted into the vagina.” Recalling that the pregnant client is at risk for supine hypotension will help you eliminate the option that involves positioning the client on her back. To select from the remaining options, visualize this procedure and eliminate the option stating that the test will take 2 hours, because this is a lengthy period. Review: the procedure for transabdominal ultrasound .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 303-304). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Foods high in folic acid include beans (black, kidney, pinto, refried), peanuts, orange juice and oranges, asparagus, peas, broccoli, lettuce, and spinach. Pinto beans contain 294 mcg per 1-cup serving. An orange contains 44 mcg per 1-cup serving, lettuce contains 60 mcg per 1-cup serving, and broccoli contains 78 mcg per 1-cup serving.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the words “highest amount” in the query of the question. These words indicate that all of the items in the options contain folic acid but also that you need to select the item that contains the greatest amount. You need to recall that beans are high in folic acid to answer correctly. Review: foods high in folic acid .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 283). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Fear, modesty, and a desire to avoid examination by men may keep some women from seeking health care during pregnancy. In many cultures (e.g., Muslim, Hindu, Latino), exposure of a woman’s genitals to men is considered demeaning. Nurses must remember that the reputations of women from these cultures depend on their demonstrated modesty. It is best for a female health care provider or practitioner to perform the examination. If this is not possible, the woman should be carefully draped, with her legs completely covered. A female nurse should remain with the woman at all times. Obtaining permission from the husband may be necessary before an examination or treatment can be performed.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a Muslim client. Recalling that modesty is a cultural characteristic of a Muslim woman will direct you to the correct option. Review: these cultural characteristics .References:McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 269). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Sibling adaptation to the birth of an infant depends largely on age and developmental level. Very young children (2 years or younger) are unaware of the maternal changes occurring during pregnancy and are unable to understand that a new brother or sister is going to be born. Even though toddlers have little perception of time, if any changes in sleeping arrangements need to be made they should be carried out several weeks before the birth of the new baby. Until a child feels secure in the affection of his or her parents, expecting a 2-year-old to welcome a new “stranger” is unrealistic. The parents can be taught to accept strong feelings such as anger, jealousy, and frustration without judgment and to continue to reinforce the child’s feelings of being loved.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words, “most appropriate.” Eliminate the options that are nontherapeutic and avoid addressing the client’s concern. To select from the remaining options, recall that anger and jealousy are expected feelings in a toddler, which will assist you in eliminating this option. Review: the concepts related to sibling adaptation .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 265). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Danger signs in pregnancy include swelling of the fingers (rings become tight), puffiness of the face or around the eyes; vaginal bleeding, with or without discomfort; rupture of the membranes; a continuous pounding headache; visual disturbances; persistent or severe abdominal pain; chills or fever; painful urination; persistent vomiting; and a change in the frequency or strength of fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and frequent urination are common occurrences during pregnancy and do not warrant contacting the health care provider or nurse-midwife.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a sign that should be reported. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate common occurrences during pregnancy. Review: the danger signs in pregnancy .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 258). St. Louis: Elsevier.
As a complementary alternative therapy, acupressure over the Neiguan acupuncture point (approximately three fingers’ width above the wrist crease on the inner arm) is performed with the use of electrical impulses or with a device that applies pressure alone. Devices that apply an electrical impulse over this point require a prescription from a health care provider or nurse-midwife. Devices that apply pressure alone are available over the counter. Certain types (those that are noninvasive and are not harmful) may be acceptable for use during pregnancy. Not all types of complementary alternative therapies can be used during pregnancy, because some may be harmful to the mother, fetus, or both.Test-Taking Strategy: Noting the words “noninvasive acupressure” will help direct you to the correct option. Review: complementary alternative therapies to relieve nausea and those that are safe during pregnancy .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 252-253, 257). St. Louis: Elsevier.
To relieve the discomfort of hemorrhoids, the client should take frequent tepid baths. The client is also instructed to apply cool witch hazel compresses or anesthetic ointment to the hemorrhoids and to assume a side-lying position with the hips elevated on a pillow. The client may experience some bleeding, which is normal. However, if the bleeding persists, the health care provider or nurse-midwife should be contacted.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, alleviating the discomfort of hemorrhoids. Read each option carefully and think about the pathophysiology and the anatomical location of hemorrhoids to answer correctly. Review: the measures to relieve the discomfort of hemorrhoids .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 253-254). St. Louis: Elsevier.
To alleviate nausea and vomiting, the client should avoid drinking fluids with meals. The client should keep dry crackers at her bedside, avoid fried foods, and eat smaller meals. Additionally, the client should eat dry crackers every 2 hours to prevent an empty stomach and avoid spicy foods and foods with strong odors, such as onion and cabbage.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further information.” These words indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Use knowledge of general principles related to nutrition and the measures to alleviate nausea and vomiting to direct you to the correct option. Review: the measures that will alleviate nausea and vomiting .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 252-253). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Fetal movements (quickening) are first noticed by the multigravida pregnant woman at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and gradually increase in frequency and strength. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding quickening is required to answer this question. In this situation it is best to select the option that identifies the longest duration of gestation. Review: the process of quickening .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 244). St. Louis: Elsevier.
A hepatitis B screen is performed to determine the presence of antigens in maternal blood. If they are present, the newborn will need to receive hepatitis immune globulin and vaccine soon after birth. Therefore, noting that the results are negative, noting that the client needs to receive the hepatitis B series of vaccines, and noting that the results indicate that the mother does not have hepatitis B are all incorrect interpretations.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that the results are negative and that the mother does not have hepatitis B. To select from the remaining options, recall the significance of antigens in maternal blood, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: the significance of the hepatitis B screen during pregnancy .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 627-628). St. Louis: Elsevier.
A client is not immune to rubella if the titer is 1:8 or less. If the client is not immune, retesting will be performed during the pregnancy. Additionally, rubella immunization is required after delivery if the client is not immune. Therefore telling the client that she has developed immunity to the rubella virus, telling her that she may have been exposed to rubella, and telling her that the test results are normal are all incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that the results are normal or that the woman has developed immunity. Review: this laboratory test and the result that indicates immunity to rubella .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 249). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Nägele’s rule is often used to establish the estimated date of delivery. This method involves subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days to the date of the first day of the last normal menstrual period, then correcting the year. Subtracting 3 months from August 30, 2015, brings the date to May 30, 2015; adding 7 days brings it to June 6, 2015. Finally, the year is corrected, bringing the estimated date of delivery to June 6, 2016.Test-Taking Strategy: Recalling Nägele’s rule will assist you in answering this question. (Remember when you calculate the date for this client that there are 31 days in May.) Review: Nägele’s rule .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 247). St. Louis: Elsevier.
The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). Pregnancy outcomes may also be described with the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). The GTPAL for this client would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the calculation of gravida and para is needed to answer this question. Recalling that gravida refers to the number of pregnancies and para refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery will direct you to the correct option. Review: gravida and para as a component of the obstetric history .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 246-247). St. Louis: Elsevier.
One probable sign of pregnancy is the Chadwick sign — violet coloration of the cervix, which is normally pink. The color change, which also extends into the vagina and labia, occurs because of increased vascularity of the pelvic organs. Thinning of the cervix is termed the Hegar sign, and softening of the cervix is called the Goodell sign. These are both probable signs of pregnancy.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the Chadwick sign. Recalling that the Chadwick sign is the name given to violet coloration of the cervix, which is normally pink, and that this is a probable sign of pregnancy will direct you to the correct option. Review: the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 235). St. Louis: Elsevier.
When assessing the FHR, the nurse determines that the findings are reassuring or whether further steps should be taken to clarify data or correct problems. Reassuring signs include an average rate between 120 and 160 beats per minute at term; a regular rhythm or a rhythm with slight fluctuations; accelerations from the baseline rate, often occurring with fetal movement; and the absence of decreases from the baseline rate. A nonreassuring sign suggests fetal distress, warranting immediate intervention and indicating the need to contact the health care provider.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike, indicating a problem and the need for immediate intervention. Review: reassuring signs during monitoring of the FHR .Reference:McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 372-373). St. Louis: Elsevier.
When auscultating the fetal heart rate, the nurse would place the fetoscope on the maternal abdomen, over the fetal back. The nurse would then palpate the mother’s radial pulse. If her pulse is synchronized with the sounds from the fetoscope, the nurse would move the fetoscope to another area on the mother’s abdomen to locate the FHR. The nurse needs to be sure that the FHR is what is actually being heard. Other sounds that may be heard are the funic souffle (blood flowing through the umbilical cord) and the uterine souffle (blood flowing through the uterine vessels). The funic souffle is synchronized with the FHR; the uterine souffle is synchronized with the mother’s pulse.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject of the question, the FHR. Noting that the sounds heard through the fetoscope are synchronized with the mother’s radial pulse will help direct you to the correct option. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they indicate continuing with the counting of the heart rate. Review: the procedure for auscultating the FHR .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 367, 385). St. Louis: Elsevier.
The nurse would use the Leopold maneuvers to identify the position of the fetus and to determine the location of the fetal back. The fetal heart rate is most easily heard through the fetal back because it usually lies closest to the surface of the maternal abdomen. Because of the position of the fetus in the maternal abdomen (fetal position), auscultation of the FHR over the chest, carotid artery, or brachial area is not possible.Test-Taking Strategy: Visualize each of the options. Recalling the position of the fetus in the maternal abdomen will direct you to the correct option. Review: the procedure for auscultating the FHR and the Leopold maneuvers .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 251, 340, 342-343). St. Louis: Elsevier.
The normal fetal heart depends on gestational age (usually higher in the first trimester) and is generally in the range of 120 to 160 beats per minute. A FHR of 160 beats per minute is within the normal range, so documentation is the only action indicated.Test-Taking Strategy: Recalling that the normal FHR is in the range of 120 to 160 beats per minute will direct you to the correct option, documenting the findings. Also note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they indicate concern over the FHR finding. Review: the normal FHR .Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 251). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, 14 weeks gestation. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and involve a fetoscope. To select from the remaining options, note the week of gestation of the client, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: the equipment used for auscultating fetal heart sounds .References: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 367). St. Louis: Elsevier.
A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Which action should the nurse implement to prevent graft occlusion?
To prevent graft occlusion, the nurse limits elevation of the head of the bed to 45 degrees. The nurse does assess the client for signs of graft occlusion, but assessment will not prevent occlusion. The signs of graft occlusion include changes in peripheral pulses, cool-to-cold extremities distal to the graft, white or blue extremities or flanks, severe pain, and abdominal distention. Bowel sounds and urine output are also assessed, but these parameters are unrelated to graft occlusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “prevent.” The question is asking for a nursing intervention. This will direct you to the correct option, because this is the only option that identifies a preventive action. Review nursing interventions to prevent graft occlusion after AAA resection if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 843). St. Louis: Mosby.
A nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who is undergoing peritoneal dialysis. The nurse notes that the outflow is less than the inflow on the first exchange. What should the nurse do first?
If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse must first check the system for kinks. If there are no kinks in the system, the nurse should change the client’s position to shift abdominal fluid. The catheter should not be irrigated. Hanging the next exchange and continuing to monitor outflow will not alleviate the problem.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “first.” Also note that the subject of the question is related to inadequate outflow. Use the steps of the nursing process to answer correctly. The correct option addresses assessment. Review nursing interventions related to administering peritoneal dialysis if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1118-1119). St. Louis: Mosby.
A client has an arteriovenous fistula in place for hemodialysis. What should the nurse do to assess the patency of the fistula?
An arteriovenous fistula is created in a surgical procedure in which an anastomosis is created between an artery and a vein in the arm in an end-to-side, side-to-side, side-to-end, or end-to-end fashion. In a patent fistula (or graft), a “thrill,” or vibrating sensation, should be palpable and a bruit should be audible with a stethoscope. An arteriovenous fistula is the client’s lifeline, and the nurse does not irrigate or infuse solutions into it. It is used only for hemodialysis.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, the patency of an arteriovenous fistula. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve infusing a solution into the fistula. Review care of the client with an arteriovenous fistula if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1120). St. Louis: Mosby
A hospitalized client with chronic renal failure has returned to the nursing unit after a hemodialysis treatment. Which parameters contained in the predialysis and postdialysis documentation does the nurse utilize to determine if the procedure was effective?
After hemodialysis, the client’s vital signs are monitored to determine whether the client is remaining hemodynamically stable and for comparison with predialysis measurements. The client’s blood pressure and weight are expected to be reduced as a result of fluid removal. Laboratory studies are performed as per protocol but are not necessarily done after the hemodialysis treatment has ended.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, determination of the effectiveness of hemodialysis. Think about the purpose and effects of hemodialysis to answer correctly. Recalling that vital signs reflect hemodynamic stability will also direct you to the correct option. Review the parameters that reflect the effectiveness of hemodialysis if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 1563). St. Louis: Saunders.
A nurse is monitoring a client after transurethral resection of the prostate for benign prostatic hypertrophy. The client has a bladder irrigation infusing, and the urine output is a light cherry color. The nurse performs a follow-up assessment 1 hour later and notes that the urine output is now bright red in color with clots and that the client’s blood pressure has dropped. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
Some hematuria is normal for several days after transurethral resection of the prostate. If bright-red bleeding occurs, the health care provider needs to be notified, particularly if the client exhibits a change in vital signs. These findings are a potential sign of excessive blood loss and the need for emergency surgical intervention. Continuing to monitor the client delays necessary interventions. The nurse would not increase the rate of flow of an IV without a health care provider’s order. Placing pressure on the bladder to aid expulsion of any additional clots is an inappropriate and unsafe action that could worsen the bleeding.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the data in the question. Recalling the normal postoperative findings after a transurethral resection and using your knowledge of concepts related to hypovolemic shock will direct you to the correct option. Noting the term “bright-red” will also help you answer correctly. Review the signs of complications after transurethral resection of the prostate if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1635-1636). St. Louis: Saunders.
A nurse is monitoring a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for signs of pulmonary embolism. For which sign of DVT, the most common, does the nurse assess the client?
Pulmonary embolism is a life-threatening complication of thrombophlebitis or DVT. Pleuritic chest pain, the most common clinical manifestation, occurs suddenly and is worsened by breathing. Other signs and symptoms include shortness of breath and dyspnea, diaphoresis, and apprehension. Cough is also a manifestation but is not a common sign.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the signs of pulmonary embolism is needed to answer this question. Noting the strategic words “most common” will direct you to the correct option. Review the complications of DVT and the signs of pulmonary embolism if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 551-552). St. Louis: Mosby.
A client who experiences frequent episodes of chest pain is admitted to the hospital for cardiac monitoring. The client suddenly complains of chest pain, and the nurse obtains a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which finding would the nurse expect to note in the event of an ischemic episode?
An ECG taken in the presence of pain may reveal ischemic changes with ST-segment elevation or depression. Peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia. PVCs are caused by the firing of an irritable pacemaker in the ventricle. A widened QRS complex indicates a delay in intraventricular conduction, such as bundle branch block.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the effects of ischemia on myocardial tissue and how it is reflected on an ECG is needed to answer this question. Remember that ST-segment elevation or depression indicates myocardial ischemia. Review the effects of myocardial ischemia if you had difficulty with this question. References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 831). St. Louis: Saunders.
A nurse has admitted a client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB) to the nursing unit. Which finding that confirms the diagnosis does the nurse expect to see documented in the client’s record?
A definitive diagnosis of TB is confirmed through culture and isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (acid-fast bacillus), which is the organism responsible for the disease. The initial testing involves microscopic examination of stained sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (a.k.a. the ABF test). In the tuberculin skin test, 0.1 mL of purified protein derivative (PPD) is injected intradermally on the dorsal surface of the forearm. The injection site is then assessed in 48 to 72 hours for the presence of an induration. In low-risk individuals (e.g., those who are not immunocompromised), an area of induration (not redness) measuring 10 mm or more in diameter 48 to 72 hours after injection indicates exposure to and infection with TB. Night sweats, a low-grade fever, cough, and mucopurulent sputum are clinical manifestations of TB but do not confirm the diagnosis.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Note the strategic word “confirms” in the query of the question. Remember that for an infectious disease to be confirmed, the causative organism must be identified. The correct option is the only one that involves a test to isolate the organism. If you had difficulty with this question, review the diagnostic tests related to TB.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 654). St. Louis: Saunders.
The wife of a client with angina pectoris calls the health care provider’s office and reports to the nurse that her husband is experiencing chest pain and has taken 2 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets 5 minutes apart, with no relief. The nurse tells the client’s wife to:
Chest pain that is unrelieved by rest and nitroglycerin may be not typical anginal pain but instead a sign of myocardial infarction (MI). Because the risk of sudden cardiac death is greatest in the 24 hours after MI, it is imperative that the client receive emergency cardiac care. If the client needs to go to the ED, the nurse must instruct the client’s wife to call an ambulance to transport her husband. The client’s wife must not drive the client, because the client should not exert energy and place an increased workload on the heart and the client’s wife would not be able to provide care if an emergency arose during transport to the hospital. Telling the wife that she will have to discuss the situation with the health care provider, who will call her as soon as he gets to his office, delays necessary interventions. Having her husband rest delays necessary interventions; also, the usual procedure is to have the client take one nitroglycerin tablet and seek medical attention if the pain is unrelieved.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options that would delay necessary intervention. To select from the remaining options, recall that in such an emergency an ambulance is called for transport to the hospital. Review the interventions when an MI is suspected if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 743, 745). St. Louis: Mosby.
A cardiac monitor alarm sounds, and a nurse notes a straight line on the monitor screen. The nurse immediately:
If a monitor alarm sounds, the nurse should first assess the clinical status of the client to see whether the problem is an actual dysrhythmia or a malfunction of the monitoring system. Asystole should not be mistaken for an unattached electrocardiogram wire. If the client is alert and the client’s status is stable, the problem is likely an unattached cardiac lead or wire. Calling a code and obtaining a rhythm strip from the monitor device are unnecessary if the client’s condition is stable.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediately.” Use the steps of the nursing process, remembering that assessment is the first step. This will direct you to the correct option, the one that is client focused. Review care of the client undergoing cardiac monitoring if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 790). St. Louis: Mosby.
The emergency department nurse assesses a client who has a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which findings does the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply.
Signs of left-sided heart failure result from decreased cardiac output and increased pulmonary venous congestion, and the nurse would note signs related to the respiratory system, such as cough, dyspnea, and crackles and wheezes on auscultation of the lungs. Right-sided heart failure is associated with increased systemic venous pressure and congestion, and the nurse would note signs such as neck vein distention, dependent edema, abdominal distention, and weight gain.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the subject, left-sided heart failure. Remember “left and lungs” to remind yourself that the signs would be respiratory in nature. Review the signs of left- and right-sided heart failure if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 771). St. Louis: Mosby.
A nurse provides instructions to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about the positions that are most effective in alleviating dyspnea. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
Positions that will help the client with COPD breathe more freely include sitting up and leaning on an overbed table, sitting up and resting with the elbows on the knees, sitting up in a chair, and standing and leaning against the wall. These positions allow for the greatest expansion of the lungs and respiratory cage in all directions. Lying on the side is not effective.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Also eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they are all upright positions. Review the positions that will alleviate dyspnea in the client with COPD if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 598). St. Louis: Mosby.
A ventilator’s low exhaled volume (low-pressure) alarm sounds, and the nurse rushes to the client’s room and quickly assesses the client. The client appears to be having respiratory difficulty. The nurse should first:
Because the client is experiencing respiratory distress, the client should be manually ventilated with the use of a resuscitation bag until the problem can be determined. Mechanical ventilators have alarm systems that warn the nurse of a problem with either the client or the ventilator. Such alarms must be activated and functional at all times. The low exhaled volume alarm sounds when there is a disconnection or leak in the ventilator circuit or a leak in the client’s artificial airway cuff. A code is called when the client requires resuscitation. An anesthesiologist may be needed to insert an endotracheal tube or to assist with a code. Accumulation of secretions in the respiratory system and the need for suctioning would trigger the high-pressure alarm.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., calling a code or the anesthesiologist). From the remaining options, focusing on the words “low exhaled volume alarm” and recalling the reasons for this alarm will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client undergoing mechanical ventilation if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1625). St. Louis: Mosby
A client is found to have viral hepatitis, and the nurse provides home care instructions to the client. The nurse should tell the client to:
Fatigue is a normal response to hepatic cellular damage. During the acute stage, rest is an essential intervention to reduce metabolic demand on the liver and increase its blood supply, but strict bed rest is unnecessary. The client should avoid taking medications, including acetaminophen (which is hepatotoxic), unless they are prescribed by the healthcare provider. The client must avoid all alcohol consumption. The client should consume small frequent meals that are low in fat and protein and high in carbohydrates to reduce the workload of the liver.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the option of advising the client to limit alcohol intake, recalling that the nurse should advise the client to avoid alcohol intake altogether. Next eliminate the option of advising the client to maintain strict bed rest because of the word “strict.” To select from the remaining options, recall that acetaminophen is hepatotoxic, which will assist you in eliminating this option. Review client instructions for the client with viral hepatitis if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1013, 1015). St. Louis: Mosby.
A nurse is caring for a client in the intensive care unit (ICU) who is being mechanically ventilated. As the nurse prepares medications, the client suddenly becomes anxious and pulls out the endotracheal tube. The nurse assesses the client for spontaneous breathing and then:
If unexpected extubation occurs, the nurse must first assess the client for airway patency and spontaneous breathing. The nurse remains with the client, calls for assistance, and prepares for reintubation. The rapid response team is called when there is a change in the client’s status in a hospital area outside the ICU. The nurse would not administer an antianxiety medication, because this could affect the client’s breathing. The nurse would not restrain the client, because restraints could increase the client’s anxiety.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to answer the question and note that the client extubated himself. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the complications associated with an endotracheal tube and the associated nursing interventions if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 679-680). St. Louis: Saunders.Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying
The nurse teaches a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about measures to prevent reflux during sleep. The nurse determines that the client needs additional instructions if the client states:
A side-lying position with head of the bed elevated is most likely to prevent reflux while sleeping. A flat position will increase reflux. The client is instructed to avoid eating in the 3 hours before bedtime because a full stomach may also cause reflux. Antacids and histamine antagonists may be prescribed for the client.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect option. Recalling that a backward flow of gastric contents occurs in this disorder will direct you to the correct option. Review client teaching points for GERD if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 933). St. Louis: Mosby.
A home care nurse visits a pregnant client with a diagnosis of mild preeclampsia. During the assessment, the client tells the nurse that she has had an upset stomach and pain in the epigastric area. The nurse most appropriately:
Preeclampsia is dangerous to the woman and fetus because it can progress rapidly, and the earliest manifestations may go unnoticed by the woman. Some symptoms, such as epigastric pain and upset stomach, are particularly ominous because they indicate distention of the hepatic capsule and often mean that a seizure is imminent. Therefore telling the client to avoid lying flat position, instructing the client to eat a small portion of food every 2 to 3 hours, and administering an antacid and telling the client to take a dose every 6 hours are all incorrect. Additionally, the nurse would not administer an antacid to the pregnant client without a prescription to do so.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that the nurse would not administer medication to the pregnant client without a prescription to do so will assist you in eliminating the option of administering an antacid first. Although the other options may be generally helpful interventions, focus on the client’s diagnosis and recall that epigastric pain is a sign of impending seizures. Review the signs that indicate a worsening of preeclampsia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 654, 656
An emergency department nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who will be admitted to the hospital. Into which position that will ease the abdominal pain does the nurse assist the client?
Helping the client assume the fetal position (legs drawn up to the chest) will ease the abdominal pain of pancreatitis. Other helpful positions include sitting up, leaning forward, and flexing the legs (especially the left leg). Prone, supine with the legs straight, and side-lying with the head of the bed flat are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Focus on the client’s diagnosis and evaluate each of the options in terms of the amount of stretching or flexing of the abdominal wall that the position will cause. Also note the options that are comparable or alike in that they are flat positions. Review the positions that will ease pain in the client with acute pancreatitis if you had difficulty with this question.
Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1030-1031). St. Louis: Mosby.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with a new diagnosis of Graves disease. Which intervention does the nurse include in the plan?
Graves disease is characterized by a hypermetabolic state, and the client benefits most from an environment that is restful both physically and mentally. Therefore the client is encouraged to rest. As compensation for the hypermetabolic state, the client needs a diet that is high in calories and high in protein. Individuals with Graves disease experience heat intolerance and diaphoresis and require a cool environment.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., extra blankets and a warm room). To select from the remaining options, recall that Graves disease is characterized by a hypermetabolic state, which will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with Graves disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1199). St. Louis: Mosby.
A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus who requires insulin about methods of preventing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) when the client is ill. The nurse tells the client to:
Insulin should never be independently stopped or decreased, and the client is instructed to take prescribed insulin even if he or she is vomiting or unable to eat. Acute illness may cause a counter regulatory hormone response, resulting in hyperglycemia. During times of illness, the client should monitor the blood glucose level and notify the health care provider if it exceeds 250 mg/dL (13.9 mmol/L). Adequate fluids and carbohydrates are essential during illness. The client should eat 10 to 15 g of carbohydrate every 1 to 2 hours and drink a small quantity of fluid every 15 to 30 minutes to help prevent dehydration and ketoacidosis. The client should notify the health care provider of a fever over 100° F (37.8°C).Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Thinking about the pathophysiology of DKA and recalling that the client should not stop or adjust the insulin dose will direct you to the correct option. Review diabetic management during times of illness if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 1456). St. Louis: Saunders.
A nurse is conducting an assessment of a client with mild preeclampsia. Which sign indicates improvement in the client’s condition?
Preeclampsia is considered mild when the systolic blood pressure is 140 mm Hg or greater but less than 160 mm Hg and the diastolic blood pressure is 90 mm Hg or greater but less than 110 mm Hg, proteinuria is 1+ on a random dipstick, and symptoms such as headache, visual disturbances, and abdominal pain are absent. In addition, signs of kidney or liver involvement are absent. The normal BUN range is 6-20 mg/dL (2.1-7.1 mmol/L). An increased BUN level indicates kidney damage, a result of the preeclampsia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic words “improvement in the client’s condition.” Think about the manifestations of mild preeclampsia; the only option that is indicative of improvement is trace protein in the urine. Review the signs of mild and severe preeclampsia and the signs that indicate improvement if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 593-594). St. Louis: Elsevier.
A nurse is monitoring a client who is in the active phase of labor and has been experiencing contractions that are coordinated but weak. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client may be experiencing hypotonic contractions?
Hypotonic contractions, coordinated but too weak to be effective, usually occur during the active phase of labor, when progress normally quickens. Contractions are infrequent and brief and can easily be indented on the abdomen with fingertip pressure at their peak. These contractions cause minimal discomfort because the contractions are weak. Fetal hypoxia is not usually seen with hypotonic contractions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Note the relationship between the subject, hypotonic contractions, and the correct option. Review the characteristics of hypotonic contractions if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 773-774
A woman in labor suddenly complains of abdominal tenderness and pain and states that she felt as though “something ripped.” For which manifestations does the nurse, suspecting uterine rupture, assess the client? Select all that apply.
Signs of uterine rupture vary with the degree of rupture. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain and tenderness, chest pain, hypovolemic shock, signs associated with impaired fetal oxygenation, an absence of fetal heart tones, cessation of uterine contractions, and palpation of the fetus outside the uterus if the rupture is complete. Signs of hypovolemic shock include tachycardia; tachypnea; pallor; cool, clammy skin; and anxiety.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, thinking about the manifestations that would be present in the event of uterine rupture. Knowing that bleeding would occur and recalling the signs of shock will assist you in answering correctly. Also, recalling that contractions would cease if rupture occurred will assist you in eliminating the option of increased frequency of uterine contractions. Review the manifestations associated with uterine rupture if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) p. 798
A nurse in the labor room is performing a vaginal assessment of a pregnant client who is in active labor. The nurse notes that the umbilical cord is protruding from the vagina and immediately:
When cord prolapse occurs, prompt action is taken to relieve cord compression and increase fetal oxygenation. The mother should be positioned with the hips higher than the head to shift the fetal presenting part toward the diaphragm. Such positions include knee-chest, Trendelenburg, and the hips elevated on pillows with the client in a side-lying position. The nurse should push the call light to summon help, and other staff members should call the health care provider and notify the delivery room. If the cord is protruding from the vagina, no attempt should be made to replace it, because to do so could traumatize it and further reduce blood flow. Oxygen at 8 to 10 L/min by way of facemask is administered to the mother to increase fetal oxygenation. A tocolytic medication is administered to inhibit contractions on the order of the health care provider, and the client is quickly prepared for delivery, but these are not the actions that would be taken immediately.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the words “umbilical cord is protruding from the vagina.” Eliminate first the actions that delay necessary and immediate treatment. To select from the remaining options, recall that the cord should not be pushed back into the vagina; this will direct you to the correct option. Review priority nursing interventions for a prolapsed cord if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 797-798
A client in the third trimester of pregnancy is experiencing painless vaginal bleeding, and placenta previa is suspected. For which intervention does the nurse prepare the client?
A manual pelvic examination or any action that would stimulate uterine activity is contraindicated when vaginal bleeding is apparent in the third trimester until a diagnosis is made and placental previa is ruled out. Digital examination of the cervix can lead to maternal and fetal hemorrhage. A diagnosis of placental previa is made with the use of ultrasound. Electronic fetal monitoring (external) is crucial in evaluating the status of the fetus that is at risk for severe hypoxia, but internal fetal monitoring is contraindicated. Oxytocin would stimulate uterine contractions and is therefore contraindicated.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the pathophysiology of placenta previa. Use the process of elimination, noting the options that would stimulate uterine activity and would endanger the safety of the client and fetus. Review care of the client with placenta previa if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 680-681
A nurse assessing a client in the fourth stage of labor notes that the uterine fundus is firmly contracted and is midline at the level of the umbilicus. On the basis of this finding, the nurse most appropriately:
In the postpartum period, the nurse assesses for uterine atony and checks the consistency and location of the uterine fundus. The uterine fundus should be firmly contracted, at or near the level of the umbilicus, and midline. Therefore the nurse would record the findings. Because the finding is normal, massaging the fundus, contacting the health care provider, and assisting the mother to void are not necessary. The nurse would massage the uterine fundus if it were soft and boggy. The health care provider would be contacted if the client were to experience excessive bleeding. A full bladder could cause a displaced fundus and one that is above the level of the umbilicus.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the data in the question. Recalling the normal location and consistency of the fundus will direct you to the correct option. Review expected postpartum findings if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 469, 474
A nurse is reading the medical record of a pregnant client in the second trimester with a diagnosis of abruptio placentae. Which clinical manifestation of the disorder does the nurse expect to see documented?
In abruptio placentae, abdominal pain and uterine tenderness are present. Uterine tenderness accompanies placental abruption, especially with a central abruption in which blood becomes trapped behind the placenta. The abdomen will feel hard and boardlike on palpation because the blood penetrates the myometrium, resulting in uterine irritability. Excessive uterine activity with poor relaxation between contractions is present. Fetal monitoring often reveals increased uterine resting tone, caused by failure of the uterus to relax in an attempt to constrict blood vessels and control bleeding. Painless bright-red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester of pregnancy is a sign of placenta previa. Constipation is not associated with this disorder.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, abruptio placentae. Think about the pathophysiology of this disorder. Recalling that abdominal pain and uterine tenderness accompany abruptio placentae will direct you to the correct option. Review the signs of abruptio placentae if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 682-683
Mastitis is diagnosed in a client who recently gave birth. The nurse tells the woman that:
Antibiotic therapy and continued decompression of the breasts, by means of breastfeeding or with a breast pump, is prescribed for the client with mastitis. In most cases the mother may continue to feed with both breasts. If the affected breast is too sore, the mother may pump the breast gently. Regular emptying of the breast is important in preventing abscess formation. Antibiotic therapy helps resolve mastitis within 24 to 48 hours. Additional supportive measures include moist heat or ice packs, breast support, and analgesics. Moist heat promotes comfort and increases circulation. A shower or hot packs should be used before the breasts are emptied or before feeding.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that mastitis is an infection of the breasts and remembering that breast support will alleviate discomfort will assist you in answering correctly. Also, recalling the effects of heat will direct you to the correct option. Review measures for the client with mastitis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) p. 625
A nurse in a newborn nursery receives a telephone call from the delivery room and is told that a newborn with spina bifida (meningomyelocele type) will be transported to the nursery. Which item does the nurse, preparing for the arrival of the newborn, make a priority of placing at the newborn’s bedside?
The newborn with spina bifida is at risk for infection before the closure of the gibbus. A sterile normal saline dressing is placed over the gibbus to maintain moisture of the gibbus and its contents. This prevents tearing or breakdown of the skin at the site. A flashlight may be needed to closely assess the status of the gibbus but is not a priority item. A cardiac monitor is not necessary. Blood pressure is difficult to assess during the newborn period and is not the best indicator of infection. The blood pressure cuff would not be a priority item.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge of the characteristics of spina bifida, the care involved, and the potential complications is needed to answer this question. Recalling that this newborn will have a gibbus requiring covering with sterile normal saline dressings will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the newborn with spina bifida if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1421-1423). St. Louis: Elsevier.
A mother calls the clinic and tells the nurse that her newborn’s umbilical cord site looks red and swollen. The nurse should tell the mother:
Symptoms of cord infection include moistness, oozing, discharge, swelling, and a reddened base. If symptoms of infection occur, the newborn must be seen by the healthcare provider. Telling the mother to increase the number of times that the cord is cleansed each day or to place an ice pack on the umbilical cord site and stating that this is a normal occurrence are inappropriate nursing interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the clinical manifestations provided in the question. Noting the word “red” should direct you to the option of having the newborn be seen by the healthcare provider. Review cord care interventions if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) p. 595
A nurse provides instructions to the mother of a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia who is being breastfed. The nurse determines that the mother understands the instructions if the mother says that she will:
Breastfeeding should be initiated within 2 hours of birth and performed every 2 to 3 hours thereafter. Supplementation with water should be avoided because the newborn may take less milk, which is more effective than water in removing bilirubin from the intestines. The infant should not be fed less frequently. It is not necessary to stop breastfeeding and to bottle feed only.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option that includes the closed-ended word “only.” Because the newborn requires nutrition and feeding to speed the elimination of bilirubin, you should eliminate the option of feeding the newborn less frequently. To select from the remaining options, choose the option that indicates frequent feedings. Review home care instructions in regard to hyperbilirubinemia in the newborn if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 476). St. Louis: Elsevier.
A nurse in the newborn nursery is monitoring a neonate born to a mother with diabetes mellitus. For which finding does the nurse monitor the neonate most closely?
The major neonatal complications of preexisting diabetes mellitus in the mother are hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, hyperbilirubinemia, and respiratory distress syndrome. The infant of a diabetic mother is more likely to have delayed production of pulmonary surfactant, which is needed to keep the alveoli open after birth.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Focusing on the mother’s diagnosis will assist you in eliminating the incorrect options. Also, thinking about the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus and recalling that the infant is likely to have delayed production of pulmonary surfactant will direct you to the correct option. Review the effects of maternal diabetes mellitus on the fetus if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 845, 857
A nurse is assessing a newborn for fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). Which finding would the nurse expect to note in the newborn?
Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is characterized by recognizable facial anomalies, prenatal and postnatal growth restriction, and central nervous system impairment. The common facial anomalies include short palpebral fissures (the openings between the eyelids), a flat midface, an indistinct philtrum (median groove on the external surface of the upper lip), and a thin upper lip.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate options that are comparable or alike in that they are related to the size of the newborn. If you had difficulty with this question, review the characteristics of the newborn with FAS.Reference: Lowdermilk et al (2016) pp. 870-871
A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for the parents of an infant with a ventricular peritoneal shunt. Which instruction does the nurse plan to include?
If the shunt is broken or malfunctioning, the fluid from the ventricle part of the brain will not be diverted to the peritoneal cavity. cerebrospinal fluid will build up in the cranial area. The result is intracranial pressure, which causes the infant to make a high-pitched cry or induces changes in level of consciousness, such as lethargy. The infant should not be positioned on the side of the shunt, because this will cause pressure on the shunt and skin breakdown. This type of shunt affects the gastrointestinal system, not the genitourinary system, and an increased urine output is not expected. The anterior fontanel normally bulges when the infant cries.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Remember that a change in the level of consciousness indicates increased intracranial pressure, which occurs with shunt malfunction. If you had difficulty with this question, review assessment findings and home care instructions for the parents of an infant with a ventricular peritoneal shunt.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1424-1425). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Introduction of a straw, fork, or any other pointed object into the mouth could result in accidental contact with the surgical site and disrupt its integrity. Citrus fruits are avoided because they could irritate the throat. Acetaminophen is used for pain relief. A foul mouth odor is normal and can be relieved by drinking fluids.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the strategic words “needs further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Considering the anatomical location of the surgery will direct you to the correct option. Remember, introducing a straw, fork, or any other pointed object into the mouth could result in accidental contact with the surgical site and disrupt its integrity. Review postoperative care after tonsillectomy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1158). St. Louis: Elsevier.
In decorticate posturing, the upper extremities are flexed and the lower extremities are extended. In decerebrate posturing, the upper and lower extremities are extended and the upper arms and wrists and the knees and feet are internally rotated. The progression from decorticate to decerebrate posturing usually indicates deteriorating neurological function and warrants health care provider notification. The remaining options are inaccurate interpretations.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate improvement in the child’s condition. Also, recalling the significance of decerebrate posturing will direct you to the correct option. If you are unfamiliar with the significance of assessment findings in the child with increased intracranial pressure, review this content.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1419-1420). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Steam from running water in a closed bathroom and cool mist from a bedside humidifier or a freezer are effective in reducing mucosal edema. A cool mist humidifier is recommended over a steam vaporizer, which presents a danger of scald burns. Taking the child out into the cool humid night air may also relieve mucosal swelling.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Use the process of elimination, keeping in mind that the goal is to reduce mucosal edema and to provide a safe environment. Also note that the correct option presents an unsafe situation for the child. Review home care instructions for the child with croup if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1160-1161). St. Louis: Elsevier.
If a hypercyanotic episode occurs, the infant is calmed and placed in the knee-chest position, and the health care provider is notified. The knee-chest position is thought to increase pulmonary blood flow by increasing systemic vascular resistance. This position also improves systemic arterial oxygen saturation by decreasing venous return so that smaller amounts of highly saturated blood reach the heart. Toddlers and children squat to achieve this position and relieve chronic hypoxia. Oxygen is also administered to the infant.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “immediately” in the query of the question. Because there is no information in the question to indicate that calling a code is necessary, you may eliminate this option. To select from the remaining options, remember that a toddler or child would squat to achieve the position of relief; this will assist in directing you to the correct option. Review nursing measures for the infant experiencing a hypercyanotic episode if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1208, 1217). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Kawasaki disease is an acute systemic vasculitis that primarily affects the cardiovascular system. The subacute phase is characterized by continued irritability, anorexia, desquamation of the fingers and toes, arthritis and arthralgia, and cardiovascular manifestations, including CHF. Nursing care is focused on observation of the child for signs of CHF. The nurse is alert for an increased respiratory rate, increased heart rate, dyspnea, congestion and crackles, and abdominal distention. Bleeding, a high fever, and failure to thrive are not directly associated with this disorder. In the subacute phase, the fever subsides.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the pathophysiology of Kawasaki disease. Recalling that Kawasaki disease primarily affects the cardiovascular system will direct you to the correct option. If you are unfamiliar with this disorder, review this content.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1231-1233). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Rationale: Dietary management is the mainstay of treatment in celiac disease. All wheat, rye, barley, and oats should be eliminated from the diet and replaced with corn and rice. Vitamin supplements, especially fat-soluble vitamins and folate, may be needed in the early period of treatment to correct deficiencies. Dietary restrictions are likely to be lifelong, although small amounts of grains may be tolerated after the ulcerations have healed.
Rationale: To adequately determine whether the child is getting enough oxygen, the nurse attaches the child to a pulse oximeter. The pulse oximeter will then provide ongoing information on the child’s oxygen level. The child is also immediately attached to a cardiorespiratory monitor to provide early identification of periods of apnea and bradycardia. Next the nurse performs an assessment, including the child’s temperature and weight, and asks the parents about the child. An antibiotic may be prescribed, but the child’s airway status must be assessed first.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Focus on the child’s diagnosis and use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation). This will direct you to the correct option. Review the priority interventions in the care of a child with pertussis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1024-1025). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Hemophilia is the term given to a group of bleeding disorders resulting from a deficiency of specific coagulation proteins. Identifying the specific coagulation deficiency is important because it allows definitive treatment with the specific replacement agent to be implemented; aggressive replacement therapy is initiated to prevent the chronic crippling effects of joint bleeding. The child does not outgrow the disorder, and lifetime management is needed. The nurse must stress the importance of immunizations, dental hygiene, and routine well-child care for the child with hemophilia. The remaining statements represent appropriate care measures.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further instruction” in the query of the question, which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect statement. Recalling that bleeding is a concern in this disorder and remembering that the disorder is lifelong will assist you in answering correctly. If you had difficulty with this question, review care of the child with hemophilia.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 1255). St. Louis: Elsevier.
Hypertension is a common finding in glomerulonephritis. Gross hematuria resulting in dark-brown or smoky tea-colored urine is also a classic symptom of glomerulonephritis. The blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are increased only when there is an 80% decrease in glomerular filtration rate and renal insufficiency is severe. A high potassium level results from inadequate glomerular filtration.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and your knowledge regarding the assessment findings associated with glomerulonephritis to answer this question. Recalling that the creatinine level is increased only with an 80% decrease in glomerular filtration rate will assist you in eliminating this option. Eliminate cloudy yellow urine next, knowing that this assessment finding is not normally noted in glomerulonephritis. To select from the remaining options it is necessary to know that hypertension and a high potassium level are most likely in this kidney disorder. If you had difficulty with this question, review the clinical manifestations of glomerulonephritis.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 1128-1129). St. Louis: Elsevier.
An Indiana pouch is a continent internal ileal reservoir, and the nurse instructs the client in the technique of catheterization. Initially the client drains the reservoir every 2 to 3 hours. Each week thereafter, the interval is increased by 1 hour until finally catheterization is completed every 4 to 6 hours during the day. The catheter is never forced into the reservoir. If resistance is met, the client is instructed to pause and apply only gentle pressure while slightly rotating the catheter. A 16F to 20F catheter is used; 26F is too large and could damage the reservoir. Mucus is expected, and the client is instructed to irrigate the reservoir with 50 to 60 mL of normal saline solution to prevent excessive mucus buildup.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the option that includes the word “force.” Next, visualize a 26F catheter; this will assist you in eliminating this option. To select from the remaining options it is necessary to recall that mucus is an expected occurrence. Review client teaching points for catheterization of an Indiana pouch if you had difficulty with this question. References: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1094). St. Louis: Mosby.Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 877-878). St. Louis: Mosby.Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying
Infants usually double their birth weight by 6 months and triple it by 1 year of age. If the infant is 6 lb 8 oz (2.9 kg), at birth, a weight of 13 lb (5.9 kg) at 6 months of age is to be expected. Semisolid foods are usually introduced between 4 and 6 months of age.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject in the question, the current weight of the infant. Recalling that infants double their weight by 6 months of age will direct you to the correct option. Review: the growth rate of an infant.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., pp. 488-489). St. Louis: Elsevier.Potter, P., Perry, A. G., Stockert, P. A., & Hall, A. M. (2013). Fundamentals of nursing. (8th ed., p. 143). St. Louis: Mosby.
0% 43 Please note after timer finished countdowning, quiz will be submitted automatically. Thanks for attempting the quiz Nclex Content Review Class One – Week Four Week Four Assessment The number of attempts remaining is 1 User Information 1 / 96 A nurse is caring for a client with Crohn disease whose magnesium level is 1.0 mEq/L (0.5 mmol/L). Which assessment findings does the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply. A. Hypotension B. Abdominal distention C. Trousseau sign D. Skeletal muscle weakness E. Decreased deep tendon reflexes The normal magnesium level is 1.5-2.5 mEq/L (0.75-1.25 mmol/L). A magnesium level of 1.0 mEq/L(0.5 mmol/L) reflects hypomagnesemia. Assessment signs include hypertension; gastrointestinal manifestations such as anorexia, nausea, abdominal distention, and decreased bowel sounds; shallow respirations; neuromuscular manifestations such as twitches, paresthesias, hyperreflexia, and the Trousseau and Chvostek signs; and irritability and confusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the options that are comparable or alike because they reflect neurological, musculoskeletal, and cardiovascular depression. If you had difficulty with this question, review the assessment signs found in magnesium imbalances.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 193). St. Louis: Saunders. The normal magnesium level is 1.5-2.5 mEq/L (0.75-1.25 mmol/L). A magnesium level of 1.0 mEq/L(0.5 mmol/L) reflects hypomagnesemia. Assessment signs include hypertension; gastrointestinal manifestations such as anorexia, nausea, abdominal distention, and decreased bowel sounds; shallow respirations; neuromuscular manifestations such as twitches, paresthesias, hyperreflexia, and the Trousseau and Chvostek signs; and irritability and confusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, noting the options that are comparable or alike because they reflect neurological, musculoskeletal, and cardiovascular depression. If you had difficulty with this question, review the assessment signs found in magnesium imbalances.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 193). St. Louis: Saunders. 2 / 96 A nurse is monitoring a client with hyperparathyroidism for signs of hypercalcemia. For which clinical manifestations, associated with this electrolyte imbalance, does the nurse assess the client? Select all that apply. A. Paresthesias B. Muscle weakness C. Increased urine output D. Chvostek sign E. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes Signs of hypercalcemia include muscle weakness, diminished deep tendon reflexes or an absence thereof, increased urine output, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and increased heart rate and blood pressure. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, the presence of the Chvostek sign, and paresthesias are signs of hypocalcemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, signs of hypercalcemia. Note that all of the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they reflect hyperactivity of the neuromuscular system. Review the assessment signs noted in hypercalcemia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 190-191). St. Louis: Saunders.. Signs of hypercalcemia include muscle weakness, diminished deep tendon reflexes or an absence thereof, increased urine output, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and increased heart rate and blood pressure. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, the presence of the Chvostek sign, and paresthesias are signs of hypocalcemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination, focusing on the subject, signs of hypercalcemia. Note that all of the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they reflect hyperactivity of the neuromuscular system. Review the assessment signs noted in hypercalcemia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 190-191). St. Louis: Saunders.. 3 / 96 A nurse is caring for a client experiencing hyponatremia who was admitted to the medical-surgical unit with fluid-volume overload. For which clinical manifestations of this electrolyte imbalance does the nurse monitor this client? Select all that apply. A. Slow pulse B. Decreased urine output C. Skeletal muscle weakness D. Hyperactive bowel sounds E. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes Signs of hyponatremia include a rapid, thready pulse; skeletal muscle weakness; diminished deep tendon reflexes; abdominal cramping and hyperactive bowel sounds; increased urine output; headache; and personality changes. The nurse must assess these changes from baseline. If muscle weakness is detected, the nurse should immediately check respiratory effectiveness, because ventilation depends on strength of the respiratory muscles.Test-Taking Strategy: Specific knowledge of the manifestations of hyponatremia is needed to answer this question. Remember that muscle weakness and hyperactive bowel sounds are characteristics of hyponatremia. If you had difficulty with this question, review these clinical manifestations.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 181-182). St. Louis: Saunders. Signs of hyponatremia include a rapid, thready pulse; skeletal muscle weakness; diminished deep tendon reflexes; abdominal cramping and hyperactive bowel sounds; increased urine output; headache; and personality changes. The nurse must assess these changes from baseline. If muscle weakness is detected, the nurse should immediately check respiratory effectiveness, because ventilation depends on strength of the respiratory muscles.Test-Taking Strategy: Specific knowledge of the manifestations of hyponatremia is needed to answer this question. Remember that muscle weakness and hyperactive bowel sounds are characteristics of hyponatremia. If you had difficulty with this question, review these clinical manifestations.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 181-182). St. Louis: Saunders. 4 / 96 A client with gastroenteritis who has been vomiting and has diarrhea is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of dehydration. For which clinical manifestations that correlate with this fluid imbalance would the nurse assess the client? Select all that apply. A. Decreased pulse B. Decreased urine output C. Increased blood pressure D. Increased respiratory rate E. Decreased respiratory depth A client with dehydration has an increased depth and rate of respirations. The diminished fluid volume is perceived by the body as a decreased oxygen level (hypoxia), and increased respiration is an attempt to maintain oxygen delivery. Other assessment findings in insufficient fluid volume are decreased urine volume, increased pulse, weight loss, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, concentrated urine with increased specific gravity, increased hematocrit, and altered level of consciousness. Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse, and increased urine output occur with fluid-volume overload.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, dehydration (deficient fluid volume). Think about the pathophysiology of deficient fluid volume. Remember that the body will increase the respiratory rate in an attempt to maintain the oxygen level. If you had difficulty with this question, review the signs of insufficient fluid volume. A client with dehydration has an increased depth and rate of respirations. The diminished fluid volume is perceived by the body as a decreased oxygen level (hypoxia), and increased respiration is an attempt to maintain oxygen delivery. Other assessment findings in insufficient fluid volume are decreased urine volume, increased pulse, weight loss, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, concentrated urine with increased specific gravity, increased hematocrit, and altered level of consciousness. Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse, and increased urine output occur with fluid-volume overload.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, dehydration (deficient fluid volume). Think about the pathophysiology of deficient fluid volume. Remember that the body will increase the respiratory rate in an attempt to maintain the oxygen level. If you had difficulty with this question, review the signs of insufficient fluid volume. 5 / 96 A nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning on a client. Which observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply. A. The client becomes cyanotic. B. Secretions are becoming bloody C. The client gags during the procedure. D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed. E. The heart rate varies from 80 to 82 beats/min. The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects of suctioning, which include cyanosis, an excessively rapid or slow heart rate, and the sudden appearance of bloody secretions. If any of these findings is noted, the nurse stops suctioning and contacts the health care provider immediately. The descriptions in the other options are expected findings and not a reason for concern.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the findings that should be cause for concern to the nurse. This indicates that you are being asked to select the options that constitute abnormal or unexpected findings during suctioning of a client. Gagging is expected, so eliminate this option. Next eliminate clear to opaque secretions and heart rate ranging from 80 to 82 beats/min, because these are normal findings. Review the procedure for suctioning a client and the expected findings. The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects of suctioning, which include cyanosis, an excessively rapid or slow heart rate, and the sudden appearance of bloody secretions. If any of these findings is noted, the nurse stops suctioning and contacts the health care provider immediately. The descriptions in the other options are expected findings and not a reason for concern.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the findings that should be cause for concern to the nurse. This indicates that you are being asked to select the options that constitute abnormal or unexpected findings during suctioning of a client. Gagging is expected, so eliminate this option. Next eliminate clear to opaque secretions and heart rate ranging from 80 to 82 beats/min, because these are normal findings. Review the procedure for suctioning a client and the expected findings. 6 / 96 A nurse is watching as a nursing student suctions a client through a tracheostomy tube. Which actions on the part of the student would prompt the nurse to intervene and demonstrate correct procedure? Select all that apply. A. Setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg B. Applying suction throughout the procedure C. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning D. Placing the client in a supine position before the procedure E. Hyperoxygenating the client with 100% oxygen before suctioning The client with a tracheostomy tube should be positioned with the head of the bed elevated. Correct suction pressure for the adult client is 80 to 120 mm Hg. Suction is applied intermittently during catheter withdrawal. Breath sounds should be assessed before the procedure to help determine the need for suctioning. The client should be hyperoxygenated with 100% oxygen before suctioning.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, incorrect suctioning procedure. Noting the words “to intervene,” which should tell you that the correct answer is an incorrect nursing action. Visualizing the procedure and recalling the principles of suctioning will direct you to the correct options. Review the procedure for suctioning. The client with a tracheostomy tube should be positioned with the head of the bed elevated. Correct suction pressure for the adult client is 80 to 120 mm Hg. Suction is applied intermittently during catheter withdrawal. Breath sounds should be assessed before the procedure to help determine the need for suctioning. The client should be hyperoxygenated with 100% oxygen before suctioning.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, incorrect suctioning procedure. Noting the words “to intervene,” which should tell you that the correct answer is an incorrect nursing action. Visualizing the procedure and recalling the principles of suctioning will direct you to the correct options. Review the procedure for suctioning. 7 / 96 A nurse is watching as an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) measure the blood pressure (BP) of a hypertensive client. Which actions on the part of the UAP would interfere with accurate measurement and prompt the nurse to intervene? Select all that apply. A. Measuring the BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes B. Having the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level C. Used a cuff with a rubber bladder that encircles at least 60% of the limb D. Measuring the BP after the client reports that he just drank a cup (236 ml) of coffee. E. Allowing the client to talk as the blood pressure is being measured The client should not smoke tobacco or drink a beverage containing caffeine for at least 30 minutes before having the BP measured. The bladder of the cuff should encircle at least 80% of the limb being measured. The client should be seated with the arm bared, positioned with support and at heart level. The client should sit with the legs on the floor, feet uncrossed, and not speak during the recording. The client should rest quietly for 5 minutes before the reading is taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, actions that would interfere with accurate BP measurement. Visualizing this procedure and reading each option carefully will assist you in eliminating the incorrect options. Review the principles related to blood pressure measurement. The client should not smoke tobacco or drink a beverage containing caffeine for at least 30 minutes before having the BP measured. The bladder of the cuff should encircle at least 80% of the limb being measured. The client should be seated with the arm bared, positioned with support and at heart level. The client should sit with the legs on the floor, feet uncrossed, and not speak during the recording. The client should rest quietly for 5 minutes before the reading is taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, actions that would interfere with accurate BP measurement. Visualizing this procedure and reading each option carefully will assist you in eliminating the incorrect options. Review the principles related to blood pressure measurement. 8 / 96 A nurse has a prescription to apply a Holter monitor to a client for continuous cardiac monitoring for a 24-hour period. What steps should the nurse take to initiate this prescription? Select all that apply A. Giving the client a device holder to wear around the waist B. Giving the client a diary in which to record activity and symptoms C. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours D. Instructing the client to enclose the monitor in plastic wrap before taking a bath E. Telling the client that occasional slight shocks from the monitor will be felt but that they are harmless The nurse applies electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring leads to the chest in the usual fashion and gives the client a sling or holder to carry the transistor radio–sized monitor (walkie-talkie), which is worn around the chest or waist. Clients undergoing Holter monitoring are instructed to maintain a normal schedule and to keep a diary of all activity and symptoms. The client is told to avoid activities — such as operating heavy machinery, electric shavers, or hairdryers; bathing; or showering — that could interfere with the ECG recording. The client does not feel any shocks from the device.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, procedure for a Holter monitor. Taking a bath while attached to a Holter monitor is contraindicated and slight shocks do not occur, so these options are eliminated first. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours is eliminated because it could prevent the client from experiencing dysrhythmias that the monitor is supposed to detect. Review the procedure for Holter monitoring. The nurse applies electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring leads to the chest in the usual fashion and gives the client a sling or holder to carry the transistor radio–sized monitor (walkie-talkie), which is worn around the chest or waist. Clients undergoing Holter monitoring are instructed to maintain a normal schedule and to keep a diary of all activity and symptoms. The client is told to avoid activities — such as operating heavy machinery, electric shavers, or hairdryers; bathing; or showering — that could interfere with the ECG recording. The client does not feel any shocks from the device.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, procedure for a Holter monitor. Taking a bath while attached to a Holter monitor is contraindicated and slight shocks do not occur, so these options are eliminated first. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours is eliminated because it could prevent the client from experiencing dysrhythmias that the monitor is supposed to detect. Review the procedure for Holter monitoring. 9 / 96 A nurse has a prescription to apply a Holter monitor to a client for continuous cardiac monitoring for a 24-hour period. What steps should the nurse take to initiate this prescription? Select all that apply A. Giving the client a device holder to wear around the waist B. Giving the client a diary in which to record activity and symptoms C. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours D. Instructing the client to enclose the monitor in plastic wrap before taking a bath E. Telling the client that occasional slight shocks from the monitor will be felt but that they are harmless The nurse applies electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring leads to the chest in the usual fashion and gives the client a sling or holder to carry the transistor radio–sized monitor (walkie-talkie), which is worn around the chest or waist. Clients undergoing Holter monitoring are instructed to maintain a normal schedule and to keep a diary of all activity and symptoms. The client is told to avoid activities — such as operating heavy machinery, electric shavers, or hairdryers; bathing; or showering — that could interfere with the ECG recording. The client does not feel any shocks from the device.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, procedure for a Holter monitor. Taking a bath while attached to a Holter monitor is contraindicated and slight shocks do not occur, so these options are eliminated first. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours is eliminated because it could prevent the client from experiencing dysrhythmias that the monitor is supposed to detect. Review the procedure for Holter monitoring. The nurse applies electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring leads to the chest in the usual fashion and gives the client a sling or holder to carry the transistor radio–sized monitor (walkie-talkie), which is worn around the chest or waist. Clients undergoing Holter monitoring are instructed to maintain a normal schedule and to keep a diary of all activity and symptoms. The client is told to avoid activities — such as operating heavy machinery, electric shavers, or hairdryers; bathing; or showering — that could interfere with the ECG recording. The client does not feel any shocks from the device.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, procedure for a Holter monitor. Taking a bath while attached to a Holter monitor is contraindicated and slight shocks do not occur, so these options are eliminated first. Telling the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours is eliminated because it could prevent the client from experiencing dysrhythmias that the monitor is supposed to detect. Review the procedure for Holter monitoring. 10 / 96 A client who underwent preadmission testing 1 week before surgery had blood drawn for several serum laboratory studies. Which abnormal laboratory results should the nurse report to the surgeon’s office? Select all that apply. A. Hematocrit 30% (0.30) B. Sodium 141 mEq/L (141 mmol/L) C. Hemoglobin 8.9 g/dL (89 g/L) D. Platelets 210× 103/μL (210 × 109/L) E. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (70 μmol/L) Routine screening tests include complete blood cell count, serum electrolyte analysis, coagulation studies, and serum creatinine tests. The complete blood cell count includes the hemoglobin and hematocrit analysis. All of these values are within their normal ranges except the hemoglobin and hematocrit. If a client has low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, the surgery may be postponed by the surgeon. The normal hemoglobin level for a male ranges from 13.2 to 17.3 g/dL (132-173 g/L) and for a female, 11.7 to 15.5 g/dL (117-155 g/L). The normal hematocrit for a male ranges from 39% to 50% ( 0.39-0.50) and for a female, 35% to 47% ( 0.35-0.47).Test-Taking Strategy: Note the word “abnormal” in the question and focus on the subject, laboratory results that could necessitate the postponement of surgery. Recalling the normal values for the laboratory studies identified in the options will direct you to the correct ones. Review these normal laboratory values Routine screening tests include complete blood cell count, serum electrolyte analysis, coagulation studies, and serum creatinine tests. The complete blood cell count includes the hemoglobin and hematocrit analysis. All of these values are within their normal ranges except the hemoglobin and hematocrit. If a client has low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, the surgery may be postponed by the surgeon. The normal hemoglobin level for a male ranges from 13.2 to 17.3 g/dL (132-173 g/L) and for a female, 11.7 to 15.5 g/dL (117-155 g/L). The normal hematocrit for a male ranges from 39% to 50% ( 0.39-0.50) and for a female, 35% to 47% ( 0.35-0.47).Test-Taking Strategy: Note the word “abnormal” in the question and focus on the subject, laboratory results that could necessitate the postponement of surgery. Recalling the normal values for the laboratory studies identified in the options will direct you to the correct ones. Review these normal laboratory values 11 / 96 A nurse is assessing a client who has a closed chest tube drainage system. The nurse notes constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. What actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply). A. Clamp the chest tube B. Change the drainage system C. Assess the system for an external air leak D. Reduce the degree of suction being applied E. Document assessment findings, actions taken, and client response Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber of a closed chest tube drainage system may indicate the presence of an air leak. The nurse would assess the chest tube system for the presence of an external air leak if constant bubbling were noted in this chamber. If an external air leak is not present and the air leak is a new occurrence, the health care provider is notified immediately, because an air leak may be present in the pleural space. Leakage and trapping of air in the pleural space can result in a tension pneumothorax. Clamping the chest tube is incorrect. Additionally, a chest tube is not clamped unless this has been specifically prescribed in the agency’s policies and procedures. Changing the drainage system will not alleviate the problem. Reducing the degree of suction being applied will not affect the bubbling in the water seal chamber and could be harmful. The nurse would document the assessment findings and interventions taken in the client’s medical record.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question, noting that there is bubbling in the water seal chamber. Use knowledge regarding the priority actions in the care of a closed chest tube drainage system. Recalling that this may indicate an air leak will direct you to the correct options. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event that complications of a closed chest tube drainage system occur Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber of a closed chest tube drainage system may indicate the presence of an air leak. The nurse would assess the chest tube system for the presence of an external air leak if constant bubbling were noted in this chamber. If an external air leak is not present and the air leak is a new occurrence, the health care provider is notified immediately, because an air leak may be present in the pleural space. Leakage and trapping of air in the pleural space can result in a tension pneumothorax. Clamping the chest tube is incorrect. Additionally, a chest tube is not clamped unless this has been specifically prescribed in the agency’s policies and procedures. Changing the drainage system will not alleviate the problem. Reducing the degree of suction being applied will not affect the bubbling in the water seal chamber and could be harmful. The nurse would document the assessment findings and interventions taken in the client’s medical record.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question, noting that there is bubbling in the water seal chamber. Use knowledge regarding the priority actions in the care of a closed chest tube drainage system. Recalling that this may indicate an air leak will direct you to the correct options. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately in the event that complications of a closed chest tube drainage system occur 12 / 96 A client arrives in the emergency department for treatment of a surface injury sustained when sand blew into the eye. Which action does the nurse take first? A. Assessing the client’s vision B. Placing ice on the eye C. Removing the sand particles D. Irrigating the eye with sterile saline solution When a client has sustained a surface injury of the eye as a result of the introduction of a foreign body, the nurse must first assess visual acuity. The eye is then assessed for corneal abrasions; this is followed by irrigation with sterile normal saline solution to gently remove the particles. Ice would be placed on the eye if the client had sustained an eye contusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. The correct option is the only one that involves assessment. Eliminate the options that reflect implementation. Review content related to the initial treatment of various eye injuries if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 1072). St. Louis: Saunders.Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying When a client has sustained a surface injury of the eye as a result of the introduction of a foreign body, the nurse must first assess visual acuity. The eye is then assessed for corneal abrasions; this is followed by irrigation with sterile normal saline solution to gently remove the particles. Ice would be placed on the eye if the client had sustained an eye contusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the steps of the nursing process to answer the question. The correct option is the only one that involves assessment. Eliminate the options that reflect implementation. Review content related to the initial treatment of various eye injuries if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 1072). St. Louis: Saunders.Level of Cognitive Ability: Applying 13 / 96 A nurse receives a telephone call from a neighbor, who says that her child was just hit in the eye with a swing. The nurse rushes to the neighbor’s house and notes that the child has sustained a contusion of the eye. The nurse advises the child’s mother to immediately: A. Call an ambulance B. Call an optometrist C. Apply ice to the affected eye D. Irrigate the eye with cool water Treatment for a contusion ideally begins at the time of injury and includes the application of ice to the site. Although the child should also undergo a thorough eye examination to rule out other injuries, calling an optometrist is not the first action to be taken. Irrigating the eye with cool water may be implemented for injuries that involve a splash of an irritant into the eye. It is not necessary to call an ambulance.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “immediately.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., calling an ambulance or an optometrist). To select from the remaining options, focus on the type of injury that has been sustained, which will direct you to the correct option. Review initial treatment after an eye contusion if you had difficulty with this question. References: Hockenberry, M., & Wilson, D. (2013). Wong’s Essentials of pediatric nursing (9th ed., p. 586). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., Perry, A. G., Stockert, P. A., & Hall, A. M. (2013). Fundamentals of nursing. (8th ed., p. 1212). St. Louis: Mosby. Treatment for a contusion ideally begins at the time of injury and includes the application of ice to the site. Although the child should also undergo a thorough eye examination to rule out other injuries, calling an optometrist is not the first action to be taken. Irrigating the eye with cool water may be implemented for injuries that involve a splash of an irritant into the eye. It is not necessary to call an ambulance.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “immediately.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike (i.e., calling an ambulance or an optometrist). To select from the remaining options, focus on the type of injury that has been sustained, which will direct you to the correct option. Review initial treatment after an eye contusion if you had difficulty with this question. References: Hockenberry, M., & Wilson, D. (2013). Wong’s Essentials of pediatric nursing (9th ed., p. 586). St. Louis: Mosby.Potter, P., Perry, A. G., Stockert, P. A., & Hall, A. M. (2013). Fundamentals of nursing. (8th ed., p. 1212). St. Louis: Mosby. 14 / 96 A nurse provides home care instructions to a client after a scleral buckling procedure. The nurse should tell the client: A. To maintain strict bedrest for 48 hours B. To expect bloody drainage on the eye dressing C. That vision will be perfectly clear immediately after surgery D. That redness and swelling of the eyelids and conjunctiva are expected The scleral buckling procedure is performed to treat retinal detachment. In the preoperative period the nurse places an eye patch over the client’s affected eye to reduce eye movement. Some clients may require bilateral patching. Redness and swelling of the eyelids and conjunctiva, the result of surgical manipulation, are expected. Blood loss in retinal detachment surgery is minimal, and only serous drainage is expected on the postoperative dressing. The client should not expect immediate return of vision. Postoperative inflammation and eye drops interfere with vision. Because healing takes place over weeks to months, vision will improve gradually. Strict bedrest for 48 hours is not required; however, depending on the location and size of the retinal break, activity restrictions may be needed to prevent further tearing or detachment and to promote drainage of any subretinal fluid.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options containing the words “strict” and “perfectly clear.” To select from the remaining options, recall that redness and swelling of the eye occur as a result of surgical manipulation. Review client instructions after scleral buckling if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 397). St. Louis: Mosby. The scleral buckling procedure is performed to treat retinal detachment. In the preoperative period the nurse places an eye patch over the client’s affected eye to reduce eye movement. Some clients may require bilateral patching. Redness and swelling of the eyelids and conjunctiva, the result of surgical manipulation, are expected. Blood loss in retinal detachment surgery is minimal, and only serous drainage is expected on the postoperative dressing. The client should not expect immediate return of vision. Postoperative inflammation and eye drops interfere with vision. Because healing takes place over weeks to months, vision will improve gradually. Strict bedrest for 48 hours is not required; however, depending on the location and size of the retinal break, activity restrictions may be needed to prevent further tearing or detachment and to promote drainage of any subretinal fluid.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the options containing the words “strict” and “perfectly clear.” To select from the remaining options, recall that redness and swelling of the eye occur as a result of surgical manipulation. Review client instructions after scleral buckling if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 397). St. Louis: Mosby. 15 / 96 During a client’s yearly eye examination, the nurse checks the intraocular pressure. The nurse notes that the pressure in the right eye is 12 mm Hg and 19 mm Hg in the left. The nurse tells the client: A. That he has glaucoma in the left eye B. That he has glaucoma in the right eye C. That the intraocular pressure in both eyes is normal D. That he needs to increase his fluid intake, because the pressure in the right eye is low Normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mm Hg. Therefore this client’s intraocular pressure is normal. Increased intake of fluids is unrelated to increasing intraocular pressure.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge that normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mm Hg will help you identify the correct option. Review this normal finding and the findings in glaucoma if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 399). St. Louis: Mosby. Normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mm Hg. Therefore this client’s intraocular pressure is normal. Increased intake of fluids is unrelated to increasing intraocular pressure.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge that normal intraocular pressure ranges from 10 to 21 mm Hg will help you identify the correct option. Review this normal finding and the findings in glaucoma if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 399). St. Louis: Mosby. 16 / 96 A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client after outpatient surgery for cataract removal. The nurse determines that the client needs additional instructions if the client indicates that he will: A. Limit activity for 24 hours B. Take acetaminophen for discomfort C. Leave the eye patch in place until he has been seen by the health care provider D. Expect to experience pain, nausea, and vomiting after the procedure If the client experiences any pain that is unrelieved, redness around the eye, or nausea or vomiting, the health care provider must be notified, because such findings could be an indication of increased intraocular pressure. Usually the client is given a follow-up appointment on the day after the surgery, and the health care provider removes the eye patch at this time. The client is instructed to limit activity to sitting in a chair, resting, and walking to the bathroom for 24 hours. Aspirin or medications containing aspirin should not be taken by the client; rather, acetaminophen should be used to alleviate discomfort.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling the signs of increased intraocular pressure will direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review the discharge instructions for the client after cataract extraction.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 395). St. Louis: Mosby. If the client experiences any pain that is unrelieved, redness around the eye, or nausea or vomiting, the health care provider must be notified, because such findings could be an indication of increased intraocular pressure. Usually the client is given a follow-up appointment on the day after the surgery, and the health care provider removes the eye patch at this time. The client is instructed to limit activity to sitting in a chair, resting, and walking to the bathroom for 24 hours. Aspirin or medications containing aspirin should not be taken by the client; rather, acetaminophen should be used to alleviate discomfort.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling the signs of increased intraocular pressure will direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review the discharge instructions for the client after cataract extraction.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 395). St. Louis: Mosby. 17 / 96 A client is transported to the recovery area of the ambulatory care unit after cataract surgery. In which position does the nurse place the client? A. Supine B. Semi-Fowler C. On the side that has undergone surgery D. Prone on the side that has undergone surgery After cataract extraction surgery, the client should be placed in the semi-Fowler position or on the unaffected side to prevent edema at the surgical site. Supine, on the affected side, and prone are all incorrect because they will result in increased edema at the site.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they are flat positions. To select from the remaining options, remember that local edema may occur after the trauma of surgery. Use the principles of gravity and measures to prevent accumulation of fluid around the surgical site to direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review care of the client immediately after cataract surgery. References: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 390, 393-394). St. Louis: Mosby.Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., p. 426). St. Louis: Mosby. After cataract extraction surgery, the client should be placed in the semi-Fowler position or on the unaffected side to prevent edema at the surgical site. Supine, on the affected side, and prone are all incorrect because they will result in increased edema at the site.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they are flat positions. To select from the remaining options, remember that local edema may occur after the trauma of surgery. Use the principles of gravity and measures to prevent accumulation of fluid around the surgical site to direct you to the correct option. If you had difficulty with this question, review care of the client immediately after cataract surgery. References: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 390, 393-394). St. Louis: Mosby.Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., p. 426). St. Louis: Mosby. 18 / 96 A nurse provides home care instructions to a client with Ménière disease about measures to control and treat vertigo. The nurse should tell the client to: A. Limit sodium in the diet B. Increase fluid intake to at least 3000 mL/day C. Lie down when vertigo occurs and keep a light on in the room D. Move the head from the right to the left when vertigo occurs to determine the extent of its effects Limiting and fluids in the diet will help reduce the amount of endolymphatic fluid, which is excessive in Ménière disease. The client’s room should be darkened to reduce the acute symptoms of vertigo. The client should limit head movement to prevent worsening of the symptoms of vertigo.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling the pathophysiology of Ménière disease and remembering that the disease is caused by excess endolymph will direct you to the correct option. Review the measures that will reduce vertigo in the client with Ménière disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1096-1097). St. Louis: Saunders. Limiting and fluids in the diet will help reduce the amount of endolymphatic fluid, which is excessive in Ménière disease. The client’s room should be darkened to reduce the acute symptoms of vertigo. The client should limit head movement to prevent worsening of the symptoms of vertigo.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling the pathophysiology of Ménière disease and remembering that the disease is caused by excess endolymph will direct you to the correct option. Review the measures that will reduce vertigo in the client with Ménière disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1096-1097). St. Louis: Saunders. 19 / 96 A stapedectomy is performed on a client with otosclerosis. During the preparations for discharge, which home care instruction does the nurse give the client? A. Expect excessive ear drainage for about 2 weeks. B. Avoid rapidly moving the head and bending over for at least 3 weeks. C. Rinse the ear canal at least twice a day to clear out any excess drainage. D. It is all right to shower as long as the ear dressing is changed immediately after the shower. The client must avoid rapidly moving the head, bouncing, and bending over for at least 3 weeks to prevent disruption of the surgical site. The client should keep the affected ear dry at all times and should avoid getting the head wet, washing the hair, or showering for 1 week. The client should not rinse out the ear. The client also needs to avoid drinking through a straw for 2 to 3 weeks because the sucking action necessary to use the straw could cause disruption of the surgical site. The client should notify the health care provider if excessive ear drainage is noted.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the option containing the word “excessive.” Recalling that the ear needs to remain dry will assist you in eliminating the option that involves showering. To select from the remaining options, think about each action and its effect on the ear. This will direct you to the correct option. Review care after stapedectomy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1102-1103). St. Louis: Saunders. The client must avoid rapidly moving the head, bouncing, and bending over for at least 3 weeks to prevent disruption of the surgical site. The client should keep the affected ear dry at all times and should avoid getting the head wet, washing the hair, or showering for 1 week. The client should not rinse out the ear. The client also needs to avoid drinking through a straw for 2 to 3 weeks because the sucking action necessary to use the straw could cause disruption of the surgical site. The client should notify the health care provider if excessive ear drainage is noted.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate first the option containing the word “excessive.” Recalling that the ear needs to remain dry will assist you in eliminating the option that involves showering. To select from the remaining options, think about each action and its effect on the ear. This will direct you to the correct option. Review care after stapedectomy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., pp. 1102-1103). St. Louis: Saunders. 20 / 96 A nurse is providing instructions to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) about effective measures for communicating with a hearing-impaired client. The nurse instructs the UAP to: A. Raise his voice when talking to the client B. Talk directly into the client’s impaired ear C. Be cordial and smile when talking to the client D. Face the client when talking, keeping the hands away from the mouth To facilitate communication with a client who is hearing impaired, the nurse should speak in a normal tone, not shout or raise the voice. The nurse should speak clearly and directly while facing the client and keep the hands away from the mouth so that the client can read the nurse’s lips. It may be helpful for the nurse to move closer to the client and toward the better ear to facilitate communication, but it is not helpful to talk directly into the client’s impaired ear. Smiling while talking will make it difficult for the client to lipread.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, communicating with a hearing-impaired client. Visualizing each of the options will direct you to the correct one. Review these communication techniques if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 410). St. Louis: Mosby. To facilitate communication with a client who is hearing impaired, the nurse should speak in a normal tone, not shout or raise the voice. The nurse should speak clearly and directly while facing the client and keep the hands away from the mouth so that the client can read the nurse’s lips. It may be helpful for the nurse to move closer to the client and toward the better ear to facilitate communication, but it is not helpful to talk directly into the client’s impaired ear. Smiling while talking will make it difficult for the client to lipread.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, communicating with a hearing-impaired client. Visualizing each of the options will direct you to the correct one. Review these communication techniques if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 410). St. Louis: Mosby. 21 / 96 A nurse provides instructions to a client about measures to prevent an acute attack of gout. The nurse determines that the client needs additional instructions if the client states: A. “It’s important for me to drink a lot of fluids.” B. “A fad diet or starvation diet can cause an acute attack.” C. “I don’t need medication unless I’m having a severe attack.” D. “Physical and emotional stress can cause an attack.” Treatment of gout includes both nutrition and medication therapy. The client should be encouraged to limit the use of alcohol and reduce the consumption of foods high in purines. Such foods include sardines, herring, mussels, liver, kidney, goose, venison, and sweetbreads. Medication therapy is a primary component of management for clients with gout, and the health care provider normally prescribes a medication that will promote uric acid excretion or reduce its production. Fluid intake is important in preventing the development of uric acid stones. Fad or starvation diets can precipitate an acute attack because of the rapid breakdown of cells they induce. Excessive physical and emotional stress can exacerbate the disease.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and your knowledge of the treatment for gout. Also note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recall that in this disorder the client experiences an increased uric acid level and that medications are needed to promote the acid’s excretion. Review the management of gout if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1577). St. Louis: Mosby. Treatment of gout includes both nutrition and medication therapy. The client should be encouraged to limit the use of alcohol and reduce the consumption of foods high in purines. Such foods include sardines, herring, mussels, liver, kidney, goose, venison, and sweetbreads. Medication therapy is a primary component of management for clients with gout, and the health care provider normally prescribes a medication that will promote uric acid excretion or reduce its production. Fluid intake is important in preventing the development of uric acid stones. Fad or starvation diets can precipitate an acute attack because of the rapid breakdown of cells they induce. Excessive physical and emotional stress can exacerbate the disease.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and your knowledge of the treatment for gout. Also note the strategic words “needs additional instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recall that in this disorder the client experiences an increased uric acid level and that medications are needed to promote the acid’s excretion. Review the management of gout if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1577). St. Louis: Mosby. 22 / 96 A nurse provides instructions to a client with rheumatoid arthritis about joint exercises that are important to prevent deformity and reduce pain. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instruction? A. “I should always maintain good posture.” B. “I should stop my exercises if I get tired.” C. “I should avoid all exercise when my joints are inflamed.” D. “Doing range-of-motion exercises every day will ease the pain.” The client should avoid activities (other than gentle range of motion) when the joints are inflamed. Isometric exercises are also helpful when the joints are inflamed. Daily range-of-motion exercises are an important component of the program and will help relieve pain, but the client should exercise only to the point of fatigue or discomfort. All clients are taught to maintain good posture.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Noting the closed-ended word “all” will direct you to the correct option. Review exercise instructions for the client with rheumatoid arthritis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1574-1576). St. Louis: Mosby. The client should avoid activities (other than gentle range of motion) when the joints are inflamed. Isometric exercises are also helpful when the joints are inflamed. Daily range-of-motion exercises are an important component of the program and will help relieve pain, but the client should exercise only to the point of fatigue or discomfort. All clients are taught to maintain good posture.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Noting the closed-ended word “all” will direct you to the correct option. Review exercise instructions for the client with rheumatoid arthritis if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1574-1576). St. Louis: Mosby. 23 / 96 A nurse provides home care instructions to a client with a below-the-knee amputation (BKA) about residual limb and prosthesis care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? A. “I should wear a sock over my stump.” B. “I can wash my leg with a mild soap.” C. “I need to check my leg for irritation every day.” D. “I’ll put lotion on my leg a few times a day.” The client should be instructed to don the prosthesis immediately on arising and to keep it on all day (once the incision has healed completely) to reduce residual limb swelling. “I can wash my leg with a mild soap,” “I need to check my leg for irritation every day,” and “I should wear a sock over my stump” are correct statements regarding residual limb and prosthesis care. The client should not use any lotions, alcohol-containing powders, or oils on the residual limb unless told to do so by the healthcare provider. The client should also perform range-of-motion exercises of the joints, as well as strengthening exercises, including the upper extremities, every day.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling that the prosthesis is used to reduce residual limb edema will direct you to the correct option. Review client instructions regarding prosthesis and residual limb care if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1533). St. Louis: Mosby. The client should be instructed to don the prosthesis immediately on arising and to keep it on all day (once the incision has healed completely) to reduce residual limb swelling. “I can wash my leg with a mild soap,” “I need to check my leg for irritation every day,” and “I should wear a sock over my stump” are correct statements regarding residual limb and prosthesis care. The client should not use any lotions, alcohol-containing powders, or oils on the residual limb unless told to do so by the healthcare provider. The client should also perform range-of-motion exercises of the joints, as well as strengthening exercises, including the upper extremities, every day.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling that the prosthesis is used to reduce residual limb edema will direct you to the correct option. Review client instructions regarding prosthesis and residual limb care if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1533). St. Louis: Mosby. 24 / 96 Buck extension traction is applied to the right leg of a client who sustained a right hip fracture. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Assessing the pin sites at least every 8 hours B. Removing the traction weights to provide skin care C. Applying lanolin to the skin of the right leg once per shift D. Checking the skin integrity of the right leg at least every 8 hours Buck extension traction is a type of skin traction. It is important with skin traction to inspect the skin underneath at least once every 8 hours for irritation or inflammation. The nurse never releases the weights of traction unless specifically asked to do so by the health care provider. Applying lanolin to the skin could leave the skin slippery, making it difficult to maintain the belt or boot used for the skin traction. There are no pins to care for with skin traction.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that Buck extension traction is a type of skin traction will assist you in eliminating the option of assessing the pin sites. Next eliminate the option that indicates that the nurse may remove traction weights without a specific prescription to do so. To select from the remaining options, use the steps of the nursing process. The correct option addresses assessment. Review care of the client in Buck traction if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 258, 266). St. Louis: Mosby. Buck extension traction is a type of skin traction. It is important with skin traction to inspect the skin underneath at least once every 8 hours for irritation or inflammation. The nurse never releases the weights of traction unless specifically asked to do so by the health care provider. Applying lanolin to the skin could leave the skin slippery, making it difficult to maintain the belt or boot used for the skin traction. There are no pins to care for with skin traction.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that Buck extension traction is a type of skin traction will assist you in eliminating the option of assessing the pin sites. Next eliminate the option that indicates that the nurse may remove traction weights without a specific prescription to do so. To select from the remaining options, use the steps of the nursing process. The correct option addresses assessment. Review care of the client in Buck traction if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 258, 266). St. Louis: Mosby. 25 / 96 A client with a leg fracture who has been placed in skeletal traction is transported to the orthopedic unit after surgery. Which finding would indicate the need to contact the orthopedic specialist? A. The traction knots are intact. B. The traction weights are hanging freely. C. The clamps on the traction frame are tight D. The traction ropes are unable to move over the pulleys. After skeletal traction pins are inserted and traction is applied, all ropes, knots, and pulleys are inspected to ensure that they are positioned properly. Traction knots and ropes must be intact and secure. Ropes should move easily over pulleys and weights, and the weights should hang freely at all times. The clamps on the traction frame should be tight.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need to contact the orthopedic specialist,” which indicate the need to select the option that constitutes an unsafe or incorrect observation. Noting the words “unable to move over the pulleys” will help you identify to the correct option. Review care of the client in skeletal traction if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 263, 265-266). St. Louis: Mosby. After skeletal traction pins are inserted and traction is applied, all ropes, knots, and pulleys are inspected to ensure that they are positioned properly. Traction knots and ropes must be intact and secure. Ropes should move easily over pulleys and weights, and the weights should hang freely at all times. The clamps on the traction frame should be tight.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need to contact the orthopedic specialist,” which indicate the need to select the option that constitutes an unsafe or incorrect observation. Noting the words “unable to move over the pulleys” will help you identify to the correct option. Review care of the client in skeletal traction if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 263, 265-266). St. Louis: Mosby. 26 / 96 A client has just had a plaster leg cast applied, and the nurse has given the client instructions on cast care. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further instruction? A. “I may feel cool while the cast is drying.” B. “I shouldn’t use anything to scratch underneath the cast.” C. “If I smell any odor from the cast, I should call the doctor.” D. “I can dry the cast faster if I use a hairdryer on the hot setting.” Using a blow dryer on the hot setting to dry the cast is not advised because it may burn the client’s skin under the cast and crack the cast. While the cast is still damp, the client may feel cold and may experience a decrease in body temperature. The client should never insert any item under the cast because of the risk skin compromise. An odor coming from the cast could indicate the presence of infection, warranting health care provider notification.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling that the use of a hot blow dryer can cause burns will direct you to this option. Review client teaching points in regard to cast care if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 253-254). St. Louis: Mosby. Using a blow dryer on the hot setting to dry the cast is not advised because it may burn the client’s skin under the cast and crack the cast. While the cast is still damp, the client may feel cold and may experience a decrease in body temperature. The client should never insert any item under the cast because of the risk skin compromise. An odor coming from the cast could indicate the presence of infection, warranting health care provider notification.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “need for further instruction,” which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Recalling that the use of a hot blow dryer can cause burns will direct you to this option. Review client teaching points in regard to cast care if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 253-254). St. Louis: Mosby. 27 / 96 A client who sustained a fracture of the left arm requires the application of a plaster cast. The nurse tells the client that the procedure for applying the cast involves: A. Administering a local anesthetic to the fractured arm B. Soaking the left arm in a warm-water bath for 2 hours before cast application C. Debriding any open wounds and applying antibiotic ointment before the cast material is applied D. Applying soft padding and stockinette over the fractured arm, followed by the application of the cast material To apply a cast, the skin is washed and dried well, but it is not soaked in a warm-water bath. Padding is applied and a stockinette is placed smoothly and evenly over the area to be casted. The plaster is then rolled onto the padding and the edges are trimmed or smoothed as needed. Local anesthesia of the fractured extremity is not necessary, although an analgesic may be administered to alleviate pain. A local anesthetic will block nerve sensation, and it is important for the client to be able to report any changes in sensations after the cast is applied. If the client has open wounds on the fractured extremity, a window will be cut in the cast to allow visualization and treatment of the wound. A wound would not be covered with cast material.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option containing the words “2 hours.” Next eliminate the option that involves administration of a local anesthetic, recalling that a local anesthetic will block nerve sensation. Recognizing that covering an open wound with a cast material would not permit assessment of the wound will allow you to eliminate this option. Review client instructions regarding the application of a plaster cast if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 251-253). St. Louis: Mosby. To apply a cast, the skin is washed and dried well, but it is not soaked in a warm-water bath. Padding is applied and a stockinette is placed smoothly and evenly over the area to be casted. The plaster is then rolled onto the padding and the edges are trimmed or smoothed as needed. Local anesthesia of the fractured extremity is not necessary, although an analgesic may be administered to alleviate pain. A local anesthetic will block nerve sensation, and it is important for the client to be able to report any changes in sensations after the cast is applied. If the client has open wounds on the fractured extremity, a window will be cut in the cast to allow visualization and treatment of the wound. A wound would not be covered with cast material.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option containing the words “2 hours.” Next eliminate the option that involves administration of a local anesthetic, recalling that a local anesthetic will block nerve sensation. Recognizing that covering an open wound with a cast material would not permit assessment of the wound will allow you to eliminate this option. Review client instructions regarding the application of a plaster cast if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 251-253). St. Louis: Mosby. 28 / 96 A client is found to have AIDS. What is the nurse’s highest priority in providing care to this client? A. Providing emotional support to the client B. Discussing the cause of AIDS with the client C. Instituting measures to prevent infection in the client D. Identifying risk factors related to contracting AIDS with the client The client with AIDS has inadequate immune bodies and is at risk for infection. The priority nursing intervention is protecting the client from infection. The nurse would also provide emotional support to the client. Discussing the cause of AIDS and the ways in which AIDS is contracted are not priority interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “highest priority.” Use Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory to answer the question. Remember that physiological needs are the priority. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the priority needs of a client with AIDS if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 239-240, 242). St. Louis: Mosby The client with AIDS has inadequate immune bodies and is at risk for infection. The priority nursing intervention is protecting the client from infection. The nurse would also provide emotional support to the client. Discussing the cause of AIDS and the ways in which AIDS is contracted are not priority interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “highest priority.” Use Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory to answer the question. Remember that physiological needs are the priority. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the priority needs of a client with AIDS if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 239-240, 242). St. Louis: Mosby 29 / 96 A client arrives at the emergency department with reports of a headache, hives, itching, and difficulty swallowing. The client states that he took ibuprofen (Motrin) 1 hour earlier and believes that he is experiencing an allergic reaction to this medication. After ensuring that the client has a patent airway, which intervention does the nurse prepare the client for first? A. Administration of normal saline solution B. Administration of an intravenous (IV) glucocorticoid C. Administration of pain medication to relieve the client’s headache D. Administration of a subcutaneous injection of epinephrine (Adrenalin) Once airway has been established, the client would be given subcutaneous epinephrine. IV corticosteroids and IV fluids may also be prescribed. Pain medication may or may not be prescribed.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. All of the interventions in the options may be prescribed for the client experiencing a hypersensitivity reaction. Remember that once airway is established, the client will receive epinephrine. Review care of the client who experiences an allergic reaction if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 214). St. Louis: Mosby. Once airway has been established, the client would be given subcutaneous epinephrine. IV corticosteroids and IV fluids may also be prescribed. Pain medication may or may not be prescribed.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. All of the interventions in the options may be prescribed for the client experiencing a hypersensitivity reaction. Remember that once airway is established, the client will receive epinephrine. Review care of the client who experiences an allergic reaction if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 214). St. Louis: Mosby. 30 / 96 A nurse is assessing a client with AIDS for signs of Pneumocystis jiroveci infection. Which sign of the infection is the earliest manifestation? A. Fever B. Dyspnea at rest C. Dyspnea on exertion D. Nonproductive cough The client with P. jiroveci infection usually has a cough as the first symptom, which begins as nonproductive then progresses to productive. Later signs include fever, dyspnea on exertion, and finally dyspnea at rest.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “earliest.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve dyspnea. To select from the remaining options, focus on the anatomical location of the infection, which will direct you to the correct option. Review the early manifestations of P. jiroveci infection if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 236). St. Louis: Mosby. The client with P. jiroveci infection usually has a cough as the first symptom, which begins as nonproductive then progresses to productive. Later signs include fever, dyspnea on exertion, and finally dyspnea at rest.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “earliest.” Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve dyspnea. To select from the remaining options, focus on the anatomical location of the infection, which will direct you to the correct option. Review the early manifestations of P. jiroveci infection if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 236). St. Louis: Mosby. 31 / 96 An emergency department (ED) nurse receives a telephone call from emergency medical services and is told that a client who has sustained severe burns of the face and upper arms is being transported to the ED. Which action does the nurse, preparing for the arrival of the client, plan to implement first? A. Inserting a Foley catheter B. Initiating an intravenous (IV) line C. Cleansing the burn wound D. Administering 100% humidified oxygen When a victim who sustains a burn injury arrives at the ED, breathing is assessed, a patent airway is established, and the client is given 100% humidified oxygen. Inserting a Foley catheter, initiating an IV line, and cleansing the burn wound are also components of the plan of care for a burned client, but these are not the immediate actions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to answer the question. The correct option is the only one related to the airway. Review care of the burned client if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 456). St. Louis: Mosby. When a victim who sustains a burn injury arrives at the ED, breathing is assessed, a patent airway is established, and the client is given 100% humidified oxygen. Inserting a Foley catheter, initiating an IV line, and cleansing the burn wound are also components of the plan of care for a burned client, but these are not the immediate actions.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to answer the question. The correct option is the only one related to the airway. Review care of the burned client if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 456). St. Louis: Mosby. 32 / 96 A nurse is monitoring a client who has just undergone radical neck dissection. The nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure has dropped from 132/84 to 90/50 mm Hg and that the pulse has increased from 78 to 96 beats/min. On the basis of these findings, the nurse immediately: A. Suctions the client B. Obtains a pulse oximeter C. Contacts the health care provider D. Increases the rate of the client’s intravenous (IV) solution In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse assesses the client for stridor (a coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration when auscultating over the trachea), a sign of airway edema, and for signs of bleeding. A drop in blood pressure and an increase in pulse are indicators of bleeding. The health care provider is notified immediately if either of these events occurs. Suctioning is performed to remove secretions that cannot be expectorated by the client. Increasing the rate of the client’s IV solution is not done without a health care provider’s prescription. A pulse oximeter may be needed, but this is not the action to be taken immediately.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Focus on the data in the question and note that the nurse’s findings indicate bleeding. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately if bleeding occurs if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 513, 1200-1201). St. Louis: Mosby. In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse assesses the client for stridor (a coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration when auscultating over the trachea), a sign of airway edema, and for signs of bleeding. A drop in blood pressure and an increase in pulse are indicators of bleeding. The health care provider is notified immediately if either of these events occurs. Suctioning is performed to remove secretions that cannot be expectorated by the client. Increasing the rate of the client’s IV solution is not done without a health care provider’s prescription. A pulse oximeter may be needed, but this is not the action to be taken immediately.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Focus on the data in the question and note that the nurse’s findings indicate bleeding. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the nursing actions to be taken immediately if bleeding occurs if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 513, 1200-1201). St. Louis: Mosby. 33 / 96 A client with a spinal cord injury suddenly complains of a pounding headache. The nurse quickly assesses the client and notes that the client is diaphoretic, that his blood pressure has increased, and that his heart rate has slowed. Suspecting that the client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, the nurse elevates the head of the client’s bed and immediately: A. Documents the event B. Notifies the healthcare provider C. Checks the client’s bladder for distention D. Checks to see whether the client has a prescription for an antihypertensive Autonomic dysreflexia is an emergency that occurs as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli that are innocuous in normal individuals. It occurs only after spinal shock has resolved. A variety of stimuli may trigger this response, including a distended bladder (the most common cause); distention or contraction of the visceral organs, especially the bowel (as a result of constipation or impaction); or stimulation of the skin. When autonomic dysreflexia occurs, the client is immediately placed in a sitting position to lower the blood pressure. The nurse then performs a rapid assessment to identify and alleviate the cause. The client’s bladder is emptied immediately by way of a urinary catheter, the rectum is checked for the presence of a fecal mass, and the skin is examined for areas of pressure, irritation, or compromise. The health care provider is notified, and then the nurse documents the occurrence and the actions taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and note that the nurse has already elevated the head of the client’s bed. Next, recall that autonomic dysreflexia occurs as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli, which will direct you to the correct option. Review immediate interventions for autonomic dysreflexia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1479-1480). St. Louis: Mosby. Autonomic dysreflexia is an emergency that occurs as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli that are innocuous in normal individuals. It occurs only after spinal shock has resolved. A variety of stimuli may trigger this response, including a distended bladder (the most common cause); distention or contraction of the visceral organs, especially the bowel (as a result of constipation or impaction); or stimulation of the skin. When autonomic dysreflexia occurs, the client is immediately placed in a sitting position to lower the blood pressure. The nurse then performs a rapid assessment to identify and alleviate the cause. The client’s bladder is emptied immediately by way of a urinary catheter, the rectum is checked for the presence of a fecal mass, and the skin is examined for areas of pressure, irritation, or compromise. The health care provider is notified, and then the nurse documents the occurrence and the actions taken.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and note that the nurse has already elevated the head of the client’s bed. Next, recall that autonomic dysreflexia occurs as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses to stimuli, which will direct you to the correct option. Review immediate interventions for autonomic dysreflexia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1479-1480). St. Louis: Mosby. 34 / 96 A nurse is providing home care instructions to a client with Parkinson disease about measures to avoid rigidity and to overcome tremor and bradykinesia. The nurse tells the client to: A. Sit in soft, deep chairs B. Rock back and forth to start movement C. Exercise in the evening to combat fatigue D. Perform tasks with only the hand that has the tremor The client with Parkinson disease should rock back and forth to initiate movement with bradykinesia (slowed movement). The client should avoid sitting in soft, deep chairs to prevent rigidity and because they are difficult to get up from. The client should exercise in the morning, when the energy level at its highest. The client with a tremor is instructed to use both hands to accomplish a task.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option that uses the closed-ended word “only” first. To select correctly from the remaining options, recall that bradykinesia means slowed movement to identify the correct option. Review client teaching points for Parkinson’s disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1434). St. Louis: Mosby. The client with Parkinson disease should rock back and forth to initiate movement with bradykinesia (slowed movement). The client should avoid sitting in soft, deep chairs to prevent rigidity and because they are difficult to get up from. The client should exercise in the morning, when the energy level at its highest. The client with a tremor is instructed to use both hands to accomplish a task.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the option that uses the closed-ended word “only” first. To select correctly from the remaining options, recall that bradykinesia means slowed movement to identify the correct option. Review client teaching points for Parkinson’s disease if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1434). St. Louis: Mosby. 35 / 96 A nurse is teaching a client who is experiencing homonymous hemianopsia after a brain attack (stroke) about measures to overcome the deficit. The nurse tells the client to: A. Wear eyeglasses 24 hours a day B. Wear a patch on the affected eye C. Turn the head to scan the lost visual field D. Keep all objects in the impaired field of vision Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field. The nurse instructs the client to scan the environment to overcome the visual deficit. The nurse encourages the use of personal eyeglasses to improve overall vision, but it is not necessary to wear the glasses 24 hours a day. The client should keep objects in the intact field of vision whenever possible. An eye patch is of no use because the client does not have double vision.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with homonymous hemianopsia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1350, 1407). St. Louis: Mosby. Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field. The nurse instructs the client to scan the environment to overcome the visual deficit. The nurse encourages the use of personal eyeglasses to improve overall vision, but it is not necessary to wear the glasses 24 hours a day. The client should keep objects in the intact field of vision whenever possible. An eye patch is of no use because the client does not have double vision.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Recalling that homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with homonymous hemianopsia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 1350, 1407). St. Louis: Mosby. 36 / 96 A client who is recovering from a brain attack (stroke) has residual dysphagia. Which measure does the nurse plan to implement at mealtimes? A. Giving the client thin liquids B. Alternating liquids with solids C. Giving foods that are primarily liquid D. Placing food in the affected side of the client’s mouth The client with dysphagia may be started on a diet once the gag and swallow reflexes have returned. Liquids should be thickened to help prevent aspiration. Food is placed on the unaffected side of the mouth. Liquids are alternated with solids whenever possible to prevent food from being left in the mouth. The client is assisted with meals as needed and is given ample time to chew and swallow.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve giving thin liquids or primarily liquids. To select from the remaining options, visualize each. Recalling that placing food on the affected side of the mouth will put the client at risk for aspiration will assist you in eliminating this option. Review care of the client with residual dysphagia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1402). St. Louis: Mosby. The client with dysphagia may be started on a diet once the gag and swallow reflexes have returned. Liquids should be thickened to help prevent aspiration. Food is placed on the unaffected side of the mouth. Liquids are alternated with solids whenever possible to prevent food from being left in the mouth. The client is assisted with meals as needed and is given ample time to chew and swallow.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they involve giving thin liquids or primarily liquids. To select from the remaining options, visualize each. Recalling that placing food on the affected side of the mouth will put the client at risk for aspiration will assist you in eliminating this option. Review care of the client with residual dysphagia if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1402). St. Louis: Mosby. 37 / 96 A client who experienced a brain attack (stroke) exhibits right-sided unilateral neglect. The nurse caring for this client plans to place the client’s personal care items: A. Within the client’s reach on the left side B. Within the client’s reach on the right side C. Just out of the client’s reach on the left side D. Just out of the client’s reach on the right side Unilateral neglect is unawareness of one side of the body. The client behaves as if that part is not there. The client does not look at the paralyzed limb when moving about. Unilateral neglect results in increased risk for injury. It is possible for the client to relearn to look for and to move the affected limb(s). Therefore in this condition the client’s personal care items are placed within the client’s reach on the right side. Hemiparesis is a weakness of the face, arm, and leg on one side. The client with one-sided hemiparesis benefits from having objects placed on the unaffected side and within reach. This reduces client frustration and aids in ensuring client safety because the client does not have to strain and reach for needed items. The nurse adapts the client’s environment to the deficit by focusing on the client’s unaffected side and by placing the client’s personal care items on the affected side within reach. Placing items out of the client’s reach presents a risk of injury.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options first that are potentially hazardous to the client. To select from the remaining options, focus on the subject, unilateral neglect. With unilateral neglect, objects are placed on the affected side to train the client to attend to that part of the environment. Review care of the client with unilateral neglect if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1403). St. Louis: Mosby. Unilateral neglect is unawareness of one side of the body. The client behaves as if that part is not there. The client does not look at the paralyzed limb when moving about. Unilateral neglect results in increased risk for injury. It is possible for the client to relearn to look for and to move the affected limb(s). Therefore in this condition the client’s personal care items are placed within the client’s reach on the right side. Hemiparesis is a weakness of the face, arm, and leg on one side. The client with one-sided hemiparesis benefits from having objects placed on the unaffected side and within reach. This reduces client frustration and aids in ensuring client safety because the client does not have to strain and reach for needed items. The nurse adapts the client’s environment to the deficit by focusing on the client’s unaffected side and by placing the client’s personal care items on the affected side within reach. Placing items out of the client’s reach presents a risk of injury.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options first that are potentially hazardous to the client. To select from the remaining options, focus on the subject, unilateral neglect. With unilateral neglect, objects are placed on the affected side to train the client to attend to that part of the environment. Review care of the client with unilateral neglect if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 1403). St. Louis: Mosby. 38 / 96 A nurse answers the call bell of a client who has been fitted with an internal cervical radiation implant, and the client states that she thinks that the implant has fallen out. The nurse checks the client and sees the implant lying in the bed. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Calling the health care provider B. Reinserting the implant into the client’s vagina C. Picking up the implant with gloved hands and placing it in sterile water D. Using long-handled forceps to place the implant in a lead container A lead container and long-handled forceps should be kept in the client’s room at all times during internal radiation therapy. If the implant is dislodged, the nurse should pick it up with long-handled forceps and place it in the lead container. Reinserting the implant into the vagina and picking up the implant with gloved hands and placing it in sterile water are both incorrect nursing actions. The health care provider is called after action is taken to maintain the safety of the client.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. Recalling that the nurse needs to protect him or herself from exposure to the radiation will direct you to the correct option. Review the measures for dealing with a dislodged implant if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders. A lead container and long-handled forceps should be kept in the client’s room at all times during internal radiation therapy. If the implant is dislodged, the nurse should pick it up with long-handled forceps and place it in the lead container. Reinserting the implant into the vagina and picking up the implant with gloved hands and placing it in sterile water are both incorrect nursing actions. The health care provider is called after action is taken to maintain the safety of the client.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic word “first” in the query of the question. Recalling that the nurse needs to protect him or herself from exposure to the radiation will direct you to the correct option. Review the measures for dealing with a dislodged implant if you had difficulty with this question. Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders. 39 / 96 A female client who has undergone placement of a sealed radiation implant asks the nurse whether she can take a walk around the nursing unit. How should the nurse respond to the client’s request? A. “Short walks are OK.” B. “You need to stay in your room for now.” C. “Yes, it’s fine to take a walk around the nursing unit.” D. “Do you think that a walk around the unit will tire you out?” The client with a sealed radiation implant must remain in a private room to keep others from being exposed to radiation. The other options are all incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client is permitted to leave the room for ambulation. Review care of the client with a radiation implant if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders. The client with a sealed radiation implant must remain in a private room to keep others from being exposed to radiation. The other options are all incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client is permitted to leave the room for ambulation. Review care of the client with a radiation implant if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders. 40 / 96 A nurse develops a nursing care plan for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Which stipulation does the nurse include in the plan? A. Visitors must be limited to one half-hour per day. B. Visitors must remain at least 2 feet (61 cm) from the client C. A dosimeter badge must be placed on the client’s bedside stand. D. The client may be maintained in a semiprivate room as long as the client uses a commode The nurse would limit each visitor to a half-hour per day and be sure that visitors remain at least 6 feet (1.8 metres) from the radiation source. The nurse would wear the dosimeter badge when caring for the client. The dosimeter badge measures an individual’s exposure to radiation and should be used by only one individual. The dosimeter badge is not left in the client’s room. The client is assigned to a private room with a private bath to keep other clients from being exposed to radiation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Thinking about the measures that will prevent exposure to radiation direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a radiation implant if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders. The nurse would limit each visitor to a half-hour per day and be sure that visitors remain at least 6 feet (1.8 metres) from the radiation source. The nurse would wear the dosimeter badge when caring for the client. The dosimeter badge measures an individual’s exposure to radiation and should be used by only one individual. The dosimeter badge is not left in the client’s room. The client is assigned to a private room with a private bath to keep other clients from being exposed to radiation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Thinking about the measures that will prevent exposure to radiation direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client with a radiation implant if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 413). St. Louis: Saunders. 41 / 96 The nurse has instructed a client who is about to begin external radiation therapy in how to maintain optimal skin integrity during therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? A. “I need to keep the sun off the radiation site.” B. “I can use over-the-counter cortisone cream on the radiation site if it gets red.” C. “I need to be careful not to wash off the marks that the radiologist made on my skin.” D. “I need to wash the skin at the radiation site with a mild soap and water and pat it dry.” The client should use no powders, ointments, lotions, or creams on the skin at the radiation site unless they have been prescribed by the health care provider. Avoiding sun exposure of the radiation site, not removing marks made on the skin by the radiologist, and washing the skin with mild soap and water and patting it dry are all correct measures. The client should also be instructed to avoid using harsh detergents to wash clothing.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further instruction” in the query of the question, which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Noting the words “over-the-counter” will direct you to the correct option. Review client teaching points for skin care during radiation therapy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 269-270). St. Louis: Mosby. The client should use no powders, ointments, lotions, or creams on the skin at the radiation site unless they have been prescribed by the health care provider. Avoiding sun exposure of the radiation site, not removing marks made on the skin by the radiologist, and washing the skin with mild soap and water and patting it dry are all correct measures. The client should also be instructed to avoid using harsh detergents to wash clothing.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words “need for further instruction” in the query of the question, which indicate a negative event query and the need to select the incorrect client statement. Noting the words “over-the-counter” will direct you to the correct option. Review client teaching points for skin care during radiation therapy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 269-270). St. Louis: Mosby. 42 / 96 A client with cancer of the larynx is receiving external radiation therapy of the neck. Which side effect related specifically to the site of irradiation does the nurse tell the client to expect? A. Diarrhea B. Dyspnea C. Headache D. Dysphagia In general, skin reactions and fatigue may occur with radiation therapy of any site, whereas other side effects occur only when a specific area lies in the treatment field. A client undergoing radiation therapy of the larynx is most likely to experience dysphagia. Diarrhea may occur with irradiation of the gastrointestinal tract. Dyspnea may occur with lung irradiation. Headache may occur with irradiation of the head.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “related specifically to the site.” Focus on the anatomical location of the radiation therapy to identify the correct option. Review the effects of radiation therapy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 268). St. Louis: Mosby In general, skin reactions and fatigue may occur with radiation therapy of any site, whereas other side effects occur only when a specific area lies in the treatment field. A client undergoing radiation therapy of the larynx is most likely to experience dysphagia. Diarrhea may occur with irradiation of the gastrointestinal tract. Dyspnea may occur with lung irradiation. Headache may occur with irradiation of the head.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and note the strategic words “related specifically to the site.” Focus on the anatomical location of the radiation therapy to identify the correct option. Review the effects of radiation therapy if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., p. 268). St. Louis: Mosby 43 / 96 A nurse is having dinner at a restaurant when a man sitting at the next table collapses and falls to the floor. The nurse yells for help and quickly assesses the client, noting that the client is not breathing and does not have a pulse. The nurse initiates cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) immediately, and the restaurant manager rushes to the scene with an automatic external defibrillator (AED). What should the nurse do next? A. Use the AED B. Stop the resuscitation efforts C. Perform CPR until emergency medical services arrives D. Check for a pulse for 30 seconds before continuing CPR Basic components of CPR include immediate recognition of the sudden cardiac arrest (unresponsiveness and absence of normal breathing) and activation of the emergency response system, early CPR, and rapid defibrillation with the use of an AED.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the resuscitation efforts should be terminated. To select from the remaining options it is necessary to know the components of CPR. Review the components of CPR and the procedure for using an AED if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 680-682). St. Louis: Mosby. Basic components of CPR include immediate recognition of the sudden cardiac arrest (unresponsiveness and absence of normal breathing) and activation of the emergency response system, early CPR, and rapid defibrillation with the use of an AED.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the resuscitation efforts should be terminated. To select from the remaining options it is necessary to know the components of CPR. Review the components of CPR and the procedure for using an AED if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., pp. 680-682). St. Louis: Mosby. 44 / 96 A nurse is working in the emergency department. Which client should be assessed first? A. A client with new-onset dizziness B. A client admitted with a recent ear injury C. A client who has been experiencing nausea and vomiting for 12 hours D. A client with new-onset atrial fibrillation with a rate of 118 beats/min The client with new-onset atrial fibrillation is at risk for complications associated with the tachydysrhythmia. This dysrhythmia may result in decreased cardiac output because of ineffective atrial contractions. Thrombi form in the atria as a result of the pooling of blood. All of the other clients will require the nurse’s attention, but the client who requires immediate attention and is the most hemodynamically unstable is the one with atrial fibrillation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to find the correct option. The client experiencing atrial fibrillation is the least stable of the clients identified in the other options. Review the principles of prioritization if you had difficulty with this question. References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 126). St. Louis: Saunders. The client with new-onset atrial fibrillation is at risk for complications associated with the tachydysrhythmia. This dysrhythmia may result in decreased cardiac output because of ineffective atrial contractions. Thrombi form in the atria as a result of the pooling of blood. All of the other clients will require the nurse’s attention, but the client who requires immediate attention and is the most hemodynamically unstable is the one with atrial fibrillation.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and use the ABCs — airway, breathing, and circulation — to find the correct option. The client experiencing atrial fibrillation is the least stable of the clients identified in the other options. Review the principles of prioritization if you had difficulty with this question. References: Ignatavicius, D., & Workman, M. (2013). Medical-surgical nursing: Patient-centered collaborative care. (7th ed., p. 126). St. Louis: Saunders. 45 / 96 A nurse attending a recertification course in basic life support (BLS) for healthcare professionals is practicing BLS on an infant mannequin. Where does the nurse place the fingers to assess the infant’s pulse? A. Neck B. Wrist C. Behind the knee D. Antecubital fossa of the arm An infant’s pulse should be checked at the brachial artery. The relatively short, fat neck of an infant makes palpation of the carotid artery (neck) difficult. Palpation of the pulse in the radial (wrist) and popliteal (behind the knee) area would also be difficult.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and visualize each location identified in the options. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for performing BLS on an infant if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 852). St. Louis: Elsevier. An infant’s pulse should be checked at the brachial artery. The relatively short, fat neck of an infant makes palpation of the carotid artery (neck) difficult. Palpation of the pulse in the radial (wrist) and popliteal (behind the knee) area would also be difficult.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and visualize each location identified in the options. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for performing BLS on an infant if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 852). St. Louis: Elsevier. 46 / 96 A pediatric nurse finds a hospitalized child unresponsive. A quick assessment reveals that the child is not breathing and does not have a pulse. The nurse initiates cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). How many chest compressions per minute does the nurse deliver? A. 15 B. 30 C. 50 D. 100 In an infant or child, the rate of chest compressions is at least 100/min.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the procedure for performing CPR on a child is needed to answer this question. Remember that the rate of chest compressions is at least 100/min. Review this procedure if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 852). St. Louis: Elsevier. In an infant or child, the rate of chest compressions is at least 100/min.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the procedure for performing CPR on a child is needed to answer this question. Remember that the rate of chest compressions is at least 100/min. Review this procedure if you had difficulty with this question.Reference: McKinney, E., James, S., Murray, S., Nelson, K. & Ashwill, J. (2013). Maternal-child nursing (4th ed., p. 852). St. Louis: Elsevier. 47 / 96 The nurse is administering cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to an adult client. Which compression-ventilation ratio is correct? A. 15:1 B. 15:2 C. 20:2 D. 30:2 48 / 96 A nurse arrives at the scene of a code and begins to assist with cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) of an adult. The nurse delivers compressions by pushing down on the chest to a depth of: A. 1 inch B. 1½ inches (3.8 cm) C. 2 inches (5 cm) D. 4 inches (10 cm) When CPR is being performed on an adult, the sternum should be depressed at least 2 inches (5 cm). The other options are incorrect because they are too shallow to be effective or too deep, which can cause damage to internal organs. The rescuer should allow complete recoil of the chest after each compression to allow the heart to fill completely before the next compression.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the procedure for performing chest compressions on an adult is necessary to answer the question. Consider the normal body structure of an adult to answer the question correctly. If you had difficulty with this question, review the procedure for CPR for an adult.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., p. 685). St. Louis: Mosby. When CPR is being performed on an adult, the sternum should be depressed at least 2 inches (5 cm). The other options are incorrect because they are too shallow to be effective or too deep, which can cause damage to internal organs. The rescuer should allow complete recoil of the chest after each compression to allow the heart to fill completely before the next compression.Test-Taking Strategy: Knowledge regarding the procedure for performing chest compressions on an adult is necessary to answer the question. Consider the normal body structure of an adult to answer the question correctly. If you had difficulty with this question, review the procedure for CPR for an adult.Reference: Perry, A., Potter, P., & Ostendorf, W. (2014). Clinical nursing skills & techniques (8th ed., p. 685). St. Louis: Mosby. 49 / 96 A nurse enters a client’s room and finds the client unconscious. The nurse quickly performs an assessment and determines that the client is not breathing. Which action does the nurse take first? A. Beginning chest compressions B. Checking the client’s pulse oximetry reading C. Placing an oxygen mask on the client D. Counting the client’s carotid pulse for 15 seconds According to the American Heart Association, detecting a pulse may be difficult. The healthcare provider should take not more than 10 seconds to check for a pulse; if the rescuer does not definitely feel a pulse within that period, he or she should start chest compressions. The acronym CAB (circulation, airway, and breathing) is used to prioritize the steps of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Effective chest compressions are essential for providing blood flow during CPR. To provide effective chest compressions, the provider must push hard and fast. Current guidelines for CPR call for the initiation of compressions before ventilations. Oxygen may be helpful at some point, but the airway is opened before the administration of oxygen. Checking the client’s pulse oximetry reading delays implementation of lifesaving measures. According to the American Heart Association, detecting a pulse may be difficult. The healthcare provider should take not more than 10 seconds to check for a pulse; if the rescuer does not definitely feel a pulse within that period, he or she should start chest compressions. The acronym CAB (circulation, airway, and breathing) is used to prioritize the steps of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Effective chest compressions are essential for providing blood flow during CPR. To provide effective chest compressions, the provider must push hard and fast. Current guidelines for CPR call for the initiation of compressions before ventilations. Oxygen may be helpful at some point, but the airway is opened before the administration of oxygen. Checking the client’s pulse oximetry reading delays implementation of lifesaving measures. 50 / 96 A nurse notes that a client’s serum potassium level is 5.8 mEq/L(5.8 mmol/L). The nurse interprets this as an expected finding in the client with: A. Diarrhea B. Wound drainage C. Addison disease D. Heart failure being treated with loop diuretics A serum potassium level greater than 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L)indicates hyperkalemia, and the nurse would report the finding to the health care provider. Adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) is a cause of hyperkalemia. Other common causes of hyperkalemia include tissue damage, such as that in burn injuries, renal failure, and the use of potassium-sparing diuretics. The client with diarrhea or wound drainage or the client being treated with diuretics is at risk for hypokalemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they all indicate that the client is experiencing body fluid losses and therefore a loss of potassium. If you had difficulty with this question, review the risk factors associated with hyperkalemia.Reference: Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 296, 1211). St. Louis: Mosby. A serum potassium level greater than 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L)indicates hyperkalemia, and the nurse would report the finding to the health care provider. Adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) is a cause of hyperkalemia. Other common causes of hyperkalemia include tissue damage, such as that in burn injuries, renal failure, and the use of potassium-sparing diuretics. The client with diarrhea or wound drainage or the client being treated with diuretics is at risk for hypokalemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they all indicate that the client is experiencing body fluid losses and therefore a loss of potassium. If you had difficulty with this question, review the risk factors associated with hyperkalemia.Reference: Reference: Lewis, S., Dirksen, S., Heitkemper, M., & Bucher, L. (2014). Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (9th ed., pp. 296, 1211). St. Louis: Mosby. 51 / 96 The client rings the call bell and complains of pain at the site of an IV infusion. The nurse assesses the site and determines that phlebitis has developed. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. A. Removing the IV catheter at that site B. Applying warm, moist compresses to the IV site C. Notifying the health care provider about the finding D. Encouraging the client to scrub the site while in the shower E. Starting a new IV line in a proximal portion of the same vein The nurse should remove the IV from the phlebitic site and apply warm, moist compresses to the area to speed resolution of the inflammation and absorb the fluid from the tissues. The nurse also notifies the primary health care provider of this complication. The nurse should restart the IV line in a vein other than the one in which phlebitis has developed. The nurse should discourage the client from rubbing the site while in the shower, because this could cause sloughing of the tissue.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question and the client’s problem, phlebitis. Think about the pathophysiology of phlebitis to find the correct interventions. Review nursing interventions for phlebitis The nurse should remove the IV from the phlebitic site and apply warm, moist compresses to the area to speed resolution of the inflammation and absorb the fluid from the tissues. The nurse also notifies the primary health care provider of this complication. The nurse should restart the IV line in a vein other than the one in which phlebitis has developed. The nurse should discourage the client from rubbing the site while in the shower, because this could cause sloughing of the tissue.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question and the client’s problem, phlebitis. Think about the pathophysiology of phlebitis to find the correct interventions. Review nursing interventions for phlebitis 52 / 96 A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with fat emulsion (lipids) piggybacked to the TPN solution. For which signs of an adverse reaction to the fat emulsion should the nurse monitor the client? Select all that apply. A. Chills B. Pallor C. Headache D. Chest and back pain E. Nausea and vomiting F. Subnormal temperature Signs of an adverse reaction to fat emulsion include chest and back pain, chills, fever, dyspnea, cyanosis, diaphoresis, flushing, headache, nausea and vomiting, pressure over the eyes, vertigo, and thrombophlebitis at the infusion site.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, adverse effects of fat emulsion. Recalling that fever and flushing occur will assist you in answering correctly. Specific knowledge about these adverse effects is needed to select the remaining correct options. Review the signs of an adverse reaction to fat emulsion Signs of an adverse reaction to fat emulsion include chest and back pain, chills, fever, dyspnea, cyanosis, diaphoresis, flushing, headache, nausea and vomiting, pressure over the eyes, vertigo, and thrombophlebitis at the infusion site.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, adverse effects of fat emulsion. Recalling that fever and flushing occur will assist you in answering correctly. Specific knowledge about these adverse effects is needed to select the remaining correct options. Review the signs of an adverse reaction to fat emulsion 53 / 96 A nurse is caring for a group of adult clients on an acute care nursing unit. Which clients does the nurse recognize as the most likely candidates for total parenteral nutrition (TPN)? Select all that apply. A. A client with pancreatitis B. A client with severe sepsis C. A client with renal calculi D. A client who has undergone repair of a hiatal hernia E. A client with a severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis TPN is indicated in the client whose gastrointestinal tract is not functional or who cannot tolerate an enteral diet for extended periods. The client with sepsis is very ill and may require TPN. Other candidates include clients who have undergone extensive surgery, sustained multiple fractures, or have advanced cancer or AIDS. The client who has undergone hiatal hernia repair is not a candidate, because this client would resume a normal diet within a relatively short period after the hernia repair. The client with renal calculi also is not a candidate because the client would be able to eat.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the question contains the strategic words “most likely,” telling you that the correct options are the clients who require this type of nutritional support. Focus on the needs of the clients identified in the options and use your knowledge of the purposes of TPN to direct you to the correct option. Review the purposes and uses for TPN TPN is indicated in the client whose gastrointestinal tract is not functional or who cannot tolerate an enteral diet for extended periods. The client with sepsis is very ill and may require TPN. Other candidates include clients who have undergone extensive surgery, sustained multiple fractures, or have advanced cancer or AIDS. The client who has undergone hiatal hernia repair is not a candidate, because this client would resume a normal diet within a relatively short period after the hernia repair. The client with renal calculi also is not a candidate because the client would be able to eat.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the question contains the strategic words “most likely,” telling you that the correct options are the clients who require this type of nutritional support. Focus on the needs of the clients identified in the options and use your knowledge of the purposes of TPN to direct you to the correct option. Review the purposes and uses for TPN 54 / 96 A home care nurse has been assigned a client who has been discharged home with a prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which parameters does the nurse plan to check at each visit as a means of identifying complications of the TPN therapy? Select all that apply. A. Weight B. Glucose test C. Temperature D. Peripheral pulses E. Hemoglobin and hematocrit When a client is receiving TPN therapy, the nurse monitors the client’s weight to determine the effectiveness of the therapy. The nurse should weigh the client at each visit to make sure that the client has not gained or lost an excessive amount of weight. Because the formula contains a large amount of dextrose, the health care provider should check the client’s glucose level frequently. The nurse caring for a client receiving TPN at home should also monitor the temperature to detect infection, which is a potential complication of this therapy. An infection in the intravenous line could result in sepsis, because the catheter is in a blood vessel. The peripheral pulses and hemoglobin and hematocrit readings may provide data but are unrelated to complications associated with TPN therapy.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, complications associated with TPN therapy. Think about the procedures involved with the administration of TPN and the associated complications to answer correctly. Review the priority assessments in the client receiving TPN When a client is receiving TPN therapy, the nurse monitors the client’s weight to determine the effectiveness of the therapy. The nurse should weigh the client at each visit to make sure that the client has not gained or lost an excessive amount of weight. Because the formula contains a large amount of dextrose, the health care provider should check the client’s glucose level frequently. The nurse caring for a client receiving TPN at home should also monitor the temperature to detect infection, which is a potential complication of this therapy. An infection in the intravenous line could result in sepsis, because the catheter is in a blood vessel. The peripheral pulses and hemoglobin and hematocrit readings may provide data but are unrelated to complications associated with TPN therapy.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, complications associated with TPN therapy. Think about the procedures involved with the administration of TPN and the associated complications to answer correctly. Review the priority assessments in the client receiving TPN 55 / 96 How does a client who has lost a spouse show that she is successfully completing the tasks of mourning? Select all that apply. A. Relating that its better “he went first” B. Reporting that sleeping alone is so hard now C. Purchasing a smaller car she is comfortable driving D. Placing a picture of her husband on the bedside stand E. Heard explaining to family that illness “took” her husband The tasks of mourning have been identified as accepting the reality of the loss; experiencing the pain of grief; adjusting to life without the lost one; and relocating and memorializing the loved one. It is not necessary to find a positive aspect to the loss in order to deal with the loss in a psychologically healthy manner. Therefore relating that its better “he went first” is incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, completing the tasks of mourning. Recalling the tasks of mourning will direct you to the correct options. Review the tasks related to mourning and grief and loss if you had difficulty with this question.Reference:Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2010). The tasks of mourning have been identified as accepting the reality of the loss; experiencing the pain of grief; adjusting to life without the lost one; and relocating and memorializing the loved one. It is not necessary to find a positive aspect to the loss in order to deal with the loss in a psychologically healthy manner. Therefore relating that its better “he went first” is incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, completing the tasks of mourning. Recalling the tasks of mourning will direct you to the correct options. Review the tasks related to mourning and grief and loss if you had difficulty with this question.Reference:Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2010). 56 / 96 At 1300, the nurse is documenting the receipt of a unit of packed blood cells at the hospital blood bank. The nurse calculates that the transfusion must be started by which time? A. 1315 B. 1330 C. 1345 D. 1400 Blood must be hung within 30 minutes after obtaining it from the blood bank. After that time, the temperature of the blood becomes warm and could be unsafe for use. Therefore 1345 and 1400 are incorrect. It is not necessary to hang the blood within 15 minutes of receiving it from the blood bank.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the standard procedures related to blood administration.Remember that blood must be hung within 30 minutes after obtaining it from the blood bank. Review the procedure for blood administration Blood must be hung within 30 minutes after obtaining it from the blood bank. After that time, the temperature of the blood becomes warm and could be unsafe for use. Therefore 1345 and 1400 are incorrect. It is not necessary to hang the blood within 15 minutes of receiving it from the blood bank.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the standard procedures related to blood administration.Remember that blood must be hung within 30 minutes after obtaining it from the blood bank. Review the procedure for blood administration 57 / 96 Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a client with low hemoglobin and hematocrit values. The nurse takes the client’s temperature orally before hanging the blood transfusion and notes that it is 100.0° F (37.7 C). What should the nurse do next? A. Begin the transfusion as prescribed B. Administer an antihistamine and begin the transfusion C. Call the health care provider D. Administer 2 tablets of acetaminophen and begin the transfusion If the client has a temperature of 100.0° F (37.7 C) or higher, the unit of blood should not be hung until the health care provider has been notified and had the opportunity to give further prescriptions. It is likely that the health care provider will prescribe the blood to be administered despite the temperature, but it is not within the nurse’s scope of practice to make that determination. Therefore the other options are incorrect. Additionally, medications are not administered to the client without a prescription.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, next. First eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they call for administration of a medication. Choose calling the health care provider over beginning the transfusion as prescribed, knowing that an increased temperature is abnormal. Review the procedure for blood transfusions If the client has a temperature of 100.0° F (37.7 C) or higher, the unit of blood should not be hung until the health care provider has been notified and had the opportunity to give further prescriptions. It is likely that the health care provider will prescribe the blood to be administered despite the temperature, but it is not within the nurse’s scope of practice to make that determination. Therefore the other options are incorrect. Additionally, medications are not administered to the client without a prescription.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, next. First eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they call for administration of a medication. Choose calling the health care provider over beginning the transfusion as prescribed, knowing that an increased temperature is abnormal. Review the procedure for blood transfusions 58 / 96 A nurse discontinues an infusion of a unit of blood after the client experiences a transfusion reaction. Once the incident has been documented appropriately, where does the nurse send the blood transfusion bag? A. Blood bank B. Microbiology laboratory C. Risk management D. Infection-control department The nurse returns the transfusion bag, containing any remaining blood, to the blood bank. This allows the blood bank to perform any follow-up testing needed in the event of a documented transfusion reaction. The other options are incorrect because they do not handle post transfusion reaction procedures or testing.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, post-transfusion reaction procedures. Use your knowledge of routine transfusion-related procedures to answer this question. Knowing that blood is issued by the blood bank will help you eliminate each of the incorrect options. Review procedures in the event of a blood transfusion reaction The nurse returns the transfusion bag, containing any remaining blood, to the blood bank. This allows the blood bank to perform any follow-up testing needed in the event of a documented transfusion reaction. The other options are incorrect because they do not handle post transfusion reaction procedures or testing.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, post-transfusion reaction procedures. Use your knowledge of routine transfusion-related procedures to answer this question. Knowing that blood is issued by the blood bank will help you eliminate each of the incorrect options. Review procedures in the event of a blood transfusion reaction 59 / 96 A client has a prescription for a unit of packed red blood cells (RBCs). Which IV solution should the nurse obtain to hang with the blood product at the client’s bedside? A. 0.9% sodium chloride B. Lactated Ringer’s solution (LR) C. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride D. 5% dextrose in water in 0.45% sodium chloride Sodium chloride (normal saline, NS) 0.9% is an isotonic solution that is typically used both to precede and follow infusion of a blood product. Dextrose is not used because it could result in clumping and subsequent hemolysis of RBCs. LR is not the solution of choice for this procedure, even though it is an isotonic solution.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, compatible IV solutions. Familiarity with blood administration procedures is needed to answer this question. Remember that sodium chloride is the solution that is compatible with red blood cells. Review the procedure for administering blood. Sodium chloride (normal saline, NS) 0.9% is an isotonic solution that is typically used both to precede and follow infusion of a blood product. Dextrose is not used because it could result in clumping and subsequent hemolysis of RBCs. LR is not the solution of choice for this procedure, even though it is an isotonic solution.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, compatible IV solutions. Familiarity with blood administration procedures is needed to answer this question. Remember that sodium chloride is the solution that is compatible with red blood cells. Review the procedure for administering blood. 60 / 96 A nurse has just received a prescription to transfuse a unit of packed red blood cells for an assigned client. For how long does the nurse plan to stay with the client after the unit of blood is hung? A. 5 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 45 minutes D. 60 minutes The nurse must remain with the client for the first 15 minutes of a transfusion, the time frame during which most transfusion reactions occur. This will enable the nurse to quickly detect a reaction and intervene quickly. Five minutes is too short; the nurse would not be present during the critical 15 minutes. Staying with the client for 45 or 60 minutes is unnecessary.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, nursing responsibilities after hanging a unit of blood. Familiarity with blood transfusion procedures is needed to answer this question accurately. Remember that the client must be directly monitored for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion. Review the procedure for administering blood The nurse must remain with the client for the first 15 minutes of a transfusion, the time frame during which most transfusion reactions occur. This will enable the nurse to quickly detect a reaction and intervene quickly. Five minutes is too short; the nurse would not be present during the critical 15 minutes. Staying with the client for 45 or 60 minutes is unnecessary.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, nursing responsibilities after hanging a unit of blood. Familiarity with blood transfusion procedures is needed to answer this question accurately. Remember that the client must be directly monitored for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion. Review the procedure for administering blood 61 / 96 A nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and properly checked the blood bag with another nurse. Which parameter should the nurse assess just before hanging the transfusion? A. Skin color B. Vital signs C. Latest platelet count D. Urine output over the last 24 hours A change in vital signs may indicate that a transfusion reaction is occurring. This is why the nurse assesses vital signs before the procedure, every 15 minutes for the first half-hour, and every half-hour thereafter. The other options do not need to be assessed just before the start of a transfusion. The nurse should be aware of fluid volume status, as well as weight to help identify fluid volume overload, but this is not the priority before start of a blood infusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the words “just before,” in the question, which tell you that the correct option must be assessed for possible comparison during the transfusion. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to find the correct option. Review the procedure for administering blood A change in vital signs may indicate that a transfusion reaction is occurring. This is why the nurse assesses vital signs before the procedure, every 15 minutes for the first half-hour, and every half-hour thereafter. The other options do not need to be assessed just before the start of a transfusion. The nurse should be aware of fluid volume status, as well as weight to help identify fluid volume overload, but this is not the priority before start of a blood infusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the words “just before,” in the question, which tell you that the correct option must be assessed for possible comparison during the transfusion. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to find the correct option. Review the procedure for administering blood 62 / 96 A client has just undergone insertion of a central venous catheter by the health care provider at the bedside. Which result would the nurse be sure to check before initiating infusion of the IV solution that the health care provider has prescribed? A. Serum osmolality B. Serum electrolytes C. Portable chest x-ray D. Intake and output record Before beginning the administration of any volume of IV solution through a central venous catheter, the nurse should determine whether the results of the chest x-ray reveal that the catheter is in the proper place. This is necessary to prevent inadvertent infusion of IV fluid into pulmonary or subcutaneous tissues. The other options are items that are useful for the nurse in the general care of the client, but they are not related to this procedure.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, care to the client following insertion of a central venous catheter. Note the words “insertion by the health care provider at the bedside.” Recalling the complications associated with the insertion of central venous catheters and the methods used to detect them will assist in answering this question. Review nursing responsibilities for the client who underwent insertion of a central venous catheter Before beginning the administration of any volume of IV solution through a central venous catheter, the nurse should determine whether the results of the chest x-ray reveal that the catheter is in the proper place. This is necessary to prevent inadvertent infusion of IV fluid into pulmonary or subcutaneous tissues. The other options are items that are useful for the nurse in the general care of the client, but they are not related to this procedure.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, care to the client following insertion of a central venous catheter. Note the words “insertion by the health care provider at the bedside.” Recalling the complications associated with the insertion of central venous catheters and the methods used to detect them will assist in answering this question. Review nursing responsibilities for the client who underwent insertion of a central venous catheter 63 / 96 A nurse has a written prescription to remove an intravenous (IV) line. Which item should the nurse obtain from the unit supply area for use in applying pressure to the site after removing the IV catheter? A. Alcohol swab B. Adhesive bandage C. Sterile 2 × 2 gauze D. Povidone-iodine (Betadine) swab A dry sterile dressing such as a 2 × 2 is used to apply pressure to the discontinued IV site. This material is absorbent, sterile, and nonirritating. An adhesive bandage may be used to cover the site once hemostasis has occurred. A povidone-iodine swab or alcohol swab would irritate the opened puncture site and would not stop the blood flow.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the procedure for removing an IV. Visualize this procedure and think about each of the items identified in the options to answer the question. Noting the words “applying pressure” in the question will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for removing an IV A dry sterile dressing such as a 2 × 2 is used to apply pressure to the discontinued IV site. This material is absorbent, sterile, and nonirritating. An adhesive bandage may be used to cover the site once hemostasis has occurred. A povidone-iodine swab or alcohol swab would irritate the opened puncture site and would not stop the blood flow.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the procedure for removing an IV. Visualize this procedure and think about each of the items identified in the options to answer the question. Noting the words “applying pressure” in the question will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for removing an IV 64 / 96 A nurse notes that the site of a client’s peripheral IV catheter is reddened, warm, painful, and slightly edematous in the area of the insertion site. After taking appropriate steps to care for the client, the nurse documents in the medical record that the client has experienced which problem? A. Phlebitis of the vein B. Infiltration of the IV line C. Hypersensitivity to the IV solution D. An allergic reaction to the IV catheter material Phlebitis at an IV site can be identified by client discomfort at the site, as well as by redness, warmth, and swelling in the area of the catheter. The IV should be removed and a new one inserted at a different site. The remaining options are incorrect. Coolness and swelling would be noted if infiltration had occurred. The symptoms of hypersensitivity and allergic reaction depend on whether these complications are local or systemic.Test-Taking Strategy: Remember that options that are comparable or alike (here, hypersensitivity and allergic reaction) are not likely to be correct. Choose phlebitis of the vein over infiltration of the IV line after recalling that warmth is noted at an IV site in which phlebitis has developed. Coolness would be noted if infiltration had occurred. Review the signs of phlebitis Phlebitis at an IV site can be identified by client discomfort at the site, as well as by redness, warmth, and swelling in the area of the catheter. The IV should be removed and a new one inserted at a different site. The remaining options are incorrect. Coolness and swelling would be noted if infiltration had occurred. The symptoms of hypersensitivity and allergic reaction depend on whether these complications are local or systemic.Test-Taking Strategy: Remember that options that are comparable or alike (here, hypersensitivity and allergic reaction) are not likely to be correct. Choose phlebitis of the vein over infiltration of the IV line after recalling that warmth is noted at an IV site in which phlebitis has developed. Coolness would be noted if infiltration had occurred. Review the signs of phlebitis 65 / 96 A client with schizophrenia who has been taking an antipsychotic medication calls the clinic nurse and says, “I need to cancel my appointment with the psychiatrist again, because I still have this awful sore throat. It’s so bad that my mouth has a sore.” How does the nurse respond to the client? A. “I wouldn’t be upset. It happens when you aren’t drinking enough water.” B. “I think you need to come in for blood work today, because this may be an adverse effect of your medicine.” C. “Do you remember when you started this medication? Your psychiatrist told you how important it is to keep your appointments with him.” D. “You probably have a simple flu, but it might help if you gargle with some antiseptic mouthwash every 2 hours or so and drink plenty of water.” Agranulocytosis, an adverse effect of antipsychotic medications, is characterized by a sore throat with mouth sores, fever, and malaise. Any client taking such a medication who complains of flulike symptoms should be evaluated carefully. For this reason, the psychiatrist usually prescribes periodic blood tests while a client is taking antipsychotic medications. The incorrect options ignore the client’s complaints.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and note that the client has an awful sore throat. Recalling that antipsychotic medications can cause agranulocytosis will direct you to the correct option. Also note that the correct option is the only one that addresses the client’s complaint. Review the adverse effects of antipsychotic medications Agranulocytosis, an adverse effect of antipsychotic medications, is characterized by a sore throat with mouth sores, fever, and malaise. Any client taking such a medication who complains of flulike symptoms should be evaluated carefully. For this reason, the psychiatrist usually prescribes periodic blood tests while a client is taking antipsychotic medications. The incorrect options ignore the client’s complaints.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and note that the client has an awful sore throat. Recalling that antipsychotic medications can cause agranulocytosis will direct you to the correct option. Also note that the correct option is the only one that addresses the client’s complaint. Review the adverse effects of antipsychotic medications 66 / 96 A client with schizophrenia has been taking an antipsychotic medication for 2 months. For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor the client closely? A. Akathisia B. Pelvic thrusts C. Athetoid limbs D. Protruding tongue Approximately 5 to 60 days after starting an antipsychotic medication, the client may exhibit the adverse effect of akathisia, manifested by motor restlessness (continually tapping a foot, rocking back and forth in a chair, or shifting weight from one foot to another). Pelvic thrusts, athetoid limbs, and a protruding tongue are effects that may occur after 6 to 24 months of an antipsychotic medication.Test Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, an adverse effect of an antipsychotic medication. Knowledge regarding the adverse effects of antipsychotic medications is needed to answer this question. Noting the words “2 months” and recalling the adverse effects of these medications will assist in directing you to the correct option. Review the effects of antipsychotic medications Approximately 5 to 60 days after starting an antipsychotic medication, the client may exhibit the adverse effect of akathisia, manifested by motor restlessness (continually tapping a foot, rocking back and forth in a chair, or shifting weight from one foot to another). Pelvic thrusts, athetoid limbs, and a protruding tongue are effects that may occur after 6 to 24 months of an antipsychotic medication.Test Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, an adverse effect of an antipsychotic medication. Knowledge regarding the adverse effects of antipsychotic medications is needed to answer this question. Noting the words “2 months” and recalling the adverse effects of these medications will assist in directing you to the correct option. Review the effects of antipsychotic medications 67 / 96 A young female client with schizophrenia says to the nurse, “Since I started on olanzapine last year, I’m doing well in school and all, but I’ve gained so much weight, and it’s really bothering me. What can I do about this?” Which response by the nurse would be therapeutic? A. “Well, I think you’re overreacting. Today people think they should be skinny-minnies, even though it’s not healthy.” B. “Weight gain can be a side effect of the medication, so you need to watch your diet and exercise. How much weight have you gained?” C. “That medication isn’t any more likely to cause weight gain than the others you’re taking. Perhaps we could go over your diet and exercise habits.” D. “I want you to stop taking this medication immediately, and I’m calling the doctor, because this is a very serious side effect and you may need dialysis.” Olanzapine is an antipsychotic agent that causes weight gain, a disadvantage of the medication. Weight gain, especially in a young woman, for whom it may have an especially serious affect on self-image, may lead to noncompliance with the medication regimen. “That medication isn’t any more likely to cause weight gain than the others you’re taking” offers incorrect information. “I think you’re overreacting” minimizes the client’s complaints. “I want you to stop taking this medication immediately” gives incorrect information and is presented in an unprofessional style.Test Taking Strategy: Use therapeutic communication techniques. Eliminate the option that states the client’s medication does not cause weight gain any more than others do first, because this medication can cause weight gain. Next eliminate the option in which the nurse tells the client to stop taking this medication immediately, because it is also inaccurate and could cause anxiety for the client. To select from the remaining options, eliminate the one in which the nurse states the client is overreacting, because this minimizes the client’s complaints. Review the effects of olanzapine Olanzapine is an antipsychotic agent that causes weight gain, a disadvantage of the medication. Weight gain, especially in a young woman, for whom it may have an especially serious affect on self-image, may lead to noncompliance with the medication regimen. “That medication isn’t any more likely to cause weight gain than the others you’re taking” offers incorrect information. “I think you’re overreacting” minimizes the client’s complaints. “I want you to stop taking this medication immediately” gives incorrect information and is presented in an unprofessional style.Test Taking Strategy: Use therapeutic communication techniques. Eliminate the option that states the client’s medication does not cause weight gain any more than others do first, because this medication can cause weight gain. Next eliminate the option in which the nurse tells the client to stop taking this medication immediately, because it is also inaccurate and could cause anxiety for the client. To select from the remaining options, eliminate the one in which the nurse states the client is overreacting, because this minimizes the client’s complaints. Review the effects of olanzapine 68 / 96 A nurse answers a call bell and finds that the total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution bag of an assigned client is empty. The new prescription was written for a new bag at the beginning of the shift, but it has not yet arrived from the pharmacy. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Call the health care provider B. Call the pharmacy for further instructions C. Hang a solution of 10% dextrose in water D. Hang a solution of 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride The solution containing the highest amount of dextrose should be hung until the new bag of TPN becomes available. Because TPN solutions contain high glucose concentrations, the 10% dextrose solution is the best solution to infuse because it will minimize the risk of hypoglycemia. The pharmacy and health care provider should also be called, but care of the client is the immediate priority of the nurse.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” and focus on the data in the question. Eliminate calling the pharmacy or health care provider first, because these options do not directly address the client. To select from the remaining options, recall the concentration of a TPN solution and remember that this client is at risk for hypoglycemia; this will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client receiving TPN The solution containing the highest amount of dextrose should be hung until the new bag of TPN becomes available. Because TPN solutions contain high glucose concentrations, the 10% dextrose solution is the best solution to infuse because it will minimize the risk of hypoglycemia. The pharmacy and health care provider should also be called, but care of the client is the immediate priority of the nurse.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” and focus on the data in the question. Eliminate calling the pharmacy or health care provider first, because these options do not directly address the client. To select from the remaining options, recall the concentration of a TPN solution and remember that this client is at risk for hypoglycemia; this will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client receiving TPN 69 / 96 A nurse is making initial rounds on a group of assigned clients. Which client should the nurse see first? A. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) at a rate of 50 mL/hr for the last 24 hours B. A client receiving TPN at a rate of 50 mL/hr whose temp was 99° F (37.2°C) on the previous shift C. A client receiving TPN at a rate of 100 mL/hr who has complained of needing frequent trips to the bathroom to void D. A client whose TPN solution was decreased to a rate of 25 mL/hr who is now complaining of weakness, headache, and sweating The nurse should assess the client complaining of weakness, headache, and sweating first, because these are signs of hypoglycemia, which could be caused by the decrease in the TPN rate. The client who has been receiving TPN at a rate of 50 mL/hr for the last 24 hours should be assessed but does not need to be seen first. The client who complains of frequent trips to the bathroom should be assessed for hyperglycemia, one of the side effects of TPN, but should not take precedence over the client showing signs of hypoglycemia. A client with an increased temperature should be monitored closely but does not take precedence over the client exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Read each client description carefully. Think about the complications of TPN. Noting the words “decreased to a rate of 25 mL/hr who is now complaining of weakness, headache, and sweating” will direct you to this option as the priority client. Review the complications of TPN and the associated signs and symptoms The nurse should assess the client complaining of weakness, headache, and sweating first, because these are signs of hypoglycemia, which could be caused by the decrease in the TPN rate. The client who has been receiving TPN at a rate of 50 mL/hr for the last 24 hours should be assessed but does not need to be seen first. The client who complains of frequent trips to the bathroom should be assessed for hyperglycemia, one of the side effects of TPN, but should not take precedence over the client showing signs of hypoglycemia. A client with an increased temperature should be monitored closely but does not take precedence over the client exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Read each client description carefully. Think about the complications of TPN. Noting the words “decreased to a rate of 25 mL/hr who is now complaining of weakness, headache, and sweating” will direct you to this option as the priority client. Review the complications of TPN and the associated signs and symptoms 70 / 96 A nurse suspects that a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line has an air embolism. The nurse immediately places the client in which position? A. Left side with the head lower than the feet B. Left side with the head higher than the feet C. Right side with the head lower than the feet D. Right side with the head higher than the feet When air embolism is suspected, the client should be placed in a left side–lying position with the head lower than the feet. This position is used to minimize the effect of the air traveling as a bolus to the lungs by trapping it in the right side of the heart. The positions in the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, immediately. To answer this question correctly, you must have specific knowledge of client positioning during the management of this complication. Think about the effect of air embolism and how an embolism travels to answer correctly. Review immediate interventions when air embolism is suspected When air embolism is suspected, the client should be placed in a left side–lying position with the head lower than the feet. This position is used to minimize the effect of the air traveling as a bolus to the lungs by trapping it in the right side of the heart. The positions in the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, immediately. To answer this question correctly, you must have specific knowledge of client positioning during the management of this complication. Think about the effect of air embolism and how an embolism travels to answer correctly. Review immediate interventions when air embolism is suspected 71 / 96 The nurse is preparing to change the solution bag and intravenous tubing of a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a left subclavian central venous line. Which essential action does the nurse ask the client to perform just before switching the tubing? A. Turn the head to the left B. Turn the head to the right C. Exhale slowly and evenly D. Take a deep breath and hold it The nurse must ask the client to take a deep breath and hold it. This effectively achieves the Valsalva maneuver during tubing changes, which helps prevent air embolism. If the line is on the left, it may be helpful to have the client turn the head to the right and vice versa. This allows more room for the nurse to work. However, it is not the most essential action. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the question contains the strategic word “essential.” Recalling that there is a risk of air embolism during tubing changes will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for TPN bag and tubing changes The nurse must ask the client to take a deep breath and hold it. This effectively achieves the Valsalva maneuver during tubing changes, which helps prevent air embolism. If the line is on the left, it may be helpful to have the client turn the head to the right and vice versa. This allows more room for the nurse to work. However, it is not the most essential action. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the question contains the strategic word “essential.” Recalling that there is a risk of air embolism during tubing changes will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for TPN bag and tubing changes 72 / 96 A nurse is preparing a client for the insertion of a central intravenous line into the subclavian vein by the health care provider. The nurse gathers the equipment, places it at the bedside, and prepares to assist the health care provider with the procedure. As further preparation for the procedure, the nurse places the client in which position? A. Flat on the left side B. In the prone position C. In the supine position D. In a slight Trendelenburg position Unless contraindicated, the client is placed in a slight Trendelenburg position. This position is used to increase dilation of the veins and positive pressure in the central veins, reducing the risk of air embolus during insertion. Note that Trendelenburg position is contraindicated in clients with head injuries, increased intracrainial pressure, certain respiratory conditions, and spinal cord injuries. If the client had any of these conditions then an alternative position as prescribed would need to be used for insertion. The other options are incorrect because they will not achieve this goal.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client should be positioned flat. Review the procedure for the insertion of a central intravenous line into the subclavian vein Unless contraindicated, the client is placed in a slight Trendelenburg position. This position is used to increase dilation of the veins and positive pressure in the central veins, reducing the risk of air embolus during insertion. Note that Trendelenburg position is contraindicated in clients with head injuries, increased intracrainial pressure, certain respiratory conditions, and spinal cord injuries. If the client had any of these conditions then an alternative position as prescribed would need to be used for insertion. The other options are incorrect because they will not achieve this goal.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client should be positioned flat. Review the procedure for the insertion of a central intravenous line into the subclavian vein 73 / 96 A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires fat emulsion (lipids), which will be piggybacked to the TPN solution. On obtaining a bottle of fat emulsion, the nurse notes that fat globules are floating at the top of the solution. Which action should the nurse take? A. Shake the bottle vigorously B. Request a new bottle from the pharmacy C. Rotate the bottle gently back and forth to mix the globules D. Run the bottle under warm water until the globules disappear The nurse should not hang a fat emulsion that contains visible fat globules. Another bottle of solution should be obtained and used in its place. When TPN is combined with fat emulsion, the solution should not be used if there is a visible “ring” noted in the container of solution. The actions in the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Remember that options that are comparable or alike are not likely to be correct. With this in mind, eliminate rotating the bag and shaking the bottle first. To select from the remaining options, think about the significance of seeing fat globules in the solution and imagine the potential adverse effect of fat globules in the client’s bloodstream. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedures for administration of fat emulsion The nurse should not hang a fat emulsion that contains visible fat globules. Another bottle of solution should be obtained and used in its place. When TPN is combined with fat emulsion, the solution should not be used if there is a visible “ring” noted in the container of solution. The actions in the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Remember that options that are comparable or alike are not likely to be correct. With this in mind, eliminate rotating the bag and shaking the bottle first. To select from the remaining options, think about the significance of seeing fat globules in the solution and imagine the potential adverse effect of fat globules in the client’s bloodstream. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedures for administration of fat emulsion 74 / 96 A nurse is changing the central line dressing of a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse notes moisture under the dressing covering the catheter insertion site. What should the nurse assess next? A. Temperature B. Time of the last dressing change C. Expiration date on the infusion bag D. Tightness of the tubing connections A loose tubing connection — the most obvious cause of the moisture that could be readily detected and fixed by the nurse — is the first thing the nurse should look for. The client’s temperature would be assessed if the nurse were looking for signs of infection. The expiration date on the infusion bag and the time of the last dressing change are routine observations but have nothing to do with the subject of the question.Test-Taking Strategy: The strategic word in the question is “next.” Also note the relationship between the subject of the question, moisture under the dressing, and tightness of the tubing connections. Review care of the client receiving TPN A loose tubing connection — the most obvious cause of the moisture that could be readily detected and fixed by the nurse — is the first thing the nurse should look for. The client’s temperature would be assessed if the nurse were looking for signs of infection. The expiration date on the infusion bag and the time of the last dressing change are routine observations but have nothing to do with the subject of the question.Test-Taking Strategy: The strategic word in the question is “next.” Also note the relationship between the subject of the question, moisture under the dressing, and tightness of the tubing connections. Review care of the client receiving TPN 75 / 96 At 1600 the nurse checks a client’s total parenteral nutrition (TPN) infusion bag and notes that the solution is running at a rate of 100 mL/hr. The bag was hung the previous day at 1800. The nurse plans to change the infusion bag and tubing this evening at what time? A. 1700 B. 1800 C. 2000 D. 2100 The TPN solution should be changed every 24 hours as a means of helping prevent infection. Infection is also prevented with the use of aseptic technique during bag and tubing changes. Most agencies recommend that tubing be changed every 24 hours along with the TPN infusion bag. Specific agency policies should always be followed. The nurse should also use a filter when administering TPN in accordance with hospital protocol. Therefore the remaining options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question and the subject, the time to change the infusion bag. Recalling that the infusion bag should be changed every 24 hours will direct you to the correct option. Review the principles of TPN administration The TPN solution should be changed every 24 hours as a means of helping prevent infection. Infection is also prevented with the use of aseptic technique during bag and tubing changes. Most agencies recommend that tubing be changed every 24 hours along with the TPN infusion bag. Specific agency policies should always be followed. The nurse should also use a filter when administering TPN in accordance with hospital protocol. Therefore the remaining options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question and the subject, the time to change the infusion bag. Recalling that the infusion bag should be changed every 24 hours will direct you to the correct option. Review the principles of TPN administration 76 / 96 A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which t signs and symptoms causes the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing hyperglycemia as a complication? A. Pallor, weak pulse, and anuria B. Nausea, vomiting, and oliguria C. Nausea, thirst, and increased urine output D. Sweating, chills, and decreased urine output The high glucose concentration in TPN puts the client at risk for hyperglycemia. Signs of hyperglycemia include polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, blurred vision, nausea and vomiting, and abdominal pain. The nurse checks the blood glucose level immediately if these symptoms develop. The signs and symptoms identified in the other options are unrelated to hyperglycemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia. Remembering the “three P’s” (polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia) will direct you to the correct option. Also note that this option is the only one that includes increased urine output. Review the signs of hyperglycemia The high glucose concentration in TPN puts the client at risk for hyperglycemia. Signs of hyperglycemia include polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, blurred vision, nausea and vomiting, and abdominal pain. The nurse checks the blood glucose level immediately if these symptoms develop. The signs and symptoms identified in the other options are unrelated to hyperglycemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia. Remembering the “three P’s” (polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia) will direct you to the correct option. Also note that this option is the only one that includes increased urine output. Review the signs of hyperglycemia 77 / 96 The first bag of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution has arrived on the clinical unit for a client beginning this nutritional therapy. The solution is to be infused by way of a central line. Which essential piece of equipment should the nurse obtain before hanging the solution? A. Pulse oximeter B. Blood glucose meter C. Electronic infusion device D. Noninvasive blood pressure monitor The nurse obtains an electronic infusion device before hanging a TPN solution. Because of the high glucose load, it is necessary to use an infusion device to ensure that the solution does not infuse too rapidly or fall too far behind. Because the client’s blood glucose is checked every 6 to 8 hours during administration of PN, a blood glucose meter will also be needed, but it is not essential before the solution is hung. A noninvasive blood pressure cuff is unnecessary for this procedure. Although oxygen saturation is important, in this situation, it is not the most important equipment to use at this time.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “essential” and note the words “before hanging.” This tells you that the correct option identifies the item that is needed to start the infusion. Use your knowledge of the procedures for TPN administration to eliminate each of the incorrect options. Review theprocedures for initiating a TPN infusion The nurse obtains an electronic infusion device before hanging a TPN solution. Because of the high glucose load, it is necessary to use an infusion device to ensure that the solution does not infuse too rapidly or fall too far behind. Because the client’s blood glucose is checked every 6 to 8 hours during administration of PN, a blood glucose meter will also be needed, but it is not essential before the solution is hung. A noninvasive blood pressure cuff is unnecessary for this procedure. Although oxygen saturation is important, in this situation, it is not the most important equipment to use at this time.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “essential” and note the words “before hanging.” This tells you that the correct option identifies the item that is needed to start the infusion. Use your knowledge of the procedures for TPN administration to eliminate each of the incorrect options. Review theprocedures for initiating a TPN infusion 78 / 96 A client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) line in place has a new prescription for infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a solution containing 25% glucose. Which action should be taken by the nurse? A. Hanging the IV solution as prescribed B. Questioning the health care provider about the prescription C. Diluting the solution with sterile water to half-strength D. Hanging the IV solution but setting the infusion at just half the prescribed rate TPN solutions containing as much as 10% glucose can be infused through peripheral vessels. A TPN solution containing 25% glucose is hypertonic. The nurse should question the prescription in the absence of a central venous catheter or a peripherally inserted central catheter. Diluting the solution with sterile water to half-strength and hanging the IV solution as prescribed are both inappropriate. The nurse must not alter a prescribed solution independently.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question. Note the words “peripheral intravenous (IV) line” and “25% glucose.” Recalling that TPN solutions containing as much as 10% glucose can be infused through peripheral vessels will direct you to the correct option. Review base solutions of TPN and their routes of administration TPN solutions containing as much as 10% glucose can be infused through peripheral vessels. A TPN solution containing 25% glucose is hypertonic. The nurse should question the prescription in the absence of a central venous catheter or a peripherally inserted central catheter. Diluting the solution with sterile water to half-strength and hanging the IV solution as prescribed are both inappropriate. The nurse must not alter a prescribed solution independently.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question. Note the words “peripheral intravenous (IV) line” and “25% glucose.” Recalling that TPN solutions containing as much as 10% glucose can be infused through peripheral vessels will direct you to the correct option. Review base solutions of TPN and their routes of administration 79 / 96 A nurse is assessing a peripheral intravenous (IV) site and notes blanching, coolness, and edema at the insertion site. What should the nurse do first? A. Remove the IV B. Apply a warm compress C. Check for blood return D. Measure the area of infiltration Blanching, coolness, and edema of the IV site are all signs of infiltration. Because infiltration may result in damage to the surrounding tissue, the nurse must first remove the IV cannula to prevent any further damage. The nurse should not depend solely on the blood return for assurance that the cannula is in the vein, because blood return may be present even if the cannula is only partially in the vein. Compresses may be used, but the compress (warm or cool) depends on the type of solution infusing and health care provider preference. The nurse should measure the area of infiltration after the IV has been removed so that further tissue damage is prevented.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Although each of these options is appropriate, it is necessary to prioritize them. The signs presented in the question point to infiltration. Infiltration indicates that the IV must be removed. Review the signs of infiltration and the appropriate initial interventions Blanching, coolness, and edema of the IV site are all signs of infiltration. Because infiltration may result in damage to the surrounding tissue, the nurse must first remove the IV cannula to prevent any further damage. The nurse should not depend solely on the blood return for assurance that the cannula is in the vein, because blood return may be present even if the cannula is only partially in the vein. Compresses may be used, but the compress (warm or cool) depends on the type of solution infusing and health care provider preference. The nurse should measure the area of infiltration after the IV has been removed so that further tissue damage is prevented.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Although each of these options is appropriate, it is necessary to prioritize them. The signs presented in the question point to infiltration. Infiltration indicates that the IV must be removed. Review the signs of infiltration and the appropriate initial interventions 80 / 96 The health care provider (HCP)prescribes the administration of totalparenteral nutrition (TPN), to be started at a rate of 50 mL/hr by way of infusion pump through an established subclavian central line. After the first 2 hours of the TPN infusion, the client suddenly complains of difficulty breathing and chest pain. The nurse should take which immediate action? A. Obtain blood for culture B. Clamp the TPN infusion line C. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG) D. Obtain a sample for blood glucose testing One complication of a subclavian central line is embolism, caused by air or thrombus. Sudden onset of chest pain shortly after the initiation of TPN may mean that this complication has developed. The infusion is clamped (the line should not be discontinued, however), the client turned on the left side with the head down, and the HCP notified immediately. Depending on agency protocol, the rapid response team would also be called. Blood cultures are not necessary in this situation, because infection is not the concern. Likewise, there is no useful reason for checking the blood glucose level. An ECG may be obtained, but this is not the immediate priority. If the client shows signs of an air embolism, the nurse should examine the catheter to determine whether an open port has allowed air into the circulatory system.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediate.” Focus on the data provided in the question to determine that an embolus has occurred. Eliminate blood cultures and blood glucose testing, which, respectively, relate to infection and hyperglycemia, which is not likely to occur during the first 2 hours of TPN administration. To select from the remaining options, focus on the strategic word “immediate”; this will direct you to the correct option. Review the complications of TPN and the associated nursing interventions One complication of a subclavian central line is embolism, caused by air or thrombus. Sudden onset of chest pain shortly after the initiation of TPN may mean that this complication has developed. The infusion is clamped (the line should not be discontinued, however), the client turned on the left side with the head down, and the HCP notified immediately. Depending on agency protocol, the rapid response team would also be called. Blood cultures are not necessary in this situation, because infection is not the concern. Likewise, there is no useful reason for checking the blood glucose level. An ECG may be obtained, but this is not the immediate priority. If the client shows signs of an air embolism, the nurse should examine the catheter to determine whether an open port has allowed air into the circulatory system.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediate.” Focus on the data provided in the question to determine that an embolus has occurred. Eliminate blood cultures and blood glucose testing, which, respectively, relate to infection and hyperglycemia, which is not likely to occur during the first 2 hours of TPN administration. To select from the remaining options, focus on the strategic word “immediate”; this will direct you to the correct option. Review the complications of TPN and the associated nursing interventions 81 / 96 A client with heart failure is being given furosemide and digoxin. The client calls the nurse and complains of anorexia and nausea. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Administer an antiemetic B. Administer the daily dose of digoxin C. Discontinue the morning dose of furosemide D. Checkthe result of laboratory testing for potassium on the sample drawn 3 hours ago : Anorexia and nausea are symptoms commonly associated with digoxin toxicity, which is compounded by hypokalemia. Early clinical manifestations of digoxin toxicity include anorexia and mild nausea, but they are frequently overlooked or not associated with digoxin toxicity. Hallucinations and any change in pulse rhythm, color vision, or behavior should be investigated and reported to the health care provider. The nurse should first check the results of the potassium level, which will provide additional when the nurse calls the health care provider,an important follow-up action. The nurse should also check the digoxin reading if one is available. The nurse would not administer an antiemetic without further investigating the client’s problem. Because digoxin toxicity is suspected, the nurse would withhold the digoxin until the health care provider has been consulted. The nurse would not discontinue a medication without a prescription to do so. : Anorexia and nausea are symptoms commonly associated with digoxin toxicity, which is compounded by hypokalemia. Early clinical manifestations of digoxin toxicity include anorexia and mild nausea, but they are frequently overlooked or not associated with digoxin toxicity. Hallucinations and any change in pulse rhythm, color vision, or behavior should be investigated and reported to the health care provider. The nurse should first check the results of the potassium level, which will provide additional when the nurse calls the health care provider,an important follow-up action. The nurse should also check the digoxin reading if one is available. The nurse would not administer an antiemetic without further investigating the client’s problem. Because digoxin toxicity is suspected, the nurse would withhold the digoxin until the health care provider has been consulted. The nurse would not discontinue a medication without a prescription to do so. 82 / 96 A nurse discontinues an infusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (RBCs) because the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction. After discontinuing the transfusion, which action should the nurse take next? A. Remove the IV catheter B. Contact the health care provider C. Change the solution to 5% dextrose in water D. Obtain a culture of the tip of the catheter device removed from the client If the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, the transfusion is stopped and normal saline solution infused at a keep-vein-open rate pending further health care provider prescriptions. The nurse then contacts the health care provider.. Dextrose in water is not used, because it may cause clotting or hemolysis of blood cells. Normal saline solution is the only type of IV fluid that is compatible with blood. The nurse would not remove the IV catheter, because then there would be no IV access route through which to treat the reaction. There is no reason to obtain a culture of the catheter tip; this is done when an infection is suspected.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “next.” Knowing that the IV should not be removed will assist you in the elimination process. Recalling that normal saline solution is the only type of IV fluid that is compatible with blood will also help you answer correctly. To select from the remaining options, note that infection is not the concern; this will help you eliminate the option of obtaining a culture of the catheter tip. Review care of the client experiencing a transfusion reaction If the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, the transfusion is stopped and normal saline solution infused at a keep-vein-open rate pending further health care provider prescriptions. The nurse then contacts the health care provider.. Dextrose in water is not used, because it may cause clotting or hemolysis of blood cells. Normal saline solution is the only type of IV fluid that is compatible with blood. The nurse would not remove the IV catheter, because then there would be no IV access route through which to treat the reaction. There is no reason to obtain a culture of the catheter tip; this is done when an infection is suspected.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “next.” Knowing that the IV should not be removed will assist you in the elimination process. Recalling that normal saline solution is the only type of IV fluid that is compatible with blood will also help you answer correctly. To select from the remaining options, note that infection is not the concern; this will help you eliminate the option of obtaining a culture of the catheter tip. Review care of the client experiencing a transfusion reaction 83 / 96 A nurse hangs a 500-mL bag of intravenous (IV) fluid for an assigned client. One hour later the client complains of chest tightness, is dyspneic and apprehensive, and has an irregular pulse. The IV bag has 100 mL remaining. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Remove the IV B. Sit the client up in bed C. Shut off the IV infusion D. Slow the rate of infusion The client’s symptoms are indicative of speed shock, which results from the rapid infusion of drugs or a bolus infusion. In this case, the nurse would note that 400 mL has infused over 60 minutes. The first action on the part of the nurse is shutting off the IV infusion. Other actions may follow in rapid sequence: The nurse may elevate the head of the bed to aid the client’s breathing and then immediately notify the health care provider. Slowing the infusion rate is inappropriate because the client will continue to receive fluid. The IV does not need to be removed. It may be needed to manage the complication.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the question contains the strategic word “first.” Recognizing the signs of speed shock and recalling the appropriate interventions should also direct you to the option of shutting off the IV infusion. Review the initial nursing actions for speed shock The client’s symptoms are indicative of speed shock, which results from the rapid infusion of drugs or a bolus infusion. In this case, the nurse would note that 400 mL has infused over 60 minutes. The first action on the part of the nurse is shutting off the IV infusion. Other actions may follow in rapid sequence: The nurse may elevate the head of the bed to aid the client’s breathing and then immediately notify the health care provider. Slowing the infusion rate is inappropriate because the client will continue to receive fluid. The IV does not need to be removed. It may be needed to manage the complication.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the question contains the strategic word “first.” Recognizing the signs of speed shock and recalling the appropriate interventions should also direct you to the option of shutting off the IV infusion. Review the initial nursing actions for speed shock 84 / 96 A nurse notes that the site of a client’s peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter is reddened, warm, painful, and slightly edematous near the insertion point of the catheter. On the basis of this assessment, the nurse should take which action first? A. Remove the IV catheter B. Slow the rate of infusion C. Notify the health care provider D. Check for loose catheter connections Phlebitis is an inflammatory process in the vein. Phlebitis at an IV site may be indicated by client discomfort at the site or by redness, warmth, and swelling in the area of the catheter. The IV catheter should be removed and a new IV line inserted at a different site. Slowing the rate of infusion and checking for loose catheter connections are not correct responses. The health care provider would be notified if phlebitis were to occur, but this is not the initial action.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Focus on the data in the question. Eliminate slowing the rate of infusion and checking the connection, because they are comparable or alike in that they indicate continuation of IV therapy. Although the health care provider would be notified of this occurrence, the word “first” should direct you to select the option of removing the IV catheter. Review the signs of phlebitis and the actions to be taken when it occurs Phlebitis is an inflammatory process in the vein. Phlebitis at an IV site may be indicated by client discomfort at the site or by redness, warmth, and swelling in the area of the catheter. The IV catheter should be removed and a new IV line inserted at a different site. Slowing the rate of infusion and checking for loose catheter connections are not correct responses. The health care provider would be notified if phlebitis were to occur, but this is not the initial action.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Focus on the data in the question. Eliminate slowing the rate of infusion and checking the connection, because they are comparable or alike in that they indicate continuation of IV therapy. Although the health care provider would be notified of this occurrence, the word “first” should direct you to select the option of removing the IV catheter. Review the signs of phlebitis and the actions to be taken when it occurs 85 / 96 A 24-year-old schizophrenic client says, “I was in college and suddenly I was hearing voices telling me I was no good and that I should jump off the bridge by our college. My parents came and got me when I called them. We thought that I had inadvertently taken drugs at a party or something. My psychiatrist says that if I can improve, I can return to college next semester.” Which guideline does the nurse plan to incorporate into teaching of the client and family about self-care on the client’s return to college? A. Compliance with the treatment regimen, immediate reporting of any relapse signs, avoidance of alcohol and drugs, and living a balanced lifestyle B. Telling all friends about the illness so that they support the client’s avoidance of alcohol and drugs and help the client maintain a balanced lifestyle C. Limiting college attendance to commuter status to maintain a supportive family group and avoiding drugs, alcohol, and the strain of socialization D. Compliance with treatment, immediate reporting of any relapse signs, avoidance of alcohol and drugs, and socialization with one supportive friend Self-care guidelines for the client include compliance with the treatment regimen, immediate reporting of any relapse signs, avoidance of alcohol and drugs, and living a balanced lifestyle. Telling all friends about the illness so that they can support the client’s avoidance of alcohol and drugs and help the client maintain a balanced lifestyle is incorrect. Although the closest supportive friends need to know and understand the illness, not everybody does. Limiting college attendance to commuter status to maintain a supportive family group and avoiding drugs, alcohol, and the strain of socialization is incorrect. Not allowing the client to be independent and follow a normal growth and development pattern would retard the client’s growth. Socializing with one supportive friend is incorrect because it is best to bring as many supportive persons to the client as possible.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and the subject, self-care. Eliminate the options that contain the words “one,” “all,” and “limiting”. Also note that the correct option is the umbrella option. Review: care of the client with schizophrenia .Reference: Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2009). Essentials of psychiatric mental health nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care (p. 293). St. Louis: Saunders. Self-care guidelines for the client include compliance with the treatment regimen, immediate reporting of any relapse signs, avoidance of alcohol and drugs, and living a balanced lifestyle. Telling all friends about the illness so that they can support the client’s avoidance of alcohol and drugs and help the client maintain a balanced lifestyle is incorrect. Although the closest supportive friends need to know and understand the illness, not everybody does. Limiting college attendance to commuter status to maintain a supportive family group and avoiding drugs, alcohol, and the strain of socialization is incorrect. Not allowing the client to be independent and follow a normal growth and development pattern would retard the client’s growth. Socializing with one supportive friend is incorrect because it is best to bring as many supportive persons to the client as possible.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and the subject, self-care. Eliminate the options that contain the words “one,” “all,” and “limiting”. Also note that the correct option is the umbrella option. Review: care of the client with schizophrenia .Reference: Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2009). Essentials of psychiatric mental health nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care (p. 293). St. Louis: Saunders. 86 / 96 A schizophrenic client is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit. The client is exhibiting clang associations, word salad, and loose associations. Which problem does the nurse recognize that the client is experiencing? A. Defensive coping B. Inability to cope effectively C. Sensory perception alterations D. Inability to communicate effectively Clang associations, word salad, and loose associations are language disturbances that indicate a client’s inability to communicate effectively. These manifestations are not associated with coping or sensory alterations.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike: Defensive coping is the same as inability to cope effectively. To select from the remaining options, recall that clang associations, word salad, and loose associations are signs of disturbed thought process and impaired verbal communication, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: the characteristics of schizophrenia .References: Stuart, G. (2009). Principles & practice of psychiatric nursing (9th ed., p. 338). St. Louis: Mosby.Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2009). Essentials of psychiatric mental health nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care (p. 281). St. Louis: Saunders. Clang associations, word salad, and loose associations are language disturbances that indicate a client’s inability to communicate effectively. These manifestations are not associated with coping or sensory alterations.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike: Defensive coping is the same as inability to cope effectively. To select from the remaining options, recall that clang associations, word salad, and loose associations are signs of disturbed thought process and impaired verbal communication, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: the characteristics of schizophrenia .References: Stuart, G. (2009). Principles & practice of psychiatric nursing (9th ed., p. 338). St. Louis: Mosby.Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2009). Essentials of psychiatric mental health nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care (p. 281). St. Louis: Saunders. 87 / 96 The nurse plans outcomes for a client who is being treated for psychosis. Which step would be included during the stable or discharge phase of treatment? A. Evaluation of neurological status B. Use of directive communications with the client C. Administration of acute psychotropic medications D. Keeping the client active with hobbies, exercise, and work Desired outcomes for a psychotic client during the stable or discharge phase of treatment include maintenance of a consistent sleeping pattern; avoidance of caffeine and alcohol; maintenance of daily and weekly routines, including enjoyable activities; and a regular medication schedule. Evaluation of neurological status, the use of directive communications, and the administration of acute psychotropic medications with the client are all active-phase interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: and focus on the subject, the stable or discharge phase of treatment. First eliminate the option that contains the word “acute.” To select from the remaining options, focus on the subject. Evaluation of neurological status and use of directive communications with the client are part of the acute phase of treatment. Review: interventions for the client with psychosis who is preparing for discharge .References: Stuart, G. (2009). Principles & practice of psychiatric nursing (9th ed., p. 233). St. Louis: Mosby.Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2009). Essentials of psychiatric mental health nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care (p. 293). St. Louis: Saunders. Desired outcomes for a psychotic client during the stable or discharge phase of treatment include maintenance of a consistent sleeping pattern; avoidance of caffeine and alcohol; maintenance of daily and weekly routines, including enjoyable activities; and a regular medication schedule. Evaluation of neurological status, the use of directive communications, and the administration of acute psychotropic medications with the client are all active-phase interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: and focus on the subject, the stable or discharge phase of treatment. First eliminate the option that contains the word “acute.” To select from the remaining options, focus on the subject. Evaluation of neurological status and use of directive communications with the client are part of the acute phase of treatment. Review: interventions for the client with psychosis who is preparing for discharge .References: Stuart, G. (2009). Principles & practice of psychiatric nursing (9th ed., p. 233). St. Louis: Mosby.Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2009). Essentials of psychiatric mental health nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care (p. 293). St. Louis: Saunders. 88 / 96 A schizophrenic client says to the nurse, “I keep getting these thoughts and hearing voices. They worry and consume me so that I can’t always stop myself like my health care provider told me to.” Which intervention would the nurse suggest as a distraction technique? A. “Pretend that you’re on the phone and talk to the voices.” B. “Have you tried to count back from 100 or listen to music?” C. “The next time this happens, try telling the voices to go away.” D. “Tell the voices that you will only listen to them just before you watch television at 8:30 in the evening.” Distracting ways of coping with voices include reading aloud, describing an object in detail, listening to music, and watching television. Having the client try to count back from 100 or listen to music will assist in distraction. In the remaining options, the nurse suggests interacting techniques that reinforce the client’s belief that the voices are real.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that the voices are real. Review: care of the schizophrenic client who is hallucinating .Reference: Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2009). Essentials of psychiatric mental health nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care (p. 288). St. Louis: Saunders. Distracting ways of coping with voices include reading aloud, describing an object in detail, listening to music, and watching television. Having the client try to count back from 100 or listen to music will assist in distraction. In the remaining options, the nurse suggests interacting techniques that reinforce the client’s belief that the voices are real.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that the voices are real. Review: care of the schizophrenic client who is hallucinating .Reference: Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2009). Essentials of psychiatric mental health nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care (p. 288). St. Louis: Saunders. 89 / 96 A schizophrenic client exhibits confused and unintelligible speech. Which nursing statement would be most therapeutic? A. “Got it. The ‘blinks’ are ‘taking over’ the ‘bumpers.’” B. “I can’t understand what you’re saying. You have to talk more clearly!” C. “This morning you are participating in the tree-decorating ceremony for the unit.” D. “I can’t understand you. Are you asking me to stay with you while you eat supper?” The most therapeutic technique for assisting a client whose speech is confused and unintelligible is to emphasize what is happening in the here and now and involve the client in simple reality-based activities. “Got it. The ‘blinks’ are ‘taking over’ the ‘bumpers’” is unintelligible speech on the part of the nurse and reinforces the client’s behavior. In stating, “I can’t understand what you’re saying. You have to talk more clearly!” the nurse begins with an appropriate response, but demanding that the client speak more clearly is inappropriate. In responding, “I can’t understand you. Are you asking me to stay with you while you eat supper?” the nurse is guessing at what the client has said.Test-Taking Strategy: First eliminate the option that is unintelligible. Next eliminate the option that is demanding that the client speak more clearly. As you choose from the remaining options, remember that a schizophrenic client who exhibits confusion and unintelligible speech should be involved in simple reality-based activities. Review: care of the client with schizophrenia .Reference: Stuart, G. (2009). Principles & practice of psychiatric nursing (9th ed., p. 348). St. Louis: Mosby. The most therapeutic technique for assisting a client whose speech is confused and unintelligible is to emphasize what is happening in the here and now and involve the client in simple reality-based activities. “Got it. The ‘blinks’ are ‘taking over’ the ‘bumpers’” is unintelligible speech on the part of the nurse and reinforces the client’s behavior. In stating, “I can’t understand what you’re saying. You have to talk more clearly!” the nurse begins with an appropriate response, but demanding that the client speak more clearly is inappropriate. In responding, “I can’t understand you. Are you asking me to stay with you while you eat supper?” the nurse is guessing at what the client has said.Test-Taking Strategy: First eliminate the option that is unintelligible. Next eliminate the option that is demanding that the client speak more clearly. As you choose from the remaining options, remember that a schizophrenic client who exhibits confusion and unintelligible speech should be involved in simple reality-based activities. Review: care of the client with schizophrenia .Reference: Stuart, G. (2009). Principles & practice of psychiatric nursing (9th ed., p. 348). St. Louis: Mosby. 90 / 96 A nurse educator describes the standards of care formulated by the American Nurses Association to a group of new nursing graduates hired by the hospital. Which of the following options are accurate descriptions of these standards of care? Select all that apply. A. Are specific guidelines B. Define professional practice C. Have some similarity to policies and procedures D. Are statements that relate only to the agency in which the nurse is employed E. Are authoritative statements that describe a common or acceptable level of client care or performance Standards of care are authoritative statements that describe a common or acceptable level of client care or performance. They bear some similarity to policies and procedures. Therefore standards of care define professional practice. The American Nurses Association has formulated general standards and guidelines for nursing practice. They are general in nature and apply across the nation.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, standards of care formulated by the American Nurses Association. Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they contain the words “specific” or “only.” Review: the standards of care set forth by the American Nurses Association .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 627, 628). St. Louis: Saunders. Standards of care are authoritative statements that describe a common or acceptable level of client care or performance. They bear some similarity to policies and procedures. Therefore standards of care define professional practice. The American Nurses Association has formulated general standards and guidelines for nursing practice. They are general in nature and apply across the nation.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, standards of care formulated by the American Nurses Association. Note that the incorrect options are comparable or alike in that they contain the words “specific” or “only.” Review: the standards of care set forth by the American Nurses Association .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 627, 628). St. Louis: Saunders. 91 / 96 A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe accountability. Which statement(s) by the student indicate(s) an accurate description of accountability? Select all that apply. A. “Accountability can be delegated.” B. “It carries legal implications for task performance.” C. “You are responsible for your own actions.” D. “It refers to the process of answering or being responsible for what occurs.” E. “You must answer for the care that you ask others to complete.” Accountability, the process of answering or being responsible for what occurs, carries legal implications for task performance. Accountability cannot be delegated; one is responsible for one’s own actions and must answer for the care given, as well as for the care one asks others to complete.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the definition of accountability. Recalling this definition will easily direct you to the correct options. Review: the definition of accountability .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 249, 250). St. Louis: Saunders. Accountability, the process of answering or being responsible for what occurs, carries legal implications for task performance. Accountability cannot be delegated; one is responsible for one’s own actions and must answer for the care given, as well as for the care one asks others to complete.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the definition of accountability. Recalling this definition will easily direct you to the correct options. Review: the definition of accountability .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 249, 250). St. Louis: Saunders. 92 / 96 A registered nurse (RN) is planning assignments for five clients on the nursing unit. The team includes a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and a nursing assistant. Which clients should the nurse assign to the LPN? Select all that apply. A. A client who is confused and requires assistance with a shower B. A client requiring a bed bath and frequent ambulation with a cane C. A client who must be accompanied to physical therapy twice during the shift D. A client with a colostomy who requires reinforcement regarding the procedure for irrigation E. A client with diabetes mellitus who requires the administration of regular insulin in accordance with a sliding dosage scale every 4 hours When delegating nursing assignments, the nurse must consider the skills and educational level of the nursing staff. The nursing assistant may be assigned the tasks of caring for a confused client, assisting with a shower or a bed bath, ambulating a client with a cane, and accompanying a client to physical therapy. The LPN is educated to reinforce teaching regarding the colostomy irrigation (the RN is responsible for the initial teaching) and administering regular insulin in accordance with a sliding scale.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the client assignment for the LPN. to eliminate the clients whose needs are noninvasive, because a nursing assistant may perform these tasks. This will help you identify the clients who may be assigned to the LPN. , review the principles of delegation and assignment–making.Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 244-246, 250). St. Louis: Saunders. When delegating nursing assignments, the nurse must consider the skills and educational level of the nursing staff. The nursing assistant may be assigned the tasks of caring for a confused client, assisting with a shower or a bed bath, ambulating a client with a cane, and accompanying a client to physical therapy. The LPN is educated to reinforce teaching regarding the colostomy irrigation (the RN is responsible for the initial teaching) and administering regular insulin in accordance with a sliding scale.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the client assignment for the LPN. to eliminate the clients whose needs are noninvasive, because a nursing assistant may perform these tasks. This will help you identify the clients who may be assigned to the LPN. , review the principles of delegation and assignment–making.Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 244-246, 250). St. Louis: Saunders. 93 / 96 A registered nurse (RN) is planning client assignments for the day. Which clients should the nurse assign to a nursing assistant (unlicensed assistive personnel)? Select all that apply. A. A client with a permanent tracheostomy B. A client requiring a gastrostomy tube dressing change C. A client who requires transport to the radiology department in a wheelchair D. A client with a Foley catheter for whom a 24-hour urine collection is in progress E. A client who underwent surgery an hour earlier and has a nasogastric tube and a Foley catheter The nurse must base assignments on the basis of the skills of the staff member and the needs of the client. The nursing assistant is capable of caring for the client with a Foley catheter for whom a 24-hour urine collection is in progress and the client who requires transport to the radiology department in a wheelchair. The nursing assistant is skilled in such tasks. The client who has just undergone surgery will require specific monitoring in addition to recording of vital signs. Dressing changes and tracheostomy care are not performed by unlicensed personnel.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, assignments for the nursing assistant. Think about the skills that the nursing assistant can perform and remember that the nursing assistant may perform tasks that are noninvasive. Review: the principles of delegation and assignment–making .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 244-246, 250). St. Louis: Saunders. The nurse must base assignments on the basis of the skills of the staff member and the needs of the client. The nursing assistant is capable of caring for the client with a Foley catheter for whom a 24-hour urine collection is in progress and the client who requires transport to the radiology department in a wheelchair. The nursing assistant is skilled in such tasks. The client who has just undergone surgery will require specific monitoring in addition to recording of vital signs. Dressing changes and tracheostomy care are not performed by unlicensed personnel.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, assignments for the nursing assistant. Think about the skills that the nursing assistant can perform and remember that the nursing assistant may perform tasks that are noninvasive. Review: the principles of delegation and assignment–making .Reference: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 244-246, 250). St. Louis: Saunders. 94 / 96 A nurse is providing a change-of-shift report on his assigned clients, using an audiotape. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include in the report about each assigned client? Select all that apply. A. Family history B. Client needs and priorities of care C. Current diagnosis and any secondary diagnoses D. Results of laboratory studies conducted that day E. Client response to treatments implemented that day F. The steps used to perform the procedure for changing the client’s sterile dressing at the gastrostomy tube site A change-of-shift report ensures continuity of care among nurses caring for a client and informs the nurse on the next shift about the client’s needs and priorities for care. It may be given written, orally, by audiotape, or while the nurses are walking rounds at a client’s bedside. The report should describe the client’s health status, current and secondary diagnoses, results of laboratory or diagnostic studies done that day, and the client’s response to treatments implemented that day. The client’s family history does not need to be described in a change-of shift report, and doing so would take time. If such information is needed by the oncoming nurse, it may be obtained from the client’s medical record. There is no useful reason for describing a routine procedure; this would also take time, and the information is available in the agency procedure manual.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, what to include in the change-of-shift report. Read each option carefully and eliminate family history, because it is not directly related to the client’s current status. Next eliminate the option that involves describing the steps in performing a procedure, because this is routine information. Also note that the correct options are client focused. Review: the components of a change-of-shift report .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 400-402). St. Louis: Mosby. A change-of-shift report ensures continuity of care among nurses caring for a client and informs the nurse on the next shift about the client’s needs and priorities for care. It may be given written, orally, by audiotape, or while the nurses are walking rounds at a client’s bedside. The report should describe the client’s health status, current and secondary diagnoses, results of laboratory or diagnostic studies done that day, and the client’s response to treatments implemented that day. The client’s family history does not need to be described in a change-of shift report, and doing so would take time. If such information is needed by the oncoming nurse, it may be obtained from the client’s medical record. There is no useful reason for describing a routine procedure; this would also take time, and the information is available in the agency procedure manual.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, what to include in the change-of-shift report. Read each option carefully and eliminate family history, because it is not directly related to the client’s current status. Next eliminate the option that involves describing the steps in performing a procedure, because this is routine information. Also note that the correct options are client focused. Review: the components of a change-of-shift report .Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 400-402). St. Louis: Mosby. 95 / 96 A registered nurse (RN) in charge of a long-term care facility who is working with a nursing assistant on the night shift prepares to take her break. To ensure client safety during her break, which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. A. Conducting client rounds before taking the break B. Taking the break in the staff lounge located on the nursing unit C. Asking the nursing assistant to monitor a client’s tube feeding and to contact the nurse when the feeding bag is empty D. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse’s break if a client’s pain medication is not effective E. Informing the nursing assistant that she is leaving the nursing unit to get a cup of coffee from a vending machine in the lobby F. Asking the nursing assistant to administer a medication placed at the client’s bedside if the client awakens The RN is responsible for ensuring client safety at all times and must not leave the nursing unit for any reason during the shift. The nurse’s break should be taken in a designated area located on the nursing unit. Before taking the break, the nurse should check all clients to ensure that they are safe and comfortable and that their needs have been met. A nursing assistant should never be asked to perform any activity that he or she is not trained for. This includes such activities as administering medications; assessing, monitoring, or evaluating the client; and making decisions about contacting a physician.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the roles and responsibilities of the RN and the tasks or activities that the nursing assistant may legally perform and focus on the subject, safety. Remember that the registered nurse is responsible for administering medications; assessing, monitoring, and evaluating the client; and making decisions about contacting a physician. Review: the role of the RN and the tasks and activities that may be delegated to a nursing assistant.References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 242, 243). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 400-402). St. Louis: Mosby. The RN is responsible for ensuring client safety at all times and must not leave the nursing unit for any reason during the shift. The nurse’s break should be taken in a designated area located on the nursing unit. Before taking the break, the nurse should check all clients to ensure that they are safe and comfortable and that their needs have been met. A nursing assistant should never be asked to perform any activity that he or she is not trained for. This includes such activities as administering medications; assessing, monitoring, or evaluating the client; and making decisions about contacting a physician.Test-Taking Strategy: Think about the roles and responsibilities of the RN and the tasks or activities that the nursing assistant may legally perform and focus on the subject, safety. Remember that the registered nurse is responsible for administering medications; assessing, monitoring, and evaluating the client; and making decisions about contacting a physician. Review: the role of the RN and the tasks and activities that may be delegated to a nursing assistant.References: Huber, D. (2010). Leadership and nursing care management (4th ed., pp. 242, 243). St. Louis: Saunders.Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., pp. 400-402). St. Louis: Mosby. 96 / 96 The registered nurse has accepted a new position as case manager in a hospital. Which responsibilities are part of the nurse’s new role? Select all that apply. A. Evaluating and updating the plan of care as needed B. Prescribing treatments specific to the client’s needs C. Assessing the client’s needs for home supplies and equipment D. Coordinating consultations and referrals to facilitate discharge E. Establishing a safe and cost-effective plan of care with the client A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating the client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. Specific responsibilities of the case manager include establishing a safe and cost-effective plan of care with the client, coordinating consultations and referrals, and facilitating discharge; initiating a plan of nursing care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care and evaluating and updating the plan of care as needed; ensuring that the plan of care is tailored to the client’s needs, taking into account the client’s diagnosis, self-care ability, and prescribed treatments; assessing the client’s need for equipment such as oxygen or wound care supplies and exploring available resources to provide the client with these supplies; providing resources that will assist the client in maintaining independence as much as possible; and providing the client with information on discharge procedures and the plan of care. The nurse does not prescribe treatments.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the responsibilities of the case manager. Note the word “prescribing” in the incorrect option. It is not within the role of the nurse to prescribe. Review: the responsibilities of the case manager if you have difficulty with this question.Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 21). St. Louis: Mosby. A case manager is a nurse who assumes responsibility for coordinating the client’s care from the point of admission through, and after, discharge. Specific responsibilities of the case manager include establishing a safe and cost-effective plan of care with the client, coordinating consultations and referrals, and facilitating discharge; initiating a plan of nursing care, care map, or clinical pathway as appropriate to guide care and evaluating and updating the plan of care as needed; ensuring that the plan of care is tailored to the client’s needs, taking into account the client’s diagnosis, self-care ability, and prescribed treatments; assessing the client’s need for equipment such as oxygen or wound care supplies and exploring available resources to provide the client with these supplies; providing resources that will assist the client in maintaining independence as much as possible; and providing the client with information on discharge procedures and the plan of care. The nurse does not prescribe treatments.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the responsibilities of the case manager. Note the word “prescribing” in the incorrect option. It is not within the role of the nurse to prescribe. Review: the responsibilities of the case manager if you have difficulty with this question.Reference: Potter, P., & Perry, A. (2009). Fundamentals of nursing (7th ed., p. 21). St. Louis: Mosby. Your score is 0% Please rate this Quiz Send feedback
Nclex Content Review Class One – Week Four
Week Four Assessment
The nurse should remove the IV from the phlebitic site and apply warm, moist compresses to the area to speed resolution of the inflammation and absorb the fluid from the tissues. The nurse also notifies the primary health care provider of this complication. The nurse should restart the IV line in a vein other than the one in which phlebitis has developed. The nurse should discourage the client from rubbing the site while in the shower, because this could cause sloughing of the tissue.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question and the client’s problem, phlebitis. Think about the pathophysiology of phlebitis to find the correct interventions. Review nursing interventions for phlebitis
Signs of an adverse reaction to fat emulsion include chest and back pain, chills, fever, dyspnea, cyanosis, diaphoresis, flushing, headache, nausea and vomiting, pressure over the eyes, vertigo, and thrombophlebitis at the infusion site.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, adverse effects of fat emulsion. Recalling that fever and flushing occur will assist you in answering correctly. Specific knowledge about these adverse effects is needed to select the remaining correct options. Review the signs of an adverse reaction to fat emulsion
TPN is indicated in the client whose gastrointestinal tract is not functional or who cannot tolerate an enteral diet for extended periods. The client with sepsis is very ill and may require TPN. Other candidates include clients who have undergone extensive surgery, sustained multiple fractures, or have advanced cancer or AIDS. The client who has undergone hiatal hernia repair is not a candidate, because this client would resume a normal diet within a relatively short period after the hernia repair. The client with renal calculi also is not a candidate because the client would be able to eat.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the question contains the strategic words “most likely,” telling you that the correct options are the clients who require this type of nutritional support. Focus on the needs of the clients identified in the options and use your knowledge of the purposes of TPN to direct you to the correct option. Review the purposes and uses for TPN
When a client is receiving TPN therapy, the nurse monitors the client’s weight to determine the effectiveness of the therapy. The nurse should weigh the client at each visit to make sure that the client has not gained or lost an excessive amount of weight. Because the formula contains a large amount of dextrose, the health care provider should check the client’s glucose level frequently. The nurse caring for a client receiving TPN at home should also monitor the temperature to detect infection, which is a potential complication of this therapy. An infection in the intravenous line could result in sepsis, because the catheter is in a blood vessel. The peripheral pulses and hemoglobin and hematocrit readings may provide data but are unrelated to complications associated with TPN therapy.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, complications associated with TPN therapy. Think about the procedures involved with the administration of TPN and the associated complications to answer correctly. Review the priority assessments in the client receiving TPN
The tasks of mourning have been identified as accepting the reality of the loss; experiencing the pain of grief; adjusting to life without the lost one; and relocating and memorializing the loved one. It is not necessary to find a positive aspect to the loss in order to deal with the loss in a psychologically healthy manner. Therefore relating that its better “he went first” is incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Use the process of elimination and focus on the subject, completing the tasks of mourning. Recalling the tasks of mourning will direct you to the correct options. Review the tasks related to mourning and grief and loss if you had difficulty with this question.Reference:Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2010).
Blood must be hung within 30 minutes after obtaining it from the blood bank. After that time, the temperature of the blood becomes warm and could be unsafe for use. Therefore 1345 and 1400 are incorrect. It is not necessary to hang the blood within 15 minutes of receiving it from the blood bank.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the standard procedures related to blood administration.Remember that blood must be hung within 30 minutes after obtaining it from the blood bank. Review the procedure for blood administration
If the client has a temperature of 100.0° F (37.7 C) or higher, the unit of blood should not be hung until the health care provider has been notified and had the opportunity to give further prescriptions. It is likely that the health care provider will prescribe the blood to be administered despite the temperature, but it is not within the nurse’s scope of practice to make that determination. Therefore the other options are incorrect. Additionally, medications are not administered to the client without a prescription.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, next. First eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they call for administration of a medication. Choose calling the health care provider over beginning the transfusion as prescribed, knowing that an increased temperature is abnormal. Review the procedure for blood transfusions
The nurse returns the transfusion bag, containing any remaining blood, to the blood bank. This allows the blood bank to perform any follow-up testing needed in the event of a documented transfusion reaction. The other options are incorrect because they do not handle post transfusion reaction procedures or testing.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, post-transfusion reaction procedures. Use your knowledge of routine transfusion-related procedures to answer this question. Knowing that blood is issued by the blood bank will help you eliminate each of the incorrect options. Review procedures in the event of a blood transfusion reaction
Sodium chloride (normal saline, NS) 0.9% is an isotonic solution that is typically used both to precede and follow infusion of a blood product. Dextrose is not used because it could result in clumping and subsequent hemolysis of RBCs. LR is not the solution of choice for this procedure, even though it is an isotonic solution.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, compatible IV solutions. Familiarity with blood administration procedures is needed to answer this question. Remember that sodium chloride is the solution that is compatible with red blood cells. Review the procedure for administering blood.
The nurse must remain with the client for the first 15 minutes of a transfusion, the time frame during which most transfusion reactions occur. This will enable the nurse to quickly detect a reaction and intervene quickly. Five minutes is too short; the nurse would not be present during the critical 15 minutes. Staying with the client for 45 or 60 minutes is unnecessary.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, nursing responsibilities after hanging a unit of blood. Familiarity with blood transfusion procedures is needed to answer this question accurately. Remember that the client must be directly monitored for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion. Review the procedure for administering blood
A change in vital signs may indicate that a transfusion reaction is occurring. This is why the nurse assesses vital signs before the procedure, every 15 minutes for the first half-hour, and every half-hour thereafter. The other options do not need to be assessed just before the start of a transfusion. The nurse should be aware of fluid volume status, as well as weight to help identify fluid volume overload, but this is not the priority before start of a blood infusion.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the words “just before,” in the question, which tell you that the correct option must be assessed for possible comparison during the transfusion. Use the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) to find the correct option. Review the procedure for administering blood
Before beginning the administration of any volume of IV solution through a central venous catheter, the nurse should determine whether the results of the chest x-ray reveal that the catheter is in the proper place. This is necessary to prevent inadvertent infusion of IV fluid into pulmonary or subcutaneous tissues. The other options are items that are useful for the nurse in the general care of the client, but they are not related to this procedure.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, care to the client following insertion of a central venous catheter. Note the words “insertion by the health care provider at the bedside.” Recalling the complications associated with the insertion of central venous catheters and the methods used to detect them will assist in answering this question. Review nursing responsibilities for the client who underwent insertion of a central venous catheter
A dry sterile dressing such as a 2 × 2 is used to apply pressure to the discontinued IV site. This material is absorbent, sterile, and nonirritating. An adhesive bandage may be used to cover the site once hemostasis has occurred. A povidone-iodine swab or alcohol swab would irritate the opened puncture site and would not stop the blood flow.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the procedure for removing an IV. Visualize this procedure and think about each of the items identified in the options to answer the question. Noting the words “applying pressure” in the question will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for removing an IV
Phlebitis at an IV site can be identified by client discomfort at the site, as well as by redness, warmth, and swelling in the area of the catheter. The IV should be removed and a new one inserted at a different site. The remaining options are incorrect. Coolness and swelling would be noted if infiltration had occurred. The symptoms of hypersensitivity and allergic reaction depend on whether these complications are local or systemic.Test-Taking Strategy: Remember that options that are comparable or alike (here, hypersensitivity and allergic reaction) are not likely to be correct. Choose phlebitis of the vein over infiltration of the IV line after recalling that warmth is noted at an IV site in which phlebitis has developed. Coolness would be noted if infiltration had occurred. Review the signs of phlebitis
Agranulocytosis, an adverse effect of antipsychotic medications, is characterized by a sore throat with mouth sores, fever, and malaise. Any client taking such a medication who complains of flulike symptoms should be evaluated carefully. For this reason, the psychiatrist usually prescribes periodic blood tests while a client is taking antipsychotic medications. The incorrect options ignore the client’s complaints.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and note that the client has an awful sore throat. Recalling that antipsychotic medications can cause agranulocytosis will direct you to the correct option. Also note that the correct option is the only one that addresses the client’s complaint. Review the adverse effects of antipsychotic medications
Approximately 5 to 60 days after starting an antipsychotic medication, the client may exhibit the adverse effect of akathisia, manifested by motor restlessness (continually tapping a foot, rocking back and forth in a chair, or shifting weight from one foot to another). Pelvic thrusts, athetoid limbs, and a protruding tongue are effects that may occur after 6 to 24 months of an antipsychotic medication.Test Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, an adverse effect of an antipsychotic medication. Knowledge regarding the adverse effects of antipsychotic medications is needed to answer this question. Noting the words “2 months” and recalling the adverse effects of these medications will assist in directing you to the correct option. Review the effects of antipsychotic medications
Olanzapine is an antipsychotic agent that causes weight gain, a disadvantage of the medication. Weight gain, especially in a young woman, for whom it may have an especially serious affect on self-image, may lead to noncompliance with the medication regimen. “That medication isn’t any more likely to cause weight gain than the others you’re taking” offers incorrect information. “I think you’re overreacting” minimizes the client’s complaints. “I want you to stop taking this medication immediately” gives incorrect information and is presented in an unprofessional style.Test Taking Strategy: Use therapeutic communication techniques. Eliminate the option that states the client’s medication does not cause weight gain any more than others do first, because this medication can cause weight gain. Next eliminate the option in which the nurse tells the client to stop taking this medication immediately, because it is also inaccurate and could cause anxiety for the client. To select from the remaining options, eliminate the one in which the nurse states the client is overreacting, because this minimizes the client’s complaints. Review the effects of olanzapine
The solution containing the highest amount of dextrose should be hung until the new bag of TPN becomes available. Because TPN solutions contain high glucose concentrations, the 10% dextrose solution is the best solution to infuse because it will minimize the risk of hypoglycemia. The pharmacy and health care provider should also be called, but care of the client is the immediate priority of the nurse.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first” and focus on the data in the question. Eliminate calling the pharmacy or health care provider first, because these options do not directly address the client. To select from the remaining options, recall the concentration of a TPN solution and remember that this client is at risk for hypoglycemia; this will direct you to the correct option. Review care of the client receiving TPN
The nurse should assess the client complaining of weakness, headache, and sweating first, because these are signs of hypoglycemia, which could be caused by the decrease in the TPN rate. The client who has been receiving TPN at a rate of 50 mL/hr for the last 24 hours should be assessed but does not need to be seen first. The client who complains of frequent trips to the bathroom should be assessed for hyperglycemia, one of the side effects of TPN, but should not take precedence over the client showing signs of hypoglycemia. A client with an increased temperature should be monitored closely but does not take precedence over the client exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Read each client description carefully. Think about the complications of TPN. Noting the words “decreased to a rate of 25 mL/hr who is now complaining of weakness, headache, and sweating” will direct you to this option as the priority client. Review the complications of TPN and the associated signs and symptoms
When air embolism is suspected, the client should be placed in a left side–lying position with the head lower than the feet. This position is used to minimize the effect of the air traveling as a bolus to the lungs by trapping it in the right side of the heart. The positions in the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, immediately. To answer this question correctly, you must have specific knowledge of client positioning during the management of this complication. Think about the effect of air embolism and how an embolism travels to answer correctly. Review immediate interventions when air embolism is suspected
The nurse must ask the client to take a deep breath and hold it. This effectively achieves the Valsalva maneuver during tubing changes, which helps prevent air embolism. If the line is on the left, it may be helpful to have the client turn the head to the right and vice versa. This allows more room for the nurse to work. However, it is not the most essential action. The other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Note that the question contains the strategic word “essential.” Recalling that there is a risk of air embolism during tubing changes will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedure for TPN bag and tubing changes
Unless contraindicated, the client is placed in a slight Trendelenburg position. This position is used to increase dilation of the veins and positive pressure in the central veins, reducing the risk of air embolus during insertion. Note that Trendelenburg position is contraindicated in clients with head injuries, increased intracrainial pressure, certain respiratory conditions, and spinal cord injuries. If the client had any of these conditions then an alternative position as prescribed would need to be used for insertion. The other options are incorrect because they will not achieve this goal.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike in that they indicate that the client should be positioned flat. Review the procedure for the insertion of a central intravenous line into the subclavian vein
The nurse should not hang a fat emulsion that contains visible fat globules. Another bottle of solution should be obtained and used in its place. When TPN is combined with fat emulsion, the solution should not be used if there is a visible “ring” noted in the container of solution. The actions in the other options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Remember that options that are comparable or alike are not likely to be correct. With this in mind, eliminate rotating the bag and shaking the bottle first. To select from the remaining options, think about the significance of seeing fat globules in the solution and imagine the potential adverse effect of fat globules in the client’s bloodstream. This will direct you to the correct option. Review the procedures for administration of fat emulsion
A loose tubing connection — the most obvious cause of the moisture that could be readily detected and fixed by the nurse — is the first thing the nurse should look for. The client’s temperature would be assessed if the nurse were looking for signs of infection. The expiration date on the infusion bag and the time of the last dressing change are routine observations but have nothing to do with the subject of the question.Test-Taking Strategy: The strategic word in the question is “next.” Also note the relationship between the subject of the question, moisture under the dressing, and tightness of the tubing connections. Review care of the client receiving TPN
The TPN solution should be changed every 24 hours as a means of helping prevent infection. Infection is also prevented with the use of aseptic technique during bag and tubing changes. Most agencies recommend that tubing be changed every 24 hours along with the TPN infusion bag. Specific agency policies should always be followed. The nurse should also use a filter when administering TPN in accordance with hospital protocol. Therefore the remaining options are incorrect.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question and the subject, the time to change the infusion bag. Recalling that the infusion bag should be changed every 24 hours will direct you to the correct option. Review the principles of TPN administration
The high glucose concentration in TPN puts the client at risk for hyperglycemia. Signs of hyperglycemia include polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, blurred vision, nausea and vomiting, and abdominal pain. The nurse checks the blood glucose level immediately if these symptoms develop. The signs and symptoms identified in the other options are unrelated to hyperglycemia.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia. Remembering the “three P’s” (polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia) will direct you to the correct option. Also note that this option is the only one that includes increased urine output. Review the signs of hyperglycemia
The nurse obtains an electronic infusion device before hanging a TPN solution. Because of the high glucose load, it is necessary to use an infusion device to ensure that the solution does not infuse too rapidly or fall too far behind. Because the client’s blood glucose is checked every 6 to 8 hours during administration of PN, a blood glucose meter will also be needed, but it is not essential before the solution is hung. A noninvasive blood pressure cuff is unnecessary for this procedure. Although oxygen saturation is important, in this situation, it is not the most important equipment to use at this time.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “essential” and note the words “before hanging.” This tells you that the correct option identifies the item that is needed to start the infusion. Use your knowledge of the procedures for TPN administration to eliminate each of the incorrect options. Review theprocedures for initiating a TPN infusion
TPN solutions containing as much as 10% glucose can be infused through peripheral vessels. A TPN solution containing 25% glucose is hypertonic. The nurse should question the prescription in the absence of a central venous catheter or a peripherally inserted central catheter. Diluting the solution with sterile water to half-strength and hanging the IV solution as prescribed are both inappropriate. The nurse must not alter a prescribed solution independently.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the information in the question. Note the words “peripheral intravenous (IV) line” and “25% glucose.” Recalling that TPN solutions containing as much as 10% glucose can be infused through peripheral vessels will direct you to the correct option. Review base solutions of TPN and their routes of administration
Blanching, coolness, and edema of the IV site are all signs of infiltration. Because infiltration may result in damage to the surrounding tissue, the nurse must first remove the IV cannula to prevent any further damage. The nurse should not depend solely on the blood return for assurance that the cannula is in the vein, because blood return may be present even if the cannula is only partially in the vein. Compresses may be used, but the compress (warm or cool) depends on the type of solution infusing and health care provider preference. The nurse should measure the area of infiltration after the IV has been removed so that further tissue damage is prevented.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “first.” Although each of these options is appropriate, it is necessary to prioritize them. The signs presented in the question point to infiltration. Infiltration indicates that the IV must be removed. Review the signs of infiltration and the appropriate initial interventions
One complication of a subclavian central line is embolism, caused by air or thrombus. Sudden onset of chest pain shortly after the initiation of TPN may mean that this complication has developed. The infusion is clamped (the line should not be discontinued, however), the client turned on the left side with the head down, and the HCP notified immediately. Depending on agency protocol, the rapid response team would also be called. Blood cultures are not necessary in this situation, because infection is not the concern. Likewise, there is no useful reason for checking the blood glucose level. An ECG may be obtained, but this is not the immediate priority. If the client shows signs of an air embolism, the nurse should examine the catheter to determine whether an open port has allowed air into the circulatory system.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “immediate.” Focus on the data provided in the question to determine that an embolus has occurred. Eliminate blood cultures and blood glucose testing, which, respectively, relate to infection and hyperglycemia, which is not likely to occur during the first 2 hours of TPN administration. To select from the remaining options, focus on the strategic word “immediate”; this will direct you to the correct option. Review the complications of TPN and the associated nursing interventions
: Anorexia and nausea are symptoms commonly associated with digoxin toxicity, which is compounded by hypokalemia. Early clinical manifestations of digoxin toxicity include anorexia and mild nausea, but they are frequently overlooked or not associated with digoxin toxicity. Hallucinations and any change in pulse rhythm, color vision, or behavior should be investigated and reported to the health care provider. The nurse should first check the results of the potassium level, which will provide additional when the nurse calls the health care provider,an important follow-up action. The nurse should also check the digoxin reading if one is available. The nurse would not administer an antiemetic without further investigating the client’s problem. Because digoxin toxicity is suspected, the nurse would withhold the digoxin until the health care provider has been consulted. The nurse would not discontinue a medication without a prescription to do so.
If the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, the transfusion is stopped and normal saline solution infused at a keep-vein-open rate pending further health care provider prescriptions. The nurse then contacts the health care provider.. Dextrose in water is not used, because it may cause clotting or hemolysis of blood cells. Normal saline solution is the only type of IV fluid that is compatible with blood. The nurse would not remove the IV catheter, because then there would be no IV access route through which to treat the reaction. There is no reason to obtain a culture of the catheter tip; this is done when an infection is suspected.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word “next.” Knowing that the IV should not be removed will assist you in the elimination process. Recalling that normal saline solution is the only type of IV fluid that is compatible with blood will also help you answer correctly. To select from the remaining options, note that infection is not the concern; this will help you eliminate the option of obtaining a culture of the catheter tip. Review care of the client experiencing a transfusion reaction
The client’s symptoms are indicative of speed shock, which results from the rapid infusion of drugs or a bolus infusion. In this case, the nurse would note that 400 mL has infused over 60 minutes. The first action on the part of the nurse is shutting off the IV infusion. Other actions may follow in rapid sequence: The nurse may elevate the head of the bed to aid the client’s breathing and then immediately notify the health care provider. Slowing the infusion rate is inappropriate because the client will continue to receive fluid. The IV does not need to be removed. It may be needed to manage the complication.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the question contains the strategic word “first.” Recognizing the signs of speed shock and recalling the appropriate interventions should also direct you to the option of shutting off the IV infusion. Review the initial nursing actions for speed shock
Phlebitis is an inflammatory process in the vein. Phlebitis at an IV site may be indicated by client discomfort at the site or by redness, warmth, and swelling in the area of the catheter. The IV catheter should be removed and a new IV line inserted at a different site. Slowing the rate of infusion and checking for loose catheter connections are not correct responses. The health care provider would be notified if phlebitis were to occur, but this is not the initial action.Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, first. Focus on the data in the question. Eliminate slowing the rate of infusion and checking the connection, because they are comparable or alike in that they indicate continuation of IV therapy. Although the health care provider would be notified of this occurrence, the word “first” should direct you to select the option of removing the IV catheter. Review the signs of phlebitis and the actions to be taken when it occurs
Self-care guidelines for the client include compliance with the treatment regimen, immediate reporting of any relapse signs, avoidance of alcohol and drugs, and living a balanced lifestyle. Telling all friends about the illness so that they can support the client’s avoidance of alcohol and drugs and help the client maintain a balanced lifestyle is incorrect. Although the closest supportive friends need to know and understand the illness, not everybody does. Limiting college attendance to commuter status to maintain a supportive family group and avoiding drugs, alcohol, and the strain of socialization is incorrect. Not allowing the client to be independent and follow a normal growth and development pattern would retard the client’s growth. Socializing with one supportive friend is incorrect because it is best to bring as many supportive persons to the client as possible.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question and the subject, self-care. Eliminate the options that contain the words “one,” “all,” and “limiting”. Also note that the correct option is the umbrella option. Review: care of the client with schizophrenia .Reference: Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2009). Essentials of psychiatric mental health nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care (p. 293). St. Louis: Saunders.
Clang associations, word salad, and loose associations are language disturbances that indicate a client’s inability to communicate effectively. These manifestations are not associated with coping or sensory alterations.Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the data in the question. Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike: Defensive coping is the same as inability to cope effectively. To select from the remaining options, recall that clang associations, word salad, and loose associations are signs of disturbed thought process and impaired verbal communication, which will direct you to the correct option. Review: the characteristics of schizophrenia .References: Stuart, G. (2009). Principles & practice of psychiatric nursing (9th ed., p. 338). St. Louis: Mosby.Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2009). Essentials of psychiatric mental health nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care (p. 281). St. Louis: Saunders.
Desired outcomes for a psychotic client during the stable or discharge phase of treatment include maintenance of a consistent sleeping pattern; avoidance of caffeine and alcohol; maintenance of daily and weekly routines, including enjoyable activities; and a regular medication schedule. Evaluation of neurological status, the use of directive communications, and the administration of acute psychotropic medications with the client are all active-phase interventions.Test-Taking Strategy: and focus on the subject, the stable or discharge phase of treatment. First eliminate the option that contains the word “acute.” To select from the remaining options, focus on the subject. Evaluation of neurological status and use of directive communications with the client are part of the acute phase of treatment. Review: interventions for the client with psychosis who is preparing for discharge .References: Stuart, G. (2009). Principles & practice of psychiatric nursing (9th ed., p. 233). St. Louis: Mosby.Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2009). Essentials of psychiatric mental health nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care (p. 293). St. Louis: Saunders.
Distracting ways of coping with voices include reading aloud, describing an object in detail, listening to music, and watching television. Having the client try to count back from 100 or listen to music will assist in distraction. In the remaining options, the nurse suggests interacting techniques that reinforce the client’s belief that the voices are real.Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate the options that are comparable or alike and indicate that the voices are real. Review: care of the schizophrenic client who is hallucinating .Reference: Varcarolis, E., & Halter, M. (2009). Essentials of psychiatric mental health nursing: A communication approach to evidence-based care (p. 288). St. Louis: Saunders.
The most therapeutic technique for assisting a client whose speech is confused and unintelligible is to emphasize what is happening in the here and now and involve the client in simple reality-based activities. “Got it. The ‘blinks’ are ‘taking over’ the ‘bumpers’” is unintelligible speech on the part of the nurse and reinforces the client’s behavior. In stating, “I can’t understand what you’re saying. You have to talk more clearly!” the nurse begins with an appropriate response, but demanding that the client speak more clearly is inappropriate. In responding, “I can’t understand you. Are you asking me to stay with you while you eat supper?” the nurse is guessing at what the client has said.Test-Taking Strategy: First eliminate the option that is unintelligible. Next eliminate the option that is demanding that the client speak more clearly. As you choose from the remaining options, remember that a schizophrenic client who exhibits confusion and unintelligible speech should be involved in simple reality-based activities. Review: care of the client with schizophrenia .Reference: Stuart, G. (2009). Principles & practice of psychiatric nursing (9th ed., p. 348). St. Louis: Mosby.